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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and borderline personality disorder is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to a decreased level of consciousness. She is currently on regular insulin. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale is 3/15. The venous blood gas results show a pH of 7.36 (7.35-7.45), K+ of 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.5), Na+ of 136 mmol/L (135-145), glucose of 1.2 mmol/L (4.0-7.0), HCO3- of 23 mmol/L (22-26), and Hb of 145 g/dL (12.1-15.1). What is the first hormone to be secreted in response to the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cortisol
Correct Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:The correct answer is Glucagon, as it is the first hormone to be secreted in response to hypoglycaemia. The patient’s reduced level of consciousness is likely due to profound hypoglycaemia caused by exogenous insulin administration. Borderline personality disorder patients have a higher incidence of self harm and suicidality than the general population. Insulin is not the correct answer as its secretion decreases in response to hypoglycaemia, and this patient has T1DM resulting in an absolute deficiency. Cortisol is also not the correct answer as it takes longer to be secreted, although it is another counter-regulatory hormone that seeks to raise blood glucose levels in response to hypoglycaemia.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it is discovered that the patient has sensory loss in their middle finger. Which specific dermatome is responsible for this sensory loss?
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:The middle finger is where the C7 dermatome is located.
Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.
Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a tender, hot, and painful knee. Upon aspiration and light microscopy, rhomboid crystals with weakly positive birefringence are detected.
What is the composition of these crystals?Your Answer: Calcium oxalate
Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:Pseudogout is a condition where calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the joints, causing inflammation. This is different from gout, which is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals due to factors such as inadequate urea excretion or high purine intake from foods like seafood.
Treatment for pseudogout involves the use of anti-inflammatory medications and joint replacement surgery may be necessary if the condition causes significant joint damage.
In gout, urea levels may be increased, but during an acute attack, they may actually be decreased. Struvite stones are formed from bacterial products, while staghorn stones are large stones that are often caused by Proteus mirabilis and can obstruct the renal pelvis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following aims to address confounding factors in the analysis stage of a study?
Your Answer: Randomization
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:Understanding Confounding in Statistics
Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.
Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up and physical examination. He has a medical history of hypertension and asthma but currently has no immediate concerns. He reports feeling healthy.
During the examination, the man appears to be in good health, with normal vital signs except for a high blood pressure reading of 160/90 mmHg. While listening to his heart, the GP detects an S4 heart sound and orders an ECG.
Which segment of the ECG corresponds to the S4 heart sound?Your Answer: T wave
Correct Answer: P wave
Explanation:The S4 heart sound coincides with the P wave on an ECG. This is because the S4 sound is caused by the contraction of the atria against a stiff ventricle, which occurs just before the S1 sound. It is commonly heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, or hypertension. As the P wave represents atrial depolarization, it is the ECG wave that coincides with the S4 heart sound.
It is important to note that the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, is not associated with the S4 heart sound. Similarly, the ST segment, which is the interval between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, and T waves, which indicate ventricular repolarization, are not linked to the S4 heart sound.
Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Sophie attends her follow-up clinic appointment after her successful liver transplant. Her current medications include paracetamol, loratadine, salbutamol inhaler, prednisolone and mycophenolate.
A urine dipstick performed in clinic shows the following:
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Glucose ++
Protein -
Blood -
Based on these results you decide to check her blood sugar levels, which is shown below.
Capillary blood glucose 9.2 mmol/L
Which of her medications is most likely responsible for her elevated blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old child presents with a cleft palate, recurrent infections, and hypocalcemia. On chest x-ray, there is a decreased thymic shadow. The diagnosis is a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which embryological structure abnormal development is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: 2nd and 3rd branchial arches
Correct Answer: 3rd and 4th branchial pouches
Explanation:Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th branchial pouches is the underlying cause of 22q11 deletion syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome. This patient exhibits clinical symptoms consistent with DiGeorge syndrome, which is characterized by the improper formation of these pouches.
The 3rd branchial pouch typically develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroids, while the 4th branchial pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroids. When the thymus fails to develop properly, it can result in a deficiency of T cells and recurrent infections. Additionally, inadequate parathyroid development can lead to hypocalcemia.
DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymic hypoplasia.
The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A new medication is being tested for its potential benefits in improving 30-day survival rates after a heart attack in patients over the age of 60. In a study of 1500 patients over the age of 60 who have had a heart attack, 600 are given the new medication and 900 are given a placebo.
Among the group given the new medication, 20 patients die within 30 days. Among the group given the placebo, 80 patients die within 30 days.
