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Question 1
Correct
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What is the cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
Your Answer: HZV
Explanation:Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: A Facial Paralysis Associated with Herpes Zoster
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus or geniculate neuralgia, is a condition characterized by acute facial paralysis that occurs alongside herpetic blisters on the skin of the ear canal or auricle. This syndrome was first described by James Ramsay Hunt in 1907, who attributed the symptoms to an infection of the geniculate ganglion by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
Patients with Ramsay Hunt syndrome typically experience otalgia (ear pain) along with cutaneous and mucosal rashes. The condition is caused by the reactivation of VZV, which lies dormant in the sensory ganglia after an initial infection with chickenpox. The virus can then travel along the sensory nerves to the skin of the ear, causing blisters and inflammation.
Ramsay Hunt syndrome can be a debilitating condition, as the facial paralysis can affect a person’s ability to speak, eat, and drink. Treatment typically involves antiviral medication, corticosteroids, and supportive care to manage symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for improving outcomes and reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient presents to his primary care physician with complaints of progressive weakness and pain in his arms and hands, along with increasing fatigue, particularly during physical activity. During the examination, the physician detects faint fine crackles in the lower-mid zones and observes thickened and cracked skin on the patient's hands. The patient also experiences difficulty transitioning from the chair to the examination couch. What is the primary blood marker associated with this condition?
Your Answer: ESR
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibodies
Explanation:Antisynthetase syndrome is a subtype of dermatomyositis that can lead to myositis and interstitial lung disease, particularly in patients with positive anti-Jo 1 antibodies. This condition is caused by antibodies against tRNA synthetase. Patients may experience hand symptoms such as arthralgia, mechanic’s hands, and Raynaud’s. It is important to note that patients with myositis and positive anti-Jo 1 antibodies are at an increased risk of developing interstitial lung disease. While all of the options listed may be present in myositis, ESR is typically normal. Elevated ESR levels are more commonly seen in other autoimmune conditions like polymyalgia rheumatica, which can present similarly to myositis.
Understanding Antisynthetase Syndrome
Antisynthetase syndrome is a medical condition that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, specifically anti-Jo1. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including myositis, interstitial lung disease, mechanic’s hands, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Myositis refers to inflammation of the muscles, while interstitial lung disease is a condition that affects the tissue and space around the air sacs in the lungs. Mechanic’s hands is a term used to describe thickened and cracked skin on the hands, while Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to numbness and tingling sensations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right knee. He has never experienced this before. Upon examination, the joint fluid is extracted and sent to the lab for analysis. The rheumatology team suspects pseudogout. What characteristics can help differentiate this condition from gout?
Your Answer: Chondrocalcinosis
Explanation:Chondrocalcinosis is a useful factor in distinguishing between pseudogout and gout. Linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage seen on a knee x-ray are indicative of pseudogout, but not particularly associated with gout. Therefore, the presence of chondrocalcinosis can be used to differentiate between the two conditions.
Age is not a determining factor in the diagnosis of gout or pseudogout. In this case, the patient’s age of 64 years does not provide any significant information to sway the diagnosis in either direction.
The presence of crystals is not a distinguishing factor between gout and pseudogout, as both conditions involve crystals. However, the type of crystals differs between the two. Pseudogout crystals are weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped, while gout crystals are negatively birefringent.
Both gout and pseudogout typically respond well to colchicine for acute pain management, so this is not a useful factor in distinguishing between the two conditions.
Increased warmth of the affected joint is not a reliable factor in distinguishing between gout and pseudogout, as it may be present in both conditions.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
Test Parameter Normal range
Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
His body weight was 80 kg.
What is his condition better known as?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma
Explanation:Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.
MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.
Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.
Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is worried about her daughter's weight loss. The baby was born at term without any complications. She is exclusively breastfed and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. The baby is not showing any signs of distress and all observations are within normal limits. However, her birth weight was 3200g and today she weighs 2900g. What would be the best course of action to manage this infant's weight loss?
Your Answer: Referral to midwife-led breastfeeding clinic
Explanation:If the baby loses more than 10% of his birth weight in the first week, immediate measures must be taken to ensure proper feeding.
Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management
Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.
Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.
Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.
If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about atopic eczema?
Your Answer: Should be treated in its early stages with topical corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life
Explanation:Atopic Eczema
Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.
