00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
      Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.

      What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?

      Your Answer: Accessory collateral ligament

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament

      Explanation:

      Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports

      Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.

      Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You encounter a patient in the Emergency department who has been in a...

    Correct

    • You encounter a patient in the Emergency department who has been in a severe car accident. You need to insert a venous cannula for aggressive fluid resuscitation. Applying the Hagen-Poiseuille equation, you select a cannula with appropriate dimensions for maximum flow into the vein.
      As per this law, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Flow will be faster through a shorter cannula

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille’s Equation and Fluid Flow in Cylinders

      Poiseuille’s equation is used to describe the flow of non-pulsatile laminar fluids through a cylinder. The equation states that the flow rate is directly proportional to the pressure driving the fluid and the fourth power of the radius. Additionally, it is inversely proportional to the viscosity of the fluid and the length of the tube. This means that a short, wide cannula with pressure on the bag will deliver fluids more rapidly than a long, narrow one.

      It is important to note that even small changes in the radius of a tube can greatly affect the flow rate. This is because the fourth power of the radius is used in the equation. Therefore, any changes in the radius will have a significant impact on the flow rate. Poiseuille’s equation is crucial in determining the optimal conditions for fluid delivery in medical settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E?

      Your Answer: Bleeding gums

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E Deficiency

      Vitamin E deficiency is a rare condition that is more likely to occur in individuals with problems affecting the absorption of dietary fats. This includes those with a history of bowel surgery, pancreatic insufficiency, and cystic fibrosis. Premature infants are also at a higher risk of developing this deficiency as vitamin E does not easily cross the placenta. However, supplementation with vitamin E can reverse the damage in some cases.

      The effects of vitamin E deficiency can be severe and can cause spinocerebellar degeneration, which includes limb ataxia, loss of joint position sense, loss of sensation of vibration, and loss of deep tendon reflexes. Additionally, it can cause degeneration of retinal pigments, leading to blindness. In premature infants, it can cause haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytosis, and oedema.

      Overall, vitamin E deficiency is crucial in preventing and treating its effects. It is important to identify individuals who are at a higher risk of developing this deficiency and provide them with appropriate supplementation to prevent any long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

    The GP performs a clinical...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

      The GP performs a clinical test by raising the patient's legs and observing for the angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, the legs are lowered over the side of the couch so that they are fully dependent with feet on the floor. Reactive hyperaemia is observed.

      Which clinical test does this describe?

      Your Answer: Buerger's test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Assessing Arterial and Venous Circulation, Hip Dysfunction, and Meniscal Tear

      Buerger’s test is a method used to evaluate the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The test involves observing the angle at which blanching occurs, with a lower angle indicating a higher likelihood of arterial insufficiency. Additionally, the degree of reactive hyperaemia on dependency of the limb after one minute is another positive sign of arterial insufficiency during the test.

      Another test used to assess circulation is the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI), which involves using blood pressure cuffs to determine the degree of claudication. McMurray’s test, on the other hand, is used to evaluate for a meniscal tear within the knee joint.

      Perthe’s test is a method used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein prior to varicose vein surgery. Lastly, Trendelenburg’s test is used to evaluate hip dysfunction. These tests are important in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to circulation and joint function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

      Your Answer: To regulate gene transcription and translation

      Explanation:

      The Nucleus: Control Centre of the Cell

      The nucleus is the control centre of the cell, responsible for regulating gene transcription from DNA into mRNA and from mRNA into peptide/protein synthesis. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed organised nucleus, while prokaryotic cells lack this structure. The nuclear structure consists of an outer and inner nuclear membrane that form the nuclear envelope, which has nuclear pores allowing the movement of water-soluble molecules. Inside the nucleus is the nucleoplasm containing the nuclear lamina, a dense fibrillar network that acts as a skeleton and regulates DNA replication and cell division. The nucleus also contains nucleoli, structures involved in the formation of ribosomes responsible for mRNA translation.

      Although the incorrect answer options above describe processes in which the nucleus is involved, none of them constitutes its main function within the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes? ...

    Correct

    • What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes?

      Your Answer: Acid hydrolases

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes: The Digestive System of the Cell

      Lysosomes are organelles that come from the Golgi apparatus and are enclosed by a membrane. They are responsible for breaking down various biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases, which are enzymes that cleave chemical bonds by adding water and function at an acidic pH of around 5. They are involved in digesting foreign agents that are internalized by the cell and breaking down other cellular organelles like mitochondria, allowing for their components to be recycled.