What is the number needed to treat?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a patient in the emergency department who has experienced abrupt onset chest pain, dyspnoea and diaphoresis. After reviewing the patient's ECG, you identify changes within a specific section and promptly arrange for transfer to the catheterisation laboratory.
What is the underlying process indicated by the affected section of the ECG?Your Answer: Sino-atrial node firing
Correct Answer: Period between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation
Explanation:The ST segment on an ECG indicates the period when the entire ventricle is depolarized. In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction, it is crucial to examine the ST segment for any elevation or depression, which can indicate a STEMI or NSTEMI, respectively.
The ECG does not have a specific section that corresponds to the firing of the sino-atrial node, which triggers atrial depolarization (represented by the p wave). The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
In atrial fibrillation, the p wave is absent or abnormal due to the irregular firing of the atria.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A new medication is being tested that targets the phase of the cell cycle responsible for determining the duration of the cell cycle. During which phase of the cell cycle is it most probable for this medication to function to achieve this outcome?
Your Answer: G2 phase
Correct Answer: G1 phase
Explanation:The length of the cell cycle is determined by the G1 phase, which is the initial growth phase of the cell. This phase is regulated by p53 and various regulatory proteins. The duration of the cell cycle varies among different cells in different tissues, with skin cells replicating more quickly than hepatocytes. The G0 phase is the resting or quiescent phase of the cell, and cells that do not actively replicate, such as cardiac myocytes, exit the cell cycle during the G1 phase to enter the G0 phase. The G2 phase is a second growth phase that occurs after the G1 phase.
The Cell Cycle and its Regulation
The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman with a history of asthma, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and type II diabetes mellitus has been admitted to the respiratory ward due to breathlessness after contracting SARS-CoV-2. Despite receiving 60% oxygen via a venturi mask, her oxygen saturation remains at 91%. The doctor decides to prescribe dexamethasone. What is the expected effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Psychosis
Correct Answer: Increased blood glucose levels
Explanation:The use of corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, can worsen diabetic control due to their anti-insulin effects. Dexamethasone, which is commonly used to manage severe SARS-CoV-2 infection, has a high glucocorticoid activity that can lead to insulin resistance and increased blood glucose levels. However, it is unlikely to cause an asthma exacerbation or a flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis or gout. While psychosis is a known side effect of dexamethasone, it is less common than an increase in blood glucose levels.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. During examination, it is observed that there is paralysis of big toe extension.
Which myotome is affected by this paralysis?Your Answer: L5
Explanation:The L5 myotome is responsible for extending the big toe, while S1 is responsible for ankle plantar-flexion, ankle eversion, and knee flexion. L4 is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, and T12 is responsible for abdominal muscle contraction.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents to the paediatric clinic with concerns about her delayed walking. Her mother reports that she has had three ear infections this year and has not been gaining weight as expected. The following blood test results are relevant:
Hb 120 g/L (110 - 140)
WBC 7.8 * 109/L (5.0 – 12.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Creatinine 30 µmol/L (13 – 39)
CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
Corrected serum Ca2+ 2.30 mmol/L (2.20-2.70)
ALP 190 IU/l (76 – 308)
Vitamin D 15 nmol/L (>50)
IgA Anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTGA) Negative -
TSH 5.0 mU/l (0.6 – 8.1)
What is the underlying condition causing this child's delayed walking?Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D.
Understanding Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.
A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are conducting a neurological assessment on a 65-year-old man who complains of a headache. During the examination, you observe that his left pupil is smaller than the right. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has a past medical history of open-angle glaucoma and had applied eye drops to his left eye earlier in the day, but he cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following eye drop formulations is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Latanoprost
Correct Answer: Pilocarpine
Explanation:Pilocarpine is a medication that activates muscarinic receptors and is sometimes used to treat glaucoma. It is believed to lower intraocular pressure by widening the trabecular spaces and increasing the flow of aqueous humor. Pilocarpine also causes constriction of the pupil due to the presence of muscarinic receptors in the ciliary muscles and iris sphincter. The effect of miosis typically lasts for 4-8 hours after administration.
Brimonidine is an agonist of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors that reduces the production of aqueous humor and increases its outflow.
Dorzolamide is a medication that inhibits carbonic anhydrase and reduces the secretion of aqueous humor.
Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that enhances the outflow of aqueous humor.
Drugs Acting on Common Receptors
The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.
For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.
Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.
Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A histopathologist receives multiple muscle tissue specimens and wants to identify the muscle type based on the presence of nuclei. Which muscle type has a single nucleus located centrally along the muscle fiber?