It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Lymphadenectomy in early stage disease is usually beneficial
Correct Answer: Most patients present with stage 1 disease, and are therefore amenable to surgery alone
Explanation:1. The initial stage of endometrial cancer typically involves a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
2. Diagnosis of endometrial cancer requires an endometrial biopsy.
3. Radiotherapy is the preferred treatment over chemotherapy, especially for high-risk patients after a hysterectomy or in cases of pelvic recurrence.
4. Lymphadenectomy is not typically recommended as a routine procedure.
5. Progestogens are no longer commonly used in the treatment of endometrial cancer.Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of 142 cm, which is below the 0.4th centile. Upon examination, she has an immature-appearing face and a significantly delayed bone age on wrist x-ray. Her TSH levels are normal, and she is at an appropriate Tanner stage. It is noted that her mother had her menarche at the age of 11 years. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency
Explanation:Growth Hormone Deficiency as a Cause of Short Stature in Pubescent Girls
A girl who has gone through puberty but has not gained height may have growth hormone deficiency. This condition is characterized by a discrepancy between the girl’s bone age and chronological age, as well as a doll-like face that gives her an immature appearance. Growth hormone deficiency is a rare but significant cause of short stature, as it can be a symptom of an underlying disease and can be treated with replacement injections.
In some cases, GH deficiency may be caused by intracerebral masses, particularly craniopharyngiomas in 7- to 10-year-olds. However, if a chronic illness were the cause, such as coeliac disease or Cushing syndrome, it would likely delay puberty and result in an inappropriately young Tanner stage. The girl would also be expected to exhibit features of the chronic condition.
It is important to note that this girl is not suffering from constitutional delay, as she has already entered puberty and has appropriate Tanner staging. Constitutional delay is typically characterized by a family history and delayed menarche in the affected individual. Therefore, growth hormone deficiency should be considered as a potential cause of short stature in pubescent girls who have not gained height despite going through puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. They suspect he has taken an illicit substance but are unsure of what he has consumed. The patient reports feeling disconnected from his body and experiencing vivid visual hallucinations of colorful, abstract shapes. He expresses concern about being watched and unable to return to normal. Additionally, he complains of a dry mouth, headache, and nausea. Upon examination, the patient appears agitated, with dilated pupils, tachycardia, and mild hypertension. Hyperreflexia is also noted in the limbs. What would be an appropriate management step for this patient, considering the probable substance ingested?
Your Answer: Dantrolene
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:LSD intoxication is characterized by vivid visual hallucinations, depersonalization, psychosis, and paranoia. In the given scenario, the patient is exhibiting somatic symptoms along with these classic features. If attempts to calm the patient down fail, administering benzodiazepines such as lorazepam is an appropriate option.
Activated charcoal is not useful in this case as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract. Dantrolene is not indicated as it is used to manage hyperthermia caused by ecstasy poisoning, which is not the case here. Flumazenil, which is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose, is not relevant unless the patient has been given an excessive amount of benzodiazepines during treatment for LSD intoxication.
Understanding LSD Intoxication
LSD, also known as lysergic acid diethylamide, is a synthetic hallucinogen that gained popularity as a recreational drug in the 1960s to 1980s. While its usage has declined in recent years, it still persists, with adolescents and young adults being the most frequent users. LSD is one of the most potent psychoactive compounds known, and its psychedelic effects usually involve heightening or distortion of sensory stimuli and enhancement of feelings and introspection.
Patients with LSD toxicity typically present following acute panic reactions, massive ingestions, or unintentional ingestions. The symptoms of LSD intoxication are variable and can include impaired judgments, amplification of current mood, agitation, and drug-induced psychosis. Somatic symptoms such as nausea, headache, palpitations, dry mouth, drowsiness, and tremors may also occur. Signs of LSD intoxication can include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, and pyrexia.
Massive overdoses of LSD can lead to complications such as respiratory arrest, coma, hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction, and bleeding disorders. The diagnosis of LSD toxicity is mainly based on history and examination, as most urine drug screens do not pick up LSD.
