00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were noted: TSH <0.1 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l), fT4 32 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l), fT3 12 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l). What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Effects

      Graves’ Disease: This condition is characterized by the presence of circulating thyroid hormones under the influence of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). The release of thyroid hormones in response to TRH causes TSH antibodies to bind to TSH receptors, leading to smooth thyroid enlargement and increased hormone production. This results in raised fT4 and fT3 levels, which act via negative feedback to reduce TSH release from the pituitary.

      Early Treatment of Hyperthyroidism: In the early stages of hyperthyroidism treatment, fT4 levels normalize while TSH remains low.

      Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: This autoimmune condition is caused by autoantibodies to thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin, and sometimes TSH receptor-blocking antibodies. It results in goitre due to lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration. It is common in women aged 60-70 years. Patients may be euthyroid or hypothyroid, and rarely, there is an initial period of hyperthyroidism (Hashitoxicosis).

      Post-Thyroidectomy: After a thyroidectomy, without replacement therapy, fT4 levels would be low and TSH raised.

      Sick Euthyroidism: Non-thyroidal illness causes a reduction in TSH, fT3, and fT4 levels, leading to sick euthyroidism.

      Understanding Thyroid Disorders and Their Effects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1011.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin.
      When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner (GP).
      What would analysis of her blood results most likely reveal?

      Your Answer: Below normal glucagon levels

      Correct Answer: Unchanged HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Effects of Insulin Absence in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Patients

      Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur in the body. The HbA1c levels, which reflect the average blood glucose levels over several weeks, would not change significantly over a few days without insulin. However, missing insulin doses for a weekend can put the patient at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening condition. In the absence of insulin, the body cannot utilise glucose, leading to hyperglycaemia and the generation of ketones as an alternative energy source. The raised glucagon levels in response to the absence of insulin would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, but target organs would still not be able to utilise this resource. Triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue would give raised fatty acid levels, which are utilised to synthesise ketones. Overall, the absence of insulin in insulin-dependent diabetes patients can have significant effects on their metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after experiencing sudden hair growth, specifically on...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after experiencing sudden hair growth, specifically on her face. She is feeling increasingly self-conscious about it and wants to address the issue. Blood tests were conducted, revealing an elevated testosterone level of 9.8 nmol/l (reference range 0.8-3.1 nmol/l). What is the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer for an ultrasound scan of her pelvis to look for polycystic ovary disease

      Correct Answer: Refer to Endocrinology as a suspected cancer referral

      Explanation:

      Referral for Suspected Androgen-Secreting Tumour in a Patient with Hirsutism

      This patient presents with sudden-onset hair growth and a raised testosterone level, which raises suspicion for an androgen-secreting tumour. An urgent referral for further investigation is necessary to rule out malignancy. While polycystic ovary syndrome can also cause hirsutism, the patient’s testosterone level warrants exclusion of a tumour. Topical eflornithine may provide symptomatic relief, but it is not a substitute for further investigation. Routine referral to endocrinology is not appropriate in this case, as it may delay diagnosis and treatment of a potential malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You encounter a 27-year-old patient who has recently found out that she is...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 27-year-old patient who has recently found out that she is pregnant. Her medical history reveals that she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism eight years ago and has been on a stable dose of levothyroxine since then. What is the appropriate course of action regarding her medication?

      Your Answer: The dose of levothyroxine should be increased when pregnancy is diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Recommendations for Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Testing

      Hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for both the mother and fetus. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend increasing the dose of levothyroxine by 25-50 μg and referring the patient to an endocrinologist upon diagnosis of pregnancy. It is important to note that iodine supplements are not recommended for treating hypothyroidism in pregnancy. Adequate thyroid function is crucial for fetal neurological development, so stopping levothyroxine is not an option. Thyroid function tests (TFTs) should be taken at baseline and every four weeks, as changes in drug pharmacodynamics and kinetics can occur during pregnancy. The target thyroid stimulating hormone range should be low-normal at 0.4-2 mU/l, and the dose of levothyroxine should remain unchanged until specialist review.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      170.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. The patient is currently 7 months pregnant and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the patient has bulging eyes, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a small goitre. The following laboratory results were obtained:
      - Free T4: 42 pmol/l (normal range: 11-22 pmol/l)
      - Free T3: 16 pmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5 pmol/l)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): <0.01 µU/l (normal range: 0.17-3.2 µU/l)
      - TSH receptor antibody (TRAb): 20 U/l (normal range: <0.9 U/l)
      What treatment should be recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Propylthiouracil as part of a blocking-replacement regime

