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  • Question 1 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Correct

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man has developed diplopia.

    Which finding would suggest a third nerve palsy?...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has developed diplopia.

      Which finding would suggest a third nerve palsy?

      Your Answer: Constricted pupil

      Correct Answer: Pupil unreactive to light

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Nerve Palsies

      A nerve palsy is a condition that affects the function of a specific nerve. There are different types of nerve palsies, each with their own set of symptoms. Here are some common symptoms associated with different types of nerve palsies:

      Third Nerve Palsy: This type of palsy is characterized by ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), a dilated and unreactive pupil, and downward and outward displacement of the eyeball. The affected eye may also have a divergent squint.

      Seventh Nerve Palsy: In this type of palsy, increased lacrimation (tearing) may be seen. The affected eye may also have difficulty closing, resulting in dryness and irritation.

      Horner’s Syndrome: This type of palsy is characterized by enophthalmos (sunken appearance of the eye) and miosis (constriction of the pupil). Other symptoms may include ptosis and decreased sweating on one side of the face.

      By understanding the common symptoms associated with different types of nerve palsies, individuals can seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination...

    Correct

    • A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination comes to the clinic for advice. She has some concerns, as there is a history of asthma in the family and her other child suffered from febrile fits. She is considering trying the three single vaccines.

      Which one of the following is true regarding the MMR?

      Your Answer: It should be given at the age of 12-15 months

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccination and Immunoglobulin Therapy

      The MMR vaccination is not recommended for individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, concurrent febrile illness, neomycin and gelatin allergy. However, a family history of atopy is not relevant. The MMR vaccine is typically administered at around one year of age in the NHS vaccination schedule and there is no benefit in giving separate vaccines for measles, mumps, and rubella. It is important to note that the MMR vaccine contains live attenuated strains of these viruses, while vaccines for diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus are killed vaccines.

      In regards to immunoglobulin therapy, there is no indication for children with epilepsy. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of treatment for any medical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit....

    Correct

    • Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.

      Your Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?

      Explanation:

      Clinical Care Audit

      A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.

      Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.

      The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.

      She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.

      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A mother attends the surgery to ask about vaccination of her child who...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the surgery to ask about vaccination of her child who is coming up to six months old and due to start the primary schedule.

      She recognises from the immunisation list what diseases most of the vaccines prevent but she doesn't recognise 'Hib'. She wants to talk about which diseases it can prevent.

      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be prevented by Hib vaccination?

      Your Answer: Endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Hib Vaccine: Protection Against Invasive Haemophilus Disease

      The Hib vaccine is a conjugated polysaccharide vaccine that is given in a course of three doses at monthly intervals to infants at two, three, and four months of age, along with other routine vaccinations. A single dose is effective for children over 13 months of age. However, it is only given after 10 years of age to those children who are at increased risk of invasive Haemophilus disease, such as those with sickle cell disease, undergoing antineoplastic therapy, or with an absent spleen. Although highly effective, vaccination failures have been reported.

      Unlike influenza vaccines, hypersensitivity to egg is not a contraindication to Hib. However, evidence of a previous anaphylactic reaction contraindicates the use of the MMR and yellow fever vaccines. The Hib vaccine offers protection against the capsulated form of Hib that causes meningitis, acute epiglottitis, pneumonia, septic arthritis, and cellulitis. Overall, the Hib vaccine is an important tool in preventing invasive Haemophilus disease in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      26.7
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) on routine review. The physician notes that there are no visual symptoms or headaches and on examination, there are no visual field defects demonstrated. The optic disc appears normal and specifically, there is no cupping or pallor.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient in primary care?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that no action is needed

      Correct Answer: Referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Management of Raised Intraocular Pressure

      Raised intraocular pressure (IOP) is a common finding in adults over 40 years of age, with up to 2% having an IOP > 21 mmHg without signs of glaucoma. While chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic, it can cause deterioration in visual fields and peripheral sensitivity, leading to tunnel vision. Patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and should be referred to an ophthalmologist.