Management of the intoxicated patient is dependent on the specific behavioral manifestation elicited by the drug. Agitation should be managed with supportive reassurance in a calm, stress-free environment, and benzodiazepines may be used if necessary. LSD-induced psychosis may require antipsychotics. Massive ingestions of LSD should be treated with supportive care, including respiratory support and endotracheal intubation if needed. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia should be treated symptomatically, while hypotension should be treated initially with fluids and subsequently with vasopressors if required. Activated charcoal administration and gastric emptying are of little clinical value by the time a patient presents to the emergency department, as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.
In conclusion, understanding LSD intoxication is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and care for patients who present with symptoms of LSD toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a family history of colorectal cancer presents for genetic screening. Genetic testing is performed and he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC, or Lynch syndrome).
What is his lifetime risk for developing colorectal cancer?Your Answer: 90–100%
Correct Answer: 50–70%
Explanation:Understanding the Lifetime Risk of Colorectal Cancer in Hereditary Syndromes
Hereditary syndromes such as HNPCC and FAP are associated with an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. HNPCC syndrome has a lifetime risk of approximately 50-70% for colorectal cancer, as well as an increased risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer. Screening is recommended from age 25 and should include annual colonoscopy and other tests for women. FAP, on the other hand, has a 100% lifetime risk for colorectal cancer. Underestimating the lifetime risk for HNPCC syndrome can be dangerous, as it may lead to delayed or inadequate screening. It is important to understand the risks associated with these hereditary syndromes and to follow recommended screening guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?
Your Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina
Explanation:Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects
Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:
Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.
Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.
Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.
Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe in the management of hyperlipidaemia?
Your Answer: Reduced expression of LDL receptors in the liver surface
Correct Answer: Prevent cholesterol absorption from the intestine
Explanation:Ezetimibe and its Mechanism of Action
Ezetimibe is a medication that works by reducing the absorption of cholesterol in the gut. Although the exact way it works is not fully understood, it is believed to decrease the activity of proteins in the brush border of enterocytes, which in turn reduces the absorption of lipids. Unlike other medications that bind to bile acids, ezetimibe is absorbed into the bloodstream.
This medication is particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate statins, those who are not achieving their cholesterol targets with statins alone, or those who have experienced serious side effects from statin use. When taken alone at a dose of 10 mg per day, ezetimibe can reduce LDL cholesterol levels by approximately 20%. However, increasing the dosage beyond this point does not typically improve its effectiveness.
When used in combination with statins, ezetimibe can lead to even greater reductions in LDL cholesterol levels. Overall, ezetimibe is a valuable medication for managing high cholesterol levels in patients who are unable to take or benefit from statins alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting surgery. She has started a new relationship and is seeking advice on contraception. In her previous relationship, she used the depo injection and is interested in restarting it. She is a non-smoker, has no history of migraines or venous thromboembolism, and has a BMI of 23 kg/m². Which contraception option would be most suitable for her?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option in such cases.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pseudo-obstruction
Explanation:Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes
Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.
It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.
To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.
Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue, widespread musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and swollen lumps in her neck and armpit. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 107g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 140* 109/L (150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 3.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.0mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 12.5mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 165µmol/L (55-120)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 115mg/L (<5)
- Antinuclear antibodies: Positive
- Anti-double-stranded DNA: Positive
As a result of her abnormal renal function results, a renal biopsy is conducted and examined under electron microscopy, revealing no mesangial deposits. Based on her likely diagnosis, what medication should be prescribed to this patient?Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The recommended treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hydroxychloroquine, which is a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD). A patient presenting with symptoms such as fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and lymphadenopathy, along with positive results for antinuclear antibodies and double-stranded DNA antibodies, may be diagnosed with SLE. Hydroxychloroquine works by increasing lysosomal pH in antigen-presenting cells, which interferes with activity and downregulates the inappropriate autoimmune response. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent used in cancer treatment, is not appropriate for SLE management unless there is renal involvement. Methotrexate, another DMARD, can be used as a steroid-sparing agent in conjunction with prednisolone if the patient’s symptoms are not controlled by NSAIDs and hydroxychloroquine. Prednisolone, a corticosteroid, is typically reserved for patients with internal organ involvement or if their symptoms are not controlled by other medications due to the long-term risks associated with steroid use.
Managing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various organs and tissues in the body. To manage SLE, several treatment options are available. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can help relieve joint pain and inflammation. It is also important to use sunblock to prevent skin damage and flare-ups triggered by sun exposure.