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of an overactive thyroid, likely due to Graves’ disease. Propranolol can provide temporary relief, but long-term treatment involves blocking the thyroid gland with carbimazole or replacing thyroid hormones with thyroxine. Ibuprofen is not indicated for this condition. Tri-iodothyronine is more potent than thyroxine but less stable, making thyroxine the preferred hormone replacement medication. Propylthiouracil can also be used to block thyroid hormone formation, but its use in the first trimester of pregnancy is avoided due to potential teratogenic effects. PTU can be used in pregnancy, but only at the lowest effective dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      184.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
      Investigations:
      Serum:
      Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
      Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
      Urine:
      Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
      Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
      Which of the following could be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).

      SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.

      Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      156.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old woman takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At her annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At her annual check-up, she reports that she is feeling well. Among the results of her blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (2.1–2.8 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.80 mmol/l (1.0–1.5 mmol/l) and alkaline phosphatase 215 iu/l (53–128 iu/l).
      Which of the following is the most likely explanation of these results in this woman?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalcaemia, often detected incidentally on routine blood tests. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, which increases calcium reabsorption from bones and kidneys and decreases phosphate reabsorption from kidneys. As a result, patients may have elevated serum calcium and low serum phosphate levels, but normal or slightly elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.

      Other possible causes of hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase include occult malignancy, especially if it involves bone, but this would usually result in a higher alkaline phosphatase level. Paget’s disease of bone, a chronic disorder of bone remodeling, may also cause hypercalcaemia, but it typically presents with a much higher alkaline phosphatase level as a marker of bone destruction.

      Thyrotoxicosis, a condition of excess thyroid hormone, can also lead to hypercalcaemia, but this patient has no symptoms suggestive of hyperthyroidism. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that secretes catecholamines, may cause hypertension, but it is not typically associated with hypercalcaemia or hypophosphataemia.

      Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which may be part of a multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2 syndrome that also involves the thyroid gland and adrenal medulla. Further evaluation, including imaging studies and genetic testing, may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old Hispanic male presents to his primary care physician complaining of fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Hispanic male presents to his primary care physician complaining of fatigue. He has noticed a slight increase in weight and has been feeling increasingly tired over the past year. The patient has a history of asthma and manages it with inhaled salbutamol as needed, typically no more than once a week. He also has type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet.

      During the examination, the patient's blood pressure is measured at 172/98 mmHg, his body mass index is 29.7 kg/m2, and his pulse is 88 beats per minute. No other abnormalities are noted. Over the next month, his blood pressure readings are consistently high, measuring at 180/96, 176/90, and 178/100 mmHg.

      Which medication would be recommended for the treatment of this patient's high blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Treatment in Patients with Type 2 Diabetes

      Patients with type 2 diabetes and sustained hypertension require treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.

      However, bendroflumethiazide should be avoided in patients with a history of gout as it may provoke an attack. Beta-blockers should also be avoided for routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In cases where there is no alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist, with close monitoring for adverse effects.

      Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to follow guidelines, such as those provided by NICE and the British National Formulary, for the diagnosis and management of hypertension in adults with diabetes. A treatment algorithm for hypertension can also be helpful in guiding treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      216.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She is currently encephalopathic and has an INR of 6. What low-dose medication can be safely administered?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Codeine

      Explanation:

      Adjusting Drug Dosages for Patients with Hepatic Impairment

      Patients with hepatic impairment may require adjustments to their medication regimen to prevent further liver damage or reduced drug metabolism. Certain drugs should be avoided altogether, including paracetamol, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, ergometrine, and anticoagulants or antiplatelets like aspirin or warfarin due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Other medications, such as opiates, methotrexate, theophylline, and phenytoin, may still be prescribed but at a reduced dose to minimize potential harm to the liver. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication and adjust dosages accordingly for patients with hepatic impairment. Proper medication management can help improve patient outcomes and prevent further liver damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated? ...