      The acidic pH within lysosomes is maintained by a proton pump in the lysosomal membrane, which imports protons from the cytosol coupled to ATP hydrolysis. This acidic environment is necessary for the activity of the acid hydrolases. D-amino acid oxidases and peroxidases are not found in lysosomes but in peroxisomes. Alcohol dehydrogenases and ATPases are not involved in digestion but in other cellular functions. Alcohol dehydrogenases catalyze the interconversion between alcohols and aldehydes or ketones with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, while ATPases catalyze the breakdown of ATP into ADP and a phosphate ion, releasing energy for the cell’s functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis? ...

    Correct

    • What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis?

      Your Answer: The cell's chromosomes attach to the meiotic spindle to divide into chromatids

      Explanation:

      The Process of Meiosis

      Meiosis is a complex process that involves two major cycles. The first cycle, meiosis I, condenses the reproductive cell’s DNA into chromosomes that are then replicated, creating two pairs of each original chromosome. These pairs are then separated, and the cell divides with one chromosome in each daughter cell. The second cycle, meiosis II, splits the chromosomes into individual chromatids, which are then separated as in meiosis I. This separation is facilitated by a spindle, a set of parallel fibers that attach to the center of each chromosome and split into two, making the chromatids travel on the polar opposite sides of the cell. The cell then divides again, giving rise to four haploid daughter cells.

      During meiosis II, the chromosomes align on the spindle in metaphase II. Tetrads separate during anaphase I and line up during metaphase I. Sister chromatids separate on the meiotic spindle during anaphase II. Finally, chromosomes uncoil and lengthen at the end of meiosis, in telophase II. This process is essential for the production of gametes and the continuation of sexual reproduction in many organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation.

      During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the location of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and the veins are emptied by elevating her legs off the couch. The examiner then identifies the site of the sapheno-femoral junction and applies pressure with their fingers. The patient is then asked to stand up to evaluate vein filling.

      What is the name of this test?

      Your Answer: Ankle brachial pressure index

      Correct Answer: Trendelenburg's test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Varicose Vein Site of Incompetence

      The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction site, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction level.

      If the veins fill quickly upon standing, it indicates that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence. These tests are essential in determining the location of the varicose vein site of incompetence, which is crucial in planning the appropriate treatment. By identifying the site of incompetence, physicians can perform targeted interventions to improve venous function and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are valuable tools in the diagnosis and management of varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the statement of Henry's law? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the statement of Henry's law?

      Your Answer: Equal volumes of gases at standardised temperature and pressure each contain the same number of molecules

      Correct Answer: The concentration of a gas when dissolved in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure

      Explanation:

      Gas Laws

      Gas laws are a set of scientific principles that describe the behavior of gases under different conditions. One of these laws is Avogadro’s law, which states that equal volumes of gases at a standardized temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. Another law is Boyle’s law, which explains that gases expand when the temperature is increased. Charles’ law, on the other hand, states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a standardized temperature. Lastly, Graham’s law explains that the rate of diffusion of a gas is in inverse proportion to its weight. The specific gas laws that you need to know may vary depending on your syllabus, but you should be able to recognize and apply them if given the formulae. It is unlikely that you will be expected to know the correct formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?

      Your Answer: The endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: The nucleolus

      Explanation:

      The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus

      The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human...

    Correct

    • What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human body?

      Your Answer: In blood, bound to the group specific component

      Explanation:

      The Role of UV Light and Vitamin D in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation

      In order for the body to produce Vitamin D3, UV light at a specific wavelength is required to convert cholesterol in the skin. Vitamin D2 and D3 are then transported in the bloodstream bound to the Vitamin-D Binding Protein and undergo further modifications in the liver and kidney to become the active form, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. This active form plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate concentrations in the body.

      1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D increases calcium absorption in the duodenum and inhibits the secretion and synthesis of PTH, which helps to maintain calcium concentrations. It also increases phosphate absorption in the jejunum and ileum, which is important for maintaining phosphate concentrations. Additionally, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D promotes bone turnover by stimulating both osteoblast and osteoclast activity.

      Overall, the production and activation of Vitamin D through UV light and dietary sources is essential for proper calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate? ...

    Correct

    • What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate?

      Your Answer: A compound following the formula Cx(H2O)y

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrates: Building Blocks of Energy and Storage

      Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, with a general formula of Cx(H2O)y. They can be classified as either aldehydes or ketones and contain multiple hydroxyl groups. Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates, consisting of a single unit. They are categorized based on the number of carbon atoms they contain, with trioses having three, pentoses having five, and hexoses having six carbon atoms. These monosaccharides are essential for energy production and building larger carbohydrate structures.

      Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides are joined together through a condensation reaction, releasing a water molecule. The most common disaccharides are lactose, maltose, and sucrose. Polysaccharides, on the other hand, are long, branched polymers made up of multiple single units. They serve as convenient storage molecules for energy reserves, such as glycogen in humans and starch in plants.

      In summary, carbohydrates are vital building blocks for energy production and storage in living organisms. Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides all play important roles in maintaining the body’s energy balance and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?

      Your Answer: DNA excision repair

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma Pigmentosum and DNA Repair

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the skin cells can absorb ultraviolet (UV) light, which can cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are removed through a process called excision repair, where the damaged DNA is cut out and replaced with new DNA. However, if this process fails, it can lead to mutations in genes that suppress tumors or promote their growth, potentially leading to cancer.

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. Generally, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect larger structural components are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. While there are exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated?

      Your Answer: Krebs cycle

      Explanation:

      The Krebs Cycle and the Role of FADH2

      The Krebs cycle is a crucial part of aerobic respiration in cells. It involves a series of reactions that convert acetate, derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, into carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP. Additionally, the Krebs cycle produces precursors for some amino acids and reducing agents like NADH and FADH2 that are involved in other metabolic pathways.

      FAD is a redox cofactor that plays a vital role in the Krebs cycle. It receives two electrons from the sixth reaction of the cycle, where succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into fumarate by removing two hydrogen atoms and attaching them onto FAD. This process results in FAD gaining two electrons and reducing into FADH2.

      FADH2 then donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, which is another part of cellular respiration. This mechanism helps compensate for the relatively low amount of ATP produced by the Krebs cycle (2.5 molecules of ATP per turn) compared to the electron transport chain (26-28 molecules of ATP). Overall, the Krebs cycle and the role of FADH2 are essential for generating energy in cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chédiak-Higashi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chédiak-Higashi syndrome?

      Your Answer: They consist of beta tubulin subunits only

      Correct Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia

      Explanation:

      Microtubules and Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome

      Microtubules are made up of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to change the length. They are found in structures such as flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. These structures are important for cell movement and division. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules and are used in breast cancer treatment.

      Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is a rare inherited immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations in the LYST gene. This condition is characterized by neutrophil inclusions, albinism, recurrent infections, and peripheral neuropathy. The neutrophil inclusions are thought to be caused by abnormal microtubule function, which affects the immune system’s ability to fight infections. While there is no cure for Chédiak-Higashi syndrome, treatment focuses on managing symptoms and preventing infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of...

    Correct

    • In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?

      Your Answer: Electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass

      Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.

      This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP? ...

    Correct

    • What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP?

      Your Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis: The Energy-Producing Reaction

      Glycolysis is a crucial energy-producing reaction that converts glucose into pyruvate while releasing energy to create ATP and NADH+. It is one of the three major carbohydrate reactions, along with the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain. The reaction involves ten enzymatic steps that provide entry points to glycolysis, allowing for a variety of starting points. The most common starting point is glucose or glycogen, which produces glucose-6-phosphate.

      Glycolysis occurs in two phases: the preparatory (or investment) phase and the pay-off phase. In the preparatory phase, ATP is consumed to start the reaction, while in the pay-off phase, ATP is produced. Glycolysis can be either aerobic or anaerobic, but it does not require nor consume oxygen.

      Although other molecules are involved in glycolysis at some stage, none of them form its end product. Lactic acid is associated with anaerobic glycolysis. glycolysis is essential for how the body produces energy from carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT of the leg veins

      Correct Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis

      When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold? ...

    Incorrect

    • What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold?

      Your Answer: They are essential fatty acids

      Correct Answer: They are essential amino acids

      Explanation:

      Essential Amino Acids and their Importance in the Diet

      There are approximately 20 essential amino acids that are crucial for human health. These amino acids are considered essential because the body cannot produce them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. While some of these essential amino acids can be used to create other non-essential amino acids, they are still necessary for overall health and wellbeing.

      Some examples of essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. However, the amount of these essential amino acids can vary depending on the type of dietary protein consumed. Additionally, cooking or preserving proteins can alter the amino acid composition, making them less effective for the body.

      In summary, essential amino acids play a vital role in maintaining human health and must be obtained through the diet. the importance of these amino acids and their sources can help individuals make informed decisions about their dietary choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A? ...

    Correct

    • What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?

      Your Answer: Dry conjunctiva

      Explanation:

      The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency

      Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.

      In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.

      The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.

      Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      5.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (12/20) 60%
Passmed