Hydroxychloroquine is considered the treatment of choice for SLE. It can help reduce disease activity and prevent flares. However, if SLE affects internal organs such as the kidneys, nervous system, or eyes, additional treatment may be necessary. In such cases, prednisolone and cyclophosphamide may be prescribed to manage inflammation and prevent organ damage.
To summarize, managing SLE involves a combination of medication and lifestyle changes. NSAIDs and sunblock can help manage symptoms, while hydroxychloroquine is the preferred treatment for reducing disease activity. If SLE affects internal organs, additional medication may be necessary to prevent organ damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents after they witnessed him having a seizure. He had been experiencing a fever and cold symptoms for the past three days. His father also noticed a rash on his chest and a swollen tongue yesterday. The boy has met all of his developmental milestones prior to this incident.
After being assessed, the medical team has determined that the boy is safe to go home. What advice should the parents be given?Your Answer: An ambulance must be called if another seizure occurs and persists for longer than five minutes
Explanation:Parents should be informed that if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than five minutes, they should call an ambulance. The presence of a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue in the vignette suggests a diagnosis of scarlet fever, which is often associated with febrile seizures. However, it is important to note that simple febrile seizures lasting only a few minutes are generally not a cause for concern. It is not recommended to prescribe prophylactic antipyretics as they have not been shown to reduce seizure frequency according to NICE guidelines. Referral to a paediatric neurologist is only necessary if the child has neurodevelopmental delay or signs of a neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that is commonly prescribed for the treatment of major depression, anxiety, and panic disorder. What is the most accurate description of the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, which leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic space. This is why it is effective in treating depression, as it targets the alpha 2 receptors, noradrenaline, and serotonin.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?
Your Answer: Incorrect indication for transfusion
Correct Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample
Explanation:Common Causes of Transfusion Errors
Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.
In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency department with a complaint of sudden pain in her upper tibia. She has a fever and is unwilling to move her leg. The medical team suspects osteomyelitis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Osteomyelitis and Related Conditions
Acute osteomyelitis in children over the age of 4 years is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Fortunately, immunisation has greatly reduced the incidence of haematogenous osteomyelitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. In sickle cell anaemia, Salmonella is the typical organism responsible for infection. Meanwhile, Pseudomonas infection is frequently seen in haemodialysis patients and intravenous drug users. These organisms can cause serious infections that require prompt medical attention. It is important to be aware of the common organisms associated with osteomyelitis and related conditions in order to facilitate early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
Which of the following is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.
It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.
While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman arrives at 36 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She is admitted after experiencing a seizure following a 2 day period of intense abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbance. Her family has a history of epilepsy. During the examination, hyperreflexia is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eclampsia
Explanation:Eclampsia is a medical condition where a pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experiences seizures. Pre-eclampsia can be identified by early signs such as high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. While prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration and metabolic issues that may cause seizures, this is less likely given the patient’s one-day history. There is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest any other diagnoses.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man complains of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss for the past 3 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the last month and worsening erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary hemochromatosis and order blood tests. Which of the following results would support your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - high; transferrin saturation - high
Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is identified by an iron study profile that shows elevated levels of transferrin saturation and ferritin, along with a low total iron-binding capacity. This condition is inherited and leads to an excessive buildup of iron in the body. To rule out other possibilities, any options that do not show increased levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be eliminated during initial screening. Transferrin is a protein that transports iron in the blood, and its levels rise during iron deficiency to maximize the use of available iron. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the number of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an exchange transfusion for a neonate?
Your Answer: Plasma reduced whole blood in CPD less than 5-days-old and irradiated
Explanation:Requirements for Exchange Transfusion
Exchange transfusion is a medical procedure that necessitates the use of blood that has been processed to meet specific criteria. The blood used must be plasma-reduced whole blood, irradiated, and less than five days old. These requirements are necessary to ensure that the blood is free from any contaminants that could cause adverse reactions in the patient. Additionally, the Rh group of the blood used must either be Rh negative or identical to the neonate to prevent haemolytic transfusion reactions. These precautions are taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient undergoing the exchange transfusion. Proper blood selection is crucial in ensuring the success of the procedure and minimizing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead poisoning in infants?
