-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with complaints of left ankle pain and tingling sensation in his lower leg. The pain worsens after prolonged standing and improves with rest. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling in the left ankle and foot. The doctor suspects tarsal tunnel syndrome, which may be compressing the patient's tibial nerve. Can you identify which muscles this nerve innervates?
Your Answer: Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation:The tibial nerve provides innervation to the flexor hallucis longus, which is responsible for flexing the big toe, as well as the flexor digitorum brevis, which flexes the four smaller toes. Meanwhile, the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis, which aids in plantar flexion of the ankle joint, while the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum longus, which extends the four smaller toes and dorsiflexes the ankle joint. Additionally, the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior, which dorsiflexes the ankle joint and inverts the foot, while the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus, which everts the foot and assists in plantar flexion.
The Tibial Nerve: Muscles Innervated and Termination
The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that begins at the upper border of the popliteal fossa. It has root values of L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3. This nerve innervates several muscles, including the popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and flexor digitorum brevis. These muscles are responsible for various movements in the lower leg and foot, such as plantar flexion, inversion, and flexion of the toes.
The tibial nerve terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves continue to innervate muscles in the foot, such as the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae. The tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement and function of the lower leg and foot, and any damage or injury to this nerve can result in significant impairments in mobility and sensation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of multiple minor falls and confusion. She has been experiencing daily headaches with nausea for the past 3 years, which have worsened at night and occasionally wake her up. Imaging reveals an intracranial mass located on the left hemisphere's convexity, and a biopsy of the mass shows a whorled pattern of calcified cellular growth that forms syncytial nests and appears as round, eosinophilic laminar structure.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Glioblastoma
Correct Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are the second most frequent type of primary brain tumour, often found in the convexities of cerebral hemispheres and parasagittal regions. The biopsy findings of this patient suggest the presence of psammoma bodies, which are mineral deposits formed by calcification of spindle cells in concentric whorls within the tumour.
Ependymomas usually present as paraventricular tumours and exhibit perivascular rosettes under light microscopy.
Glioblastomas are the most common primary malignant brain tumour in adults. Light microscopy reveals hypercellular areas of atypical astrocytes surrounding regions of necrosis.
Medulloblastomas are malignant cerebellar tumours that typically occur in children and are characterized by small blue cells that may encircle neutrophils.
Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 35 years old female presents to the emergency department with a mid-shaft humerus fracture. During the examination, the physician observes that she has lost the ability to extend her wrist, forearm, and fingers. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses a radial nerve injury.
What other structure is most susceptible to damage in this scenario?Your Answer: Radial artery
Correct Answer: Profunda brachii artery
Explanation:The deep brachial artery, also known as the profunda brachii artery, arises from the brachial artery just below the teres major muscle. It runs closely alongside the radial nerve in the radial groove and provides blood supply to structures in the posterior aspect of the forearm. The brachial artery divides into the radial and ulnar arteries at the cubital fossa. It is important to note that the profunda femoris vein and great saphenous vein are located in the leg, not the arm.
Anatomy of the Brachial Artery
The brachial artery is a continuation of the axillary artery and runs from the lower border of teres major to the cubital fossa where it divides into the radial and ulnar arteries. It is located in the upper arm and has various relations with surrounding structures. Posteriorly, it is related to the long head of triceps with the radial nerve and profunda vessels in between. Anteriorly, it is overlapped by the medial border of biceps. The median nerve crosses the artery in the middle of the arm. In the cubital fossa, the brachial artery is separated from the median cubital vein by the bicipital aponeurosis. The basilic vein is in contact with the most proximal aspect of the cubital fossa and lies medially. Understanding the anatomy of the brachial artery is important for medical professionals when performing procedures such as blood pressure measurement or arterial line placement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old gymnast comes to see you with complaints of left wrist pain that worsens with weight bearing. She reports that this has been going on for the past month since she began intense training for her gymnastics competition. During your physical examination, you observe swelling around her left wrist and note that the pain is exacerbated by hyperextension. You suspect that this may be due to impingement of the extensor retinaculum caused by continuous pressure on wrist extension during gymnastics.
To which bone is this structure attached?Your Answer: Scaphoid
Correct Answer: Triquetral
Explanation:The extensor retinaculum is a thickened fascia that secures the tendons of the extensor muscles in place. It connects to the triquetral and pisiform bones on the medial side and the end of the radius on the lateral side.
The radius bone is situated laterally to the ulna bone and articulates with the humerus proximally and the ulna distally.
The trapezium bone is a carpal bone located beneath the thumb joint, forming the carpometacarpal joint.
The capitate bone is the largest carpal bone in the hand and is positioned at the center of the distal row of carpal bones.
The scaphoid bone is located in the two rows of carpal bones and is frequently fractured during a fall on an outstretched hand.
The Extensor Retinaculum and its Related Structures
The extensor retinaculum is a thick layer of deep fascia that runs across the back of the wrist, holding the long extensor tendons in place. It attaches to the pisiform and triquetral bones medially and the end of the radius laterally. The retinaculum has six compartments that contain the extensor muscle tendons, each with its own synovial sheath.
Several structures are related to the extensor retinaculum. Superficial to the retinaculum are the basilic and cephalic veins, the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve, and the superficial branch of the radial nerve. Deep to the retinaculum are the tendons of the extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digiti minimi, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis.
The radial artery also passes between the lateral collateral ligament of the wrist joint and the tendons of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. Understanding the topography of these structures is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. According to his wife, he fell in the garden earlier today and hit his head on a bench. During the examination, you notice that his left eye is fixed in a down and out position. After performing a CT scan, you discover that he has an extradural hematoma on the left side. These types of hematomas are often caused by the middle meningeal artery rupturing. Which foramina does this artery use to enter the cranium?
Your Answer: Foramen rotundum
Correct Answer: Foramen spinosum
Explanation:The correct answer is the foramen spinosum, which is a small opening in the cranial cavity that allows the meningeal artery to pass through.
The foramen lacerum is covered with cartilage during life and is sometimes described as the passage for the nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal. However, it is more accurate to say that they pass into the cartilage that blocks the foramen before entering the pterygoid canal, which is located in the anterior wall of the foramen.
The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped opening that allows the mandibular nerve to pass through.
The foramen magnum is the largest of the foramen and is located in the posterior of the cranial cavity. It allows the brainstem and associated structures to pass through.
Foramina of the Base of the Skull
The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.
The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A patient who suffered from head trauma at a young age has difficulty with eating and occasionally chokes on her food. The doctor explains that this may be due to the trauma affecting her reflexes.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