Your Answer: Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Cardiac and smooth muscle
Explanation:There are three categories of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65 years old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of stiffness in both hands lasting for several hours. She has also observed that her fingers turn white when exposed to cold but denies any other related symptoms. X-rays of the affected metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints of the hands reveal periarticular osteopenia and bony erosions.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by longer morning stiffness lasting more than 30-60 minutes. It typically affects three or more joints symmetrically, but spares the distal interphalangeal joints. Diagnosis is based on clinical features and can be supported by positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) or rheumatoid factor (RF) serological testing. X-rays may show periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. Additionally, Raynaud’s phenomenon can be an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.
Comparison of Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are two types of arthritis that affect the joints. Osteoarthritis is caused by mechanical wear and tear, resulting in the localized loss of cartilage, remodelling of adjacent bone, and associated inflammation. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects women more commonly than men and can occur in adults of all ages. It typically affects the MCP and PIP joints, causing bilateral symptoms and systemic upset, while osteoarthritis affects large weight-bearing joints such as the hip and knee, as well as the carpometacarpal joint and DIP and PIP joints, causing unilateral symptoms and no systemic upset.
The typical history of osteoarthritis involves pain following use, which improves with rest, while rheumatoid arthritis involves morning stiffness that improves with use. X-ray findings for osteoarthritis include loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, and osteophytes forming at joint margins. For rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray findings include loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, periarticular erosions, and subluxation.
In summary, while both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis affect the joints, they have different causes, affected joints, symptoms, and X-ray findings. Understanding these differences can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 11 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, there is evidence of bleeding, but the size of the uterus is consistent with the given dates, and the cervical os is closed. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?
Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. It is a common occurrence, with about 10-20% of pregnancies ending in miscarriage. In most cases, the cause of miscarriage is unknown, but it can be due to genetic abnormalities, hormonal imbalances, or health conditions such as diabetes or thyroid problems.
There are different types of miscarriage, including complete, incomplete, inevitable, and septic. A complete miscarriage is when all fetal tissue has been passed, bleeding has stopped, the uterus is no longer enlarged, and the cervical os is closed. An incomplete miscarriage is when only some fetal parts have been passed, and the cervical os is usually open. An inevitable miscarriage means that a miscarriage is about to occur, with the fetus still possibly alive but the cervical os open and bleeding usually heavier. A septic miscarriage occurs when the contents of the uterus are infected, causing endometritis. Symptoms include offensive vaginal loss, tender uterus, and in cases of pelvic infection, abdominal pain and peritonism.
Types of Miscarriage
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur during pregnancy. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. One type is threatened miscarriage, which is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. This type of miscarriage complicates up to 25% of all pregnancies.
Another type is missed (delayed) miscarriage, which is characterized by a gestational sac that contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge and the disappearance of pregnancy symptoms, but pain is not usually present. The cervical os is closed, and when the gestational sac is larger than 25 mm and no embryonic or fetal part can be seen, it is sometimes referred to as a blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy.
Inevitable miscarriage is another type, which is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain. The cervical os is open in this case. Lastly, incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled. This type of miscarriage is characterized by pain and vaginal bleeding, and the cervical os is open. Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help individuals recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, dizziness, and a pinkish tint to his skin. He discloses that he is homeless and currently squatting in an abandoned house with some companions who are also experiencing similar symptoms. He reports purchasing a paraffin heater to keep the house warm.
The physician suspects that the patient's oxygen saturation is being affected by a blood gas disturbance.
Considering the probable cause of this manifestation, how would his oxygen dissociation curve vary from prior to his exposure to the gas?Your Answer: Higher plateau
Correct Answer: Lower plateau
Explanation:In cases of carbon monoxide poisoning, the binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin results in a decrease in oxygen saturation, causing the oxygen dissociation curve to plateau at a lower saturation point. This is often caused by incomplete combustion from sources such as paraffin heaters. Clinicians should be aware of vague symptoms such as headaches in all household members, which may indicate exposure to carbon monoxide. The sigmoid shape of the oxygen dissociation curve is retained in carbon monoxide poisoning, although it is shifted left and tops out at a lower level than normal. A more staggered curve is not seen in any pathology and is a distractor.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with a vitamin B1 deficiency. What food is known to be a rich source of thiamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wheat germ
Explanation:Thiamine Deficiency and Dietary Sources
Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that the body cannot store in large amounts and must be obtained through the diet. Wholegrain cereals, oatmeal, yeast, pork, sunflower seeds, and certain vegetables such as potatoes, asparagus, and cauliflower are good dietary sources of thiamine. However, refined cereals and white flour typically contain low levels of thiamine, and processing, boiling, and overcooking vegetables can remove a significant amount of the vitamin.