Your Answer: Blue line on the gums
Explanation:Lead Poisoning in Infancy
Lead poisoning in infancy can cause various symptoms such as anaemia, pica, abdominal colic, and encephalopathy. However, the blue line on the gingival margin, which is a characteristic feature of very chronic lead poisoning, is unlikely to occur in infants. Lead poisoning can lead to anaemia due to erythroid hypoplasia and/or haemolysis. Pica and abdominal colic are common symptoms of lead poisoning in infants, while encephalopathy is only seen in severe cases. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if lead poisoning is suspected in infants. Proper management and treatment can prevent further complications and ensure the child’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:
Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.Susceptible to Hepatitis B
If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of passing loose stools and non-bilious vomiting. She has passed 6 loose stools and vomited 3 times over the last 72 hours. No visible mucous or blood seen in the stool, and urine output has not changed according to her mother. She is able to tolerate oral fluid and liquid food.
She has not travelled abroad recently and there are no sick contacts. Her vaccination schedule is up-to-date and there are no concerns regarding her growth and development.
On examination, she appears well and is alert and responsive. She has warm extremities and capillary refill time is <2 seconds. Her vital signs are normal. Peripheral pulses are strong and regular. There is normal skin turgor and there are no sunken eyes.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Encourage drinking of undiluted fruit juice or carbonated drinks as this will increase his fluid intake
Correct Answer: Introduce oral rehydration solution (ORS)
Explanation:It is not recommended to give antidiarrhoeal medications to children under 5 years old who have diarrhoea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis. This is because these medications do not provide any benefits and can cause side effects such as ileus, drowsiness, and nausea. It is also important to discourage the consumption of fruit juices and carbonated drinks, especially for those who are at risk of dehydration. Antibiotics are not routinely recommended for children with gastroenteritis as they do not effectively treat symptoms or prevent complications. The patient in question does not require antibiotic treatment. IV fluid therapy is not necessary as the patient is not clinically dehydrated and can be rehydrated with oral rehydration solution (ORS) and increased daily fluid intake. However, IV fluid therapy may be necessary if the patient shows signs of clinical dehydration or if they persistently vomit the ORS solution.
Understanding Diarrhoea in Children
Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.
Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with an arm fracture and bruising around her neck and on her abdomen. She is 12 weeks pregnant. While assessing her, you suspect that she may be a victim of domestic abuse. You enquire about this, but she quickly denies any issues at home with her husband, with whom she lives in a rural area. She instead tells you that these injuries were a result of her falling over at work.
Which of the following factors would make her more likely to be a victim of domestic violence?Your Answer: Living in a rural area
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Factors that Influence Domestic Violence: A Case Study
Domestic violence is a serious issue that affects many women worldwide. In this case study, we will explore the various factors that can influence domestic violence.
Pregnancy is a significant risk factor for domestic violence, especially when unplanned. It is crucial to screen for domestic violence during antenatal visits as it can increase the risk of miscarriage, infection, or injury to the unborn child.
Women aged 20-24 years are more likely to be victims of domestic violence than those aged over 25, according to the Office for National Statistics. However, this patient’s age is less likely to be a factor.
Unemployment is another factor that can increase the risk of domestic violence. Women who are unemployed are almost twice as likely to experience domestic violence than those who are employed. However, this patient has not specified that she is unemployed and is not the most likely option here.
Contrary to popular belief, women living in urban areas are more likely to experience domestic violence than those who live in rural areas, according to the Office for National Statistics.
Finally, women who are married are less likely to be victims of domestic violence than those who are divorced or separated.
In conclusion, domestic violence is a complex issue that can be influenced by various factors. It is essential to identify and address these factors to prevent and reduce the incidence of domestic violence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?
Your Answer: Failure of complete recovery in 24 hours
Correct Answer: Poor urine flow
Explanation:If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 3-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of left loin pain, offensive smelling urine, and fever. The child's temperature is 38.5°C and a clean catch urine test shows positive results for blood, protein, and nitrites. What is the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotic Recommendations for Urinary Tract Infection in Children
When it comes to treating urinary tract infections in children, it is important to choose an antibiotic that has a low potential for resistance. According to the NICE guidelines on Urinary tract infection in children (CG54), cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav are recommended options. On the other hand, quinolones and tetracyclines are not recommended for this age group. While amoxicillin and trimethoprim are potential options, they also carry the risk of resistance. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully consider the choice of antibiotic to ensure effective treatment and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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