    Correct

    • With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

      Explanation:

      Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)

      Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.

      In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Peptides Secreted by the Pituitary Gland

      The pituitary gland secretes various hormones that regulate different bodily functions. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes two peptides, oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Oxytocin, which is produced in the hypothalamus, stimulates uterine contractions during labor and is involved in the release of milk from the lactating breast. ADH, also known as vasopressin, is also produced in the hypothalamus and regulates water balance in the body.

      On the other hand, the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes six peptide hormones. These hormones include adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), growth hormone (GH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). ACTH stimulates the adrenal gland to produce cortisol, which helps the body respond to stress. Prolactin stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism. GH promotes growth and development in children and helps maintain muscle and bone mass in adults. FSH and LH regulate the reproductive system, with FSH stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males, while LH triggers ovulation in females and testosterone production in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis. During examination, he exhibits hypotension and hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further testing reveals a diagnosis of Addison's disease. What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Increased sodium

      Correct Answer: Increased potassium

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Findings in Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by primary adrenocortical insufficiency, which is caused by the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. The most prominent biochemical findings in patients with Addison’s disease are hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. This article discusses the various biochemical changes that occur in Addison’s disease, including increased potassium, increased glucose, increased bicarbonate, increased sodium, and reduced urea. These changes are a result of the loss of gland function, which leads to reduced glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The sodium-retaining and potassium and hydrogen ion-secreting action of aldosterone is particularly affected, resulting in the biochemical changes noted above. The article also highlights the most common causes of Addison’s disease, including tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, and removal of exogenous steroid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism. During the examination, the patient seems lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg and blood tests show Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 2.8 mmol/l and random glucose 8.2 mmol/l. The doctor orders a low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test. What is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?

      Your Answer: Iatrogenic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cushing Syndrome: Understanding the Different Types

      Cushing Syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate metabolism and stress response. There are several different causes of Cushing Syndrome, including:

      1. Iatrogenic: This is the most common cause of Cushing Syndrome and is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. People who take oral corticosteroids are at a higher risk, but the condition can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.

      2. Ectopic ACTH secretion: This is a very rare cause of Cushing Syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumor.

      3. Primary adrenal disorder: This is primary hypercortisolism, which is an unusual cause for Cushing Syndrome.

      4. Pituitary-dependent: This is Cushing’s disease, which is much rarer than Cushing Syndrome, arising from a pituitary tumor.

      5. Pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome: This describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing Syndrome.

      Understanding the different types of Cushing Syndrome can help with diagnosis and treatment. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains of weight gain during the past 3 years, despite her adherence to a balanced diet. She has diffuse skeletal pain. She is not married and does not have a sexual partner. Her family history is unremarkable. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Her face is plethoric and round and she has hypertrichosis of the upper lip (hirsutism). There are purple striae on the abdomen and thigh, and mild wasting of the upper and lower limb muscles. Her full blood count shows a slight increase in the polymorphonuclear leukocyte count, without a left shift. Her haemoglobin is 180 (115–155 g/l).
      Which of the following changes in serum calcium, phosphate and parathyroid hormone concentrations would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium - increased; phosphate - decreased; parathyroid hormone - increased

      Correct Answer: Calcium - decreased; phosphate - decreased; parathyroid hormone - increased

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Calcium, Phosphate, and Parathyroid Hormone Levels in a Patient with Prolonged Hypercortisolism

      A patient presents with diffuse bone pain and laboratory results show decreased calcium and phosphate levels, along with increased parathyroid hormone levels. This is indicative of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is a common complication of hypercortisolism. Elevated serum cortisol levels can lead to hypocalcaemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism, causing increased osteoclast activity and osteoblast dysfunction, ultimately resulting in osteoporosis and pathological fractures.

      If the patient had increased phosphate levels instead of decreased levels, it would suggest renal impairment. If the patient had increased calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism. If the patient had decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate levels, it would suggest hypoparathyroidism. If all levels were normal, it may be too early in the course of hypercortisolism to see changes in these markers.