Thiamine plays a crucial role in energy production, nervous transmission, and collagen synthesis. A deficiency in thiamine can lead to impairment of these processes, resulting in various signs and symptoms such as muscle tenderness, weakness, and reduced reflexes, confusion, memory impairment, impaired wound healing, poor balance, falls, constipation, and reduced appetite. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of thiamine through a balanced diet to prevent deficiency and maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 85-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of urinary frequency and urgency. He explains the symptoms are particularly bothersome at night where he wakes up three to four times to urinate. Additionally, he feels as though he cannot fully empty his bladder.
During examination, a digital rectal exam reveals a smooth enlarged prostate.
What is the mechanism of action of the medication prescribed for symptomatic relief?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroidal 5α-reductase inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called 5 alpha-reductase. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, a hormone that contributes to the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness. By blocking this enzyme, finasteride can help alleviate the symptoms of these conditions.
Finasteride is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a condition in which the prostate gland becomes enlarged and causes urinary problems. It is also used to treat male-pattern baldness, a genetic condition that causes hair loss in men. However, like any medication, finasteride can cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of finasteride include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. Additionally, finasteride can cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen, a protein that is often used to screen for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found at home by his son after falling. He is very confused and the son believes that he is intoxicated. He reports that his father has been becoming increasingly confused over the past few weeks. He also mentions that his father has been alcohol-dependent for a number of years. The patient reports that he is seeing double.
Upon examination, the doctor notes that the patient has lateral gaze nystagmus and notes ptosis in his left eye. The patient's gait is ataxic. The doctor suspects that the patient has Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Which area of the brain undergoes necrosis in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mamillary bodies
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by thiamine deficiency and leads to neuronal death in areas with high metabolic requirements such as the mamillary bodies, periaqueductal grey matter, floor of the fourth ventricle, and thalamus. It primarily affects motor symptoms and does not impact the prefrontal cortex or Broca’s area. Damage to these areas can occur during ischaemic stroke.
Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. It is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, and dietary deficiencies. The condition is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, including oculomotor dysfunction, ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include confusion, disorientation, indifference, and inattentiveness, as well as peripheral sensory neuropathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for the condition is urgent replacement of thiamine.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Overall, it is important to recognize the symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy and seek treatment as soon as possible to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the anatomy of Calots triangle. While attempting to apply a haemostatic clip, you accidentally tear the cystic artery, resulting in profuse bleeding. What is the most probable source of this bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right hepatic artery
Explanation:The most frequent scenario is for the cystic artery to originate from the right hepatic artery, although there are known variations in the anatomy of the gallbladder’s blood supply.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoadrenalism
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia in Adults
Hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level, which is around <4 mmol/L for adults. This condition can be caused by various endocrine factors such as hypoadrenalism, growth hormone deficiency, glucagon deficiency, and hypothyroidism. However, the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in adults is medication for diabetes, particularly insulin or sulphonylureas. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose. These symptoms include tremors, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness. Mild hypoglycaemia is common during fasting, pregnancy, and minor illness. Apart from medication and endocrine factors, other causes of hypoglycaemia in adults include non-diabetic drugs, alcohol, hepatic failure, critical illness, hormone deficiency, malignancy, insulinoma, non-insulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndrome (NIPHS), and bariatric surgery. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypoglycaemia to provide appropriate treatment. In summary, hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. It can be caused by various factors, including medication, endocrine factors, and other medical conditions. Recognizing the symptoms and identifying the underlying cause is crucial in managing hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, with two children, visits her doctor at 32 weeks gestation to receive her pertussis vaccine. She consents to participate in a research study that aims to assess the levels of immunoglobulins produced in response to the vaccine.
Following the vaccination, a specific immunoglobulin is observed to have a significantly elevated concentration. This immunoglobulin is capable of fixing complement and crossing the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation.
Which immunoglobulin is being referred to in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:The antibody subtype that is capable of fixing complement and passing through the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation is IgG.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction due to a previous myocardial infarction.