      In cases of acute angle closure glaucoma, patients may experience pain and nausea due to a rapid increase in IOP. This condition requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent permanent visual loss. However, if the patient is asymptomatic and there are no signs of acute angle closure glaucoma, reassurance may be provided.

      Treatment of glaucoma and intraocular hypertension is typically initiated and monitored by specialists. Topical latanoprost and timolol are commonly prescribed medications for glaucoma management. However, these medications should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care.

      In summary, patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma requires urgent ophthalmology review, while chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic and requires specialist management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is one of the associations with this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Raised uric acid levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

      Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs)....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
      ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
      AST 130 U/L (10-40)
      Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
      What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.

      Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
    He has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
      He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.

      Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia

      Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.

      A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.

      The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.

      On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.

      Laboratory tests reveal:

      - Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Choledocholithiasis

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.

      Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer is experiencing bone pains. Her biochemistry screen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer is experiencing bone pains. Her biochemistry screen shows borderline hypercalcaemia. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking multiple medications for it.

      What is the most probable factor contributing to the exacerbation of her hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause hypercalcaemia

      Bendroflumethiazide is a type of thiazide diuretic that is commonly known to cause hypercalcaemia. This condition is characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood, which can lead to various health problems. Aside from bendroflumethiazide, other drugs that may cause hypercalcaemia include lithium, teriparatide, and with theophylline toxicity. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any symptoms of hypercalcaemia arise. Proper monitoring and management of this condition can help prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      213.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please...

    Correct

    • Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please select one option.

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency

      Secondary immunodeficiency can be caused by various factors such as lymphoreticular malignancy, drugs, viruses, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, trauma or major surgery, and protein loss. Lymphoma, myeloma, cytotoxic drugs, and immunosuppressants like corticosteroids are some of the common causes of secondary immunodeficiency. HIV is also a significant cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Malnutrition, particularly protein calorie deficiency, is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide. Metabolic disorders like renal disease requiring peritoneal dialysis can also lead to secondary immunodeficiency. Trauma or major surgery and protein loss due to nephrotic syndrome or ulcerative or erosive gastrointestinal disease can also cause secondary immunodeficiency. While heart failure, lung cancer, and polycythemia are consequences of HIV infection, sarcoidosis has been reported to occur in patients with common variable immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      7.3
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that doesn't affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities.

      What is the most precise diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis of this woman?

      Your Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs. She reports no loss of sensation or movement. Her ESR is elevated and serum rheumatoid factor is negative. X-ray of the spine reveals anterior squaring of the vertebrae.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Ankylosing Spondylitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Lumbar Disc Prolapse, Spinal Stenosis, and Paget’s Disease

      When examining X-rays of the spine, certain abnormalities can suggest specific conditions. For example, irregularity and loss of cortical margins, widening of the joint space, and subsequent marginal sclerosis, narrowing, and fusion of the sacroiliac joint may indicate ankylosing spondylitis. Anterior squaring of the vertebrae, or loss of normal concavity of the anterior border of a vertebral body, may also be present in ankylosing spondylitis, particularly in the lumbar spine.

      Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, typically affects peripheral joints such as the hips, knees, hands, and feet. It is more common in women and often presents in the fifth decade of life.

      Lumbar disc prolapse and spinal stenosis can both cause a reduction in joint space. Lumbar disc prolapse may present with sciatica, while spinal stenosis may cause pseudoclaudication, or discomfort and pain in the legs on walking that is relieved by rest and bending forwards. Spinal stenosis is more common in older individuals.

      Paget’s disease, which is typically diagnosed after the age of 40, may present with bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. While it can be associated with vertebral body squaring, it usually involves individual vertebrae. Diagnosis is established by a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level and normal liver function tests.

      In summary, careful examination of X-rays can help differentiate between various spinal conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, lumbar disc prolapse, spinal stenosis, and Paget’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the...

