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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.

    On auscultation, you detect a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.

      On auscultation, you detect a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is most audible at the right upper sternal border. The murmur is loudest during expiration and decreases in intensity when the patient stands. The second heart sound is faint. The apex beat is forceful but not displaced.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms and Signs

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to reduced blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. One of the typical features of aortic stenosis is a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the right upper sternal border. This murmur is usually heard during expiration and becomes softer when the patient stands. Additionally, the second heart sound is typically soft, and the apex beat is thrusting but not displaced.

      To summarize, aortic stenosis can be identified by a combination of symptoms and signs, including a specific type of murmur, a soft second heart sound, and a thrusting apex beat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
      What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:

      Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.

      Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).

      Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.

      Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.

      Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation

      Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.

      In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

      Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. You suspect left ventricular failure. Identify the single test that, if normal, would make the diagnosis of heart failure highly unlikely.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ECG

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Heart Failure: Importance of ECG and Natriuretic Peptides

      When a patient is suspected of having heart failure, several investigations are recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and blood glucose, are typically performed. However, the results of these tests alone are not sufficient to diagnose heart failure.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is also commonly performed, although its predictive value for heart failure is limited. A normal ECG can make left ventricular systolic dysfunction unlikely, with a negative predictive value of 98%. On the other hand, an abnormal ECG may indicate the need for further testing, such as echocardiography.

      Serum natriuretic peptides, which are released by the heart in response to increased pressure or volume, can also be helpful in diagnosing heart failure. If these levels are normal, the diagnosis of heart failure is less likely. However, this test is not always available or necessary in the initial investigation.

      A chest x-ray can provide supportive evidence for heart failure and rule out other potential causes of breathlessness. It is important to note that oxygen saturation may be normal in heart failure, so this alone cannot be used to rule out the condition.

      Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure and determining the underlying cause. It is recommended in patients who have either a raised natriuretic peptide level or an abnormal ECG. By providing detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, echocardiography can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

      In summary, a combination of tests is necessary to diagnose heart failure and determine the best course of treatment. The ECG and natriuretic peptides can provide important clues, but echocardiography is essential for confirming the diagnosis and identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns

      Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:

      Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.

      Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.

      Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.

      Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old patient had visited her for a regular diabetes check-up and disclosed a history of a minor stroke during a trip abroad a few years ago. The nurse observed that this information was not included in the problem list, so she updated the record with a coded diagnosis. As a result, a computer alert was triggered since the patient was not taking any antiplatelet therapy. The nurse seeks your advice on the preferred antiplatelet medication for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel is the top choice for antiplatelet therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke. As a second option, aspirin can be combined with modified-release dipyridamole. However, there is some discrepancy among guidelines regarding the preferred antiplatelet for transient ischaemic attack. While NICE recommends aspirin and dipyridamole due to clopidogrel lack of licensing for this indication, the Royal College of Physicians advocates for clopidogrel. It is worth noting that clopidogrel is associated with frequent gastrointestinal side effects.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently on the maximum tolerated dose of an ACE-I and beta blocker. He reports to still be symptomatic from his heart failure.

      What would be the next appropriate step in his management to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a heart failure specialist as no other drugs should be prescribed in primary care

      Explanation:

      MRA Treatment for Heart Failure Patients

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms of heart failure should be offered an MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone. Previously, only a heart failure specialist could initiate these treatments. However, now it is recommended that all healthcare professionals involved in the care of heart failure patients should consider offering these treatments to improve symptoms and reduce the risk of hospitalization. This guideline update aims to ensure that more patients have access to effective treatments for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk of cardiovascular disease underestimated by QRISK2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 54-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia who takes olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Patients with a serious mental health disorder and those taking antipsychotics may have their cardiovascular disease risk underestimated by QRISK2.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits his primary care physician for his yearly examination. During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 170/100 mmHg. He is currently taking furosemide and aspirin. Which medication would be the most suitable to include?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure have demonstrated improved prognosis with the use of both enalapril and bisoprolol.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John's wort

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Warfarin

      Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.

      St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.

      Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.

      In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic presents with several weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic presents with several weeks of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and swollen ankles. His wife brings him in for examination. On assessment, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. Echocardiography confirms a diagnosis of heart failure. Despite receiving optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide, he remains symptomatic and tachycardic.
      Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding his further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be started on a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Beta-Blockers in Heart Failure Management

      Heart failure is a serious condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Current guidance recommends the use of beta-blockers in all patients with symptomatic heart failure and an LVEF ≤40%, where tolerated and not contra-indicated. Beta-blockers have been shown to increase ejection fraction, improve exercise tolerance, and reduce morbidity, mortality, and hospital admissions.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers should be initiated even if a patient is already stabilized on other drugs. While diuretics can be used to control initial oedema, the mainstay of treatment for heart failure is ACE inhibitors and beta-blockade. Digoxin and spironolactone have a place in heart failure management, but they are not first or second line treatments.

      For severe heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, the use of beta-blockers is crucial in the management of heart failure and should be considered in all eligible patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin...