Starling's Law of the Heart states that:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume increases gradually then decreases suddenly
Explanation:Starling’s Law of the Heart states that as preload increases, stroke volume also increases gradually, up to a certain point. However, beyond this point, stroke volume decreases due to overloading of the cardiac muscle fibers. Therefore, the higher the cardiac preload, the greater the stroke volume, but only up to a certain limit.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A child who is a few months old has been diagnosed with Down syndrome. The geneticist has confirmed the presence of two genetically distinct cell populations in the body, 46,XY and 47,XY,+21. What mechanism led to the development of Down syndrome in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mosaicism
Explanation:Mosaicism is when there are two different populations of cells with distinct genetic makeup in the body. It is a rare cause of Down’s syndrome. The most common cause of Down’s syndrome is non-disjunction, which occurs when chromosomes do not separate correctly during cell division, resulting in gametes with an extra or missing chromosome. Robertsonian translocation is a type of chromosomal rearrangement where the long arms of two chromosomes fuse to form a single chromosome with one centromere. This can result in an abnormal karyotype if there is additional genetic material. Non-penetrance is when a genetic trait is present in the genotype but does not manifest in the phenotype.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Caucasian man visits his primary care physician complaining of heartburn that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He reports experiencing gnawing pain in his upper abdomen that worsens between meals but improves after eating. The pain does not spread to other areas and is relieved by taking antacids that can be purchased over-the-counter.
The patient undergoes a gastroscopy, which reveals a bleeding ulcer measuring 2x3cm in the first part of his duodenum.
What is the probable cause of this patient's ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection, which is responsible for the majority of cases. Diagnosis can be made through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. The patient’s symptoms of gnawing epigastric pain and improvement with food are consistent with a duodenal ulcer. Adenocarcinoma is an unlikely cause as duodenal ulcers are typically benign. Alcohol excess and NSAIDs are not the most common causes of duodenal ulcers, with Helicobacter pylori being the primary culprit.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of dysuria and frequency that has been getting worse over the past 4 days. She reports an unusual odor in her urine but denies experiencing any flank pain, nausea, or vomiting. The physician performs a urine dip and finds leukocyte++ and nitrite++. A urine culture is ordered to ensure appropriate antibiotic treatment in accordance with good microbiological stewardship. What is accurate regarding the probable causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram negative
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this woman are indicative of a typical urinary tract infection.
Enteric bacteria, particularly E. coli, are the most frequent culprits behind UTIs.
Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations
Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.
One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is brought in by her father as she is having an acute exacerbation of her asthma. While you are giving her a salbutamol nebuliser, you notice signs that make you suspicious of abuse. What is the most common form of child abuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neglect
Explanation:Understanding Child Abuse and the Legal Framework for Child Protection
Child abuse is a serious issue that can take many forms, including neglect, emotional abuse, physical abuse, and sexual abuse. Neglect occurs when a child’s basic needs, such as food, shelter, and medical care, are not met. Emotional abuse involves behaviors that harm a child’s self-esteem, such as constant criticism or belittling. Physical abuse involves any intentional harm to a child’s body, such as hitting or shaking. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity with a child, including touching, penetration, or exposure to sexual content.
To protect children from abuse, the legal framework in the UK is governed by the Children’s Act of 1989 and 2004. These laws outline the responsibilities of local authorities, courts, and other agencies in safeguarding children from harm. The Children’s Act of 1989 established the principle that the welfare of the child is paramount and that children have the right to be protected from harm. The Act also created the role of the Independent Reviewing Officer (IRO), who is responsible for ensuring that the child’s welfare is being safeguarded.
The Children’s Act of 2004 built on the 1989 Act and introduced new measures to improve child protection. These included the creation of the Children and Family Court Advisory and Support Service (CAFCASS), which provides advice to courts on the welfare of children, and the establishment of Local Safeguarding Children Boards (LSCBs), which bring together local agencies to coordinate their efforts to protect children.
In summary, child abuse is a serious issue that can take many forms, and the legal framework in the UK is governed by the Children’s Act of 1989 and 2004. These laws aim to protect children from harm and outline the responsibilities of local authorities, courts, and other agencies in safeguarding children’s welfare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of multiple minor falls and confusion. She has been experiencing daily headaches with nausea for the past 3 years, which have worsened at night and occasionally wake her up. Imaging reveals an intracranial mass located on the left hemisphere's convexity, and a biopsy of the mass shows a whorled pattern of calcified cellular growth that forms syncytial nests and appears as round, eosinophilic laminar structure.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are the second most frequent type of primary brain tumour, often found in the convexities of cerebral hemispheres and parasagittal regions. The biopsy findings of this patient suggest the presence of psammoma bodies, which are mineral deposits formed by calcification of spindle cells in concentric whorls within the tumour.
Ependymomas usually present as paraventricular tumours and exhibit perivascular rosettes under light microscopy.
Glioblastomas are the most common primary malignant brain tumour in adults. Light microscopy reveals hypercellular areas of atypical astrocytes surrounding regions of necrosis.
Medulloblastomas are malignant cerebellar tumours that typically occur in children and are characterized by small blue cells that may encircle neutrophils.
Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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