    Incorrect

    • Your next appointment is with a 48-year-old man. He has come for the results of his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM). This was arranged as a clinic reading one month ago was noted to be 150/94 mmHg. The results of the ABPM show an average reading of 130/80 mmHg. What is the most suitable plan of action?

      Your Answer: Offer repeat ABPM in 12 months time

      Correct Answer: Offer to measure the patient's blood pressure at least every 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the ABPM indicates an average blood pressure below the threshold, NICE suggests conducting blood pressure measurements on the patient every 5 years.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 36-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea.

    She has a long history of schizophrenia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea.

      She has a long history of schizophrenia and depression for which she takes a variety of medications including risperidone and fluoxetine. On further questioning she also describes amenorrhoea over the last four months.

      Examination reveals a small amount of galactorrhoea to expression from both breasts but no other specific abnormalities.

      Investigations reveal the following:

      Prolactin 1020 mU/L (50-550)

      17 beta-Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (130-550)

      LH 4.5 mU/L (3-10)

      FSH 5.2 mU/L (3-15)

      T4 14.1 pmol/L (10-22)

      TSH 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5)

      What is the most likely cause for her galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Likely Cause of Galactorrhoea in a Woman

      Explanation: This woman is experiencing galactorrhoea, and her prolactin concentration is elevated while her oestradiol concentration is low. However, her LH and FSH levels are normal, ruling out pregnancy. The most likely cause of her hyperprolactinaemia is drug-induced, specifically due to the antipsychotic effects of risperidone. High doses of risperidone have been known to cause significant increases in prolactin levels. While clozapine and quetiapine can also cause slight elevations, switching to a different medication may be beneficial for this woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      105.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a foul-smelling, watery discharge from her vagina. Upon examination, clue cells are found in a swab.

      Medical history:
      Endometriosis

      Current medications:
      Yasmin
      Loratadine 10 mg once daily

      Allergies:
      Penicillin
      Clindamycin

      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral azithromycin

      Correct Answer: Topical clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Patients with bacterial vaginosis who have a history of clue cells can be treated with topical clindamycin as an alternative to metronidazole, according to the BNF. This is particularly useful for patients who are allergic to metronidazole.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old Bangladeshi man comes to the GP complaining of breathlessness and blood-stained...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Bangladeshi man comes to the GP complaining of breathlessness and blood-stained sputum. He also reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. The GP collects sputum samples and sends the patient for a chest X-ray.

      What additional investigation should be ordered for this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Types of Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.

      Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromised include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old female presents to you with complaints of a sore throat. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female presents to you with complaints of a sore throat. She reports feeling sick for the past three days with a high fever and painful throat. She has been self-medicating with an over-the-counter flu remedy containing paracetamol. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 37.1°C, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, visible tonsillar exudate, and a dry cough. What is this patient's Centor score?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Centor Score for Tonsillitis

      The Centor score is a tool used by clinicians to differentiate between viral and bacterial tonsillitis, which helps guide the use of antibiotics. It consists of four criteria: the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, a history of fever, and absence of cough. If at least three out of the four criteria are met, it suggests a bacterial infection and antibiotics may be beneficial. Conversely, if less than three criteria are met, antibiotics are unlikely to be needed. It’s important to note that the Centor score is based on a history of fever, not necessarily a fever at the time of being seen. The McIsaac modification adds a point for patients under 15 years old and deducts a point for those over 45 years old. The Centor score is a helpful tool, but it should not replace clinical judgement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Expressive aphasia

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic aphonia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak

      Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.

      Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.

      It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.

      Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The regional deanery wishes to develop a syllabus for the after-hours education of...

    Incorrect

    • The regional deanery wishes to develop a syllabus for the after-hours education of medical residents. They distribute a preliminary survey to several nearby physicians, inquiring about what topics they believe should be covered. Following the findings of this preliminary survey, a subsequent survey is sent out which condenses the data and poses more detailed inquiries. What is this an instance of?