      In summary, interpreting calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone levels can provide valuable information in diagnosing and managing complications of hypercortisolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      247.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with his hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.5 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
      fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
      What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: A TSH-secreting tumour

      Correct Answer: Need more information

      Explanation:

      The Importance of fT4 in Thyroid Diagnosis

      When diagnosing thyroid conditions, the fT4 level is a crucial piece of information that cannot be overlooked. A patient with high TSH could be hyperthyroid, hypothyroid, or euthyroid with this TSH level, and the fT4 level is needed to determine the correct diagnosis. While a normal fT3 level can rule out hyperthyroidism, it cannot exclude the diagnosis if the fT4 level is high. Similarly, fT3 levels are of no use in diagnosing hypothyroidism, as they can be normal in a hypothyroid patient due to increased T4 to T3 conversion. Without the fT4 level, a diagnosis of primary or secondary hypothyroidism or a TSH-secreting tumor cannot be made. Therefore, it is crucial to obtain the fT4 level when evaluating thyroid function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy. His serum biochemistry results show low calcium, high phosphate, and raised parathyroid hormone levels. His blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 590 μmol/l 50–120 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a Patient with Chronic Renal Failure

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur in patients with chronic renal failure due to imbalances in phosphorus and calcium levels. In this case, the patient has hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, leading to overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid gland.

      Loop diuretic overuse can also affect PTH levels, but it would result in additional electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia and hypokalemia. The role of hypertension in causing chronic renal failure is unclear in this patient.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, where the parathyroid gland overproduces PTH resulting in high serum calcium, is not present in this case. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which occurs after a chronic period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and results in dysregulation of calcium homeostasis and high serum calcium levels, is also not present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

      Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
      What signs might be expected in this case?

      Your Answer: Palmar erythema

      Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine health examination before beginning...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine health examination before beginning a new job. During the examination, thyroid function tests are conducted on her serum, which reveal elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), reduced total thyroxine (T4), reduced free T4, and reduced triiodothyronine (T3) uptake. What is the most probable clinical manifestation that this patient will exhibit?

      Your Answer: Hyperactivity

      Correct Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Hypothyroidism and Hyperthyroidism

      Hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism are two conditions that affect the thyroid gland, resulting in a range of symptoms. In hypothyroidism, there is a decrease in T4/T3, leading to symptoms such as lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism results in an increase in thyroid hormones, causing symptoms such as hyperactivity, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and tachycardia. Understanding these symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly...

    Correct

    • Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly mediated?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone related protein

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone-Related Protein in Hypercalcaemia

      Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) is a group of protein hormones that are produced by various tissues in the body. Its discovery was made when it was found to be secreted by certain tumors, causing hypercalcaemia in affected patients. Further studies revealed that the uncontrolled secretion of PTHrP by many tumor cells leads to hypercalcaemia by promoting the resorption of calcium from bones and inhibiting calcium loss in urine, similar to the effects of hyperparathyroidism.

      Overall, PTHrP plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body, and its overproduction can lead to serious health complications. the mechanisms behind PTHrP secretion and its effects on the body can aid in the development of treatments for hypercalcaemia and related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      572.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient in their 60s presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes....

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of >20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
      Which of the following is the patient’s condition due to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation

      Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.

      While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.

      Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha cells

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Cells and Their Secretions

      The pancreas is an important organ in the endocrine system, and it contains different types of cells that secrete various hormones. Alpha cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, which helps to increase blood sugar levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. Delta cells produce somatostatin, which regulates the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In addition to the pancreas, the thyroid gland also contains specialized cells called parafollicular C cells. These cells secrete calcitonin, which helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. Finally, Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are involved in the development of sperm. the different types of endocrine cells and their secretions is important for maintaining proper hormonal balance in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of abdominal fullness and occasional pain. He reports experiencing anorexia, acid reflux, belching, and bloating. He is currently taking glimepiride, metformin, and exenatide and has generally had good control of his blood sugar. However, his last two tests have shown a trend of increasing fasting glucose levels. What is the next appropriate step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change diabetic medication