    Incorrect

    • You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin 10 mg for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The patient's lipid profile before starting the medication was as follows: cholesterol 6.2 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.8 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 5.2 mmol/L. The liver profile was also normal. After three months of treatment, the lipid profile results are as follows: cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.5 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 2.8 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 3.3 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 3.2 mmol/L. What is your recommended course of action based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      It is important to verify the patient’s adherence to the medication and ensure that they are taking it at the appropriate time (in the evening). Additionally, lifestyle advice should be revisited. Upon further examination of the case, it may be determined that a dose titration is not necessary, but it should be taken into consideration.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up appointment. She recently experienced a transient ischemic attack and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide for hypertension. Her blood pressure at the appointment is 130/80 mmHg. As you discuss management options to decrease her risk of future strokes, what is her CHA2DS2-VASc score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India to visit his relatives. He has been discharged recently from the local district general hospital after suffering an inferior myocardial infarction. He had an exercise test prior to discharge and has made a good recovery. He looks well wants to return to his family home to Mumbai to recuperate.

      According to the UK Civil Aviation Authority, what is the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that he would be OK to fly home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Travel Restrictions After Myocardial Infarction

      After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, patients may wonder when it is safe to travel by air. The minimum time for flying after an uncomplicated MI is generally accepted to be seven days, although some authorities suggest waiting up to three weeks. It is important to note that this question specifically asks for the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that would be safe for air travel.

      Consensus national guidance in the UK, including advice from the Civil Aviation Authority and British Airways, supports the seven-day minimum for uncomplicated MI. Patients who have had a complicated MI should wait four to six weeks before flying. Patients with severe angina may require oxygen during the flight and should pre-book a supply with the airline. Patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) or suffered a stroke should not travel for ten days. Decompensated heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to flying.

      In summary, patients who have experienced an uncomplicated MI may fly after seven days without requiring an exercise test. It is important to follow national guidance and consult with a healthcare provider before making any travel plans after a heart attack.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital after receiving thrombolysis for an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). He was relatively well post-infarct, and he is here to review his post- discharge medication.

      Other past medical history of note includes type 2 diabetes. Current treatment includes metformin 1g BD, aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 10 mg daily and ramipril 10 mg. On examination his BP is 155/92 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. There are bibasal crackles on auscultation of the chest.

      Investigations reveal:

      Hb 125 g/dL (135-180)

      WCC 5.2 ×109/L (4-10)

      PLT 231 ×109/L (150-400)

      Na 139 mmol/L (134-143)

      K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)

      Cr 145 µmol/L (60-120)

      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)

      7.2% (<5.5)

      Which of the following is true with respect to the management of his post-MI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A thiazide diuretic is the most appropriate option for controlling his BP

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Acute MI

      All patients who have experienced an acute MI should be offered a combination of medications, including an ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin. Calcium channel antagonists are not typically recommended unless a beta blocker is not tolerated.

      While the DIGAMI study initially suggested that transitioning to insulin therapy may be beneficial for patients with type 2 diabetes, subsequent research has shown a trend towards increased mortality with this treatment. Therefore, it is not routinely recommended.

      Thiazide and nicorandil have not shown convincing post-MI outcome data and may worsen insulin resistance. On the other hand, bisoprolol, a selective beta blocker, has demonstrated positive outcomes in patients with heart failure and hypertension, making it a sensible addition to post-MI therapy.

      In summary, a combination of ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin is recommended for all patients with acute MI, with caution advised when considering insulin therapy and thiazide or nicorandil use. Bisoprolol may be a beneficial addition for those with hypertension.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has come in for his annual health check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg once daily, felodipine 10 mg once daily, and bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily. His blood pressure readings today are consistently high. Additionally, blood tests have been taken as part of the check-up. Based on this information, what would be the most suitable medication to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      To manage poorly controlled hypertension in a patient who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level of >4.5mmol/l, the appropriate medication to add would be an alpha- or beta-blocker. Bisoprolol is the correct choice in this scenario. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension alone, and indapamide is contraindicated as the patient is already taking a thiazide-like diuretic. While an ARB like losartan could replace an ACE inhibitor, it should not be used in combination with one. Spironolactone is not the appropriate choice as the patient’s potassium level is already elevated.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She had no significant medical history. Upon post-mortem examination, it is discovered that she had asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum. What is the probability that her sister also has this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive exercise intolerance. Four weeks ago, she experienced an episode suggestive of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Examination reveals a jugular venous pressure (JVP) raised up to her earlobes, soft, tender hepatomegaly and bilateral pitting oedema up to her ankles. Chest examination reveals bibasal crepitations and an audible S3 on auscultation of the heart. The chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with interstitial infiltrates. Echocardiography shows global left ventricular hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 20–25%. She has no other significant medical history.
      Which of the following is the most likely underlying causal factor in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant genetic trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Causes

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a progressive disease of the heart muscle that causes stretching and dilatation of the left ventricle, resulting in contractile dysfunction. This condition can also affect the right ventricle, leading to congestive cardiac failure. While it is a heterogeneous condition with multiple causal factors, about 35% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Other causes include autoimmune reactions, hypertension, connective tissue disorders, metabolic causes, malignancy, neuromuscular causes, and chronic alcohol abuse. Rarely, amyloidosis and Marfan syndrome can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy. Ischaemic heart disease is not the most common cause in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old patient. While HIV infection can cause dilated cardiomyopathy, it is not a common cause, and it would be rare for this complication to be the first presentation of HIV. Understanding the various causes of dilated cardiomyopathy can help in its diagnosis and management.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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