      Your Answer: Qualitative feedback method

      Correct Answer: A Delphi process

      Explanation:

      The Delphi Process: A Method for Collecting Expert Knowledge

      The Delphi process, also known as the Delphi method or technique, is a structured approach to gathering and distilling knowledge from a group of experts. This method is often used for issues where there is little formal evidence available. The process involves several rounds of questionnaires, with the first round asking broad questions to the experts. The results of the first round are then analyzed and common themes are identified. This information is used to create a more specific questionnaire for the second round, which is sent back to the panel of experts. This iterative process is repeated two or three times.

      The Delphi method can be used in various fields, such as curriculum development, guideline development, and forecasting future health problems. For example, a group of expert stakeholders may be involved in determining what should be included in a curriculum. The expert panel for guideline development may include doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and patients. Anonymity is a key feature of the Delphi process, as it prevents individual participants from dominating the opinion-forming process. Overall, the Delphi process is a useful tool for collecting and synthesizing expert knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      512.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was...

    Incorrect

    • You are discharging a 25-year-old patient from your inpatient psychiatric unit. He was admitted 4 weeks ago following a psychotic episode in which he had persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia since he had had a similar episode in the past. He has been doing very well, remained on his agreed treatment plan and has regained insight into his condition. He is concerned about being able to drive with this diagnosis as he lives in quite an isolated area and needs a car to get around.

      What other advice should you give him regarding driving with schizophrenia, after informing him that he must inform the DVLA of his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: He may drive once he has been stable for 12 months provided he has a specialist's report

      Correct Answer: He may drive once he has been stable for 3 months provided he has a specialist's report

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia are prohibited from driving and are required to inform the DVLA. They may resume driving with a Group 1 license only after being stable and well for three months, as confirmed by a suitable psychiatric report. The DVLA guidelines specify that patients with schizophrenia can drive if they meet certain criteria, including maintaining stability for at least three months, complying with their treatment plan, regaining insight, being free from medication side effects that could impair driving, and receiving a positive specialist report.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He is worried about some discoloration of the oral mucosa that he has noticed while brushing his teeth. These have been present for three weeks and have not been associated with any bleeding.

      He has a history of hypertension for which he takes medication, but is otherwise healthy. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks a glass of wine each evening.

      On examination, there are several patches within the oral mucosa that have either increased reddening or pallor. The diagnosis of erythroplakia is made. There is no lymphadenopathy, but the examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      Investigations reveal:
      - Hb 140 g/L (135-180)
      - WCC 8.9 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 310 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 140 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 90 µmol/L (70-110)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (under 2 week wait)

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Management of Oral Lesions

      Consider an urgent referral for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist in people who have a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia. Patients who have other symptoms, such as contact bleeding or unexplained tooth mobility with symptoms persisting for longer than three weeks, should also be referred urgently.

      Whilst oral candida is a possibility, the clinical picture as described doesn’t fit with this as an underlying diagnosis. Fluconazole is unlikely to have any impact on the appearance of the oral mucosa, and neither is regular mouth rinsing. However, it is good practice to rinse the mouth after using an inhaler.

      Minor lymph node enlargement is a common occurrence, and urgent referral to a haematologist is unwarranted given the normal blood picture. Although urgent intervention is not required, reassurance is inappropriate because of the need to confirm the diagnosis underlying the lesions within the oral cavity.

      In summary, it is important to promptly refer patients with suspicious oral lesions for assessment by a dentist to rule out oral cancer. Other symptoms such as contact bleeding or unexplained tooth mobility should also be referred urgently. Regular mouth rinsing is good practice, but it is unlikely to have an impact on the appearance of the oral mucosa. Finally, minor lymph node enlargement is common and doesn’t warrant urgent referral to a haematologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms

      Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma?

      Your Answer: Avoid high heels + supinatory insoles + NSAIDs

      Correct Answer: Avoid high heels + metatarsal pads

      Explanation:

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy

      Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
Eyes And Vision (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (1/4) 25%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
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