      Explanation:

      Changing Diabetic Medication for Gastroparesis

      A diabetic patient is experiencing delayed gastric emptying, a common side-effect of GLP-1 agonists like exenatide. To achieve better glycaemic control and prevent current side-effects, the patient’s diabetic medication needs to be changed. However, converting to insulin is not necessary for gastroparesis. Intensifying the current medication is not appropriate due to significant side-effects. Before considering a prokinetic agent like metoclopramide or domperidone, the GLP-1 analogue should be stopped. Treatment for H. pylori infection is not warranted as the patient’s symptoms are not indicative of peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
      Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practice with a lump in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practice with a lump in her neck. During examination, the GP observes a diffusely enlarged thyroid swelling with an audible bruit but no retrosternal extension. The patient reports no difficulty with breathing or swallowing. The patient appears underweight and anxious, with a pulse rate of 110 bpm and signs of proptosis, periorbital oedema, lid retraction and diplopia. The GP suspects hyperthyroidism and refers the patient to the Endocrinology Clinic.
      What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperthyroidism: Understanding the Different Factors

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which results in the production of too much thyroid hormone. There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperthyroidism, each with its own unique characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common causes of hyperthyroidism:

      1. Graves’ Disease: This autoimmune disorder is responsible for around 75% of all cases of hyperthyroidism. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce too much thyroid hormone. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience eye symptoms, such as bulging eyes or double vision.

      2. Toxic Nodule: A toxic nodule is a benign growth on the thyroid gland that produces excess thyroid hormone. It accounts for up to 5% of cases of hyperthyroidism and can be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.

      3. Toxic Multinodular Goitre: This condition is similar to a toxic nodule, but involves multiple nodules on the thyroid gland. It is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism and can also be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.

      4. Over-Treating Hypothyroidism: In some cases, treating an underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) with too much thyroid hormone can result in symptoms of hyperthyroidism. This is known as thyrotoxicosis and can be corrected by adjusting the dosage of thyroid hormone medication.

      5. Medullary Carcinoma: This rare form of thyroid cancer develops from C cells in the thyroid gland and can cause high levels of calcitonin. However, it does not typically result in hyperthyroidism.

      Understanding the different causes of hyperthyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you are experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, or anxiety, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection of the neck mass demonstrates a multifocal tumour with haemorrhage, necrosis and spread outside the thyroid capsule. The tumour is composed of polygonal cells in nests. Amyloid deposits are seen in the intervening fibrovascular stroma.
      What is the most likely secretion of the polygonal cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Hormones and Tumors: Understanding the Link

      Calcitonin, PTH, TSH, T4, and T3 are hormones that can be produced by various tumors. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types IIa and IIb, is known for its local production of amyloid and secretion of calcitonin. PTH can be produced by parathyroid tumors, while PTH-related protein can be a paraneoplastic product of various tumors, including lung cancer. TSH is produced by pituitary adenomas, while T4 and T3 are produced by thyroid tumors composed of follicular cells. Understanding the link between hormones and tumors can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.

      To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.

      In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - For which medical condition is Pioglitazone prescribed? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which medical condition is Pioglitazone prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Pioglitazone for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanism of Action and Side Effects

      Pioglitazone is a medication used to treat insulin resistance in patients with type 2 diabetes. It works by activating PPAR gamma, a protein that regulates the expression of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism. This leads to improved insulin sensitivity and better control of blood sugar levels. Pioglitazone has been shown to lower HbA1c levels by approximately 1%.

      However, pioglitazone is associated with several side effects. One of the most common is fluid retention, which can lead to swelling in the legs and feet. It can also cause a loss of bone mineral density, which may increase the risk of fractures. Additionally, pioglitazone has been linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly in patients with a history of bladder tumors or polyps. For this reason, it should not be prescribed to these patients.

      In summary, pioglitazone is an effective medication for treating insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects, particularly the risk of bladder cancer in certain patients. Patients taking pioglitazone should be monitored closely for any signs of fluid retention or bone loss, and those with a history of bladder tumors or polyps should not take this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (8/21) 38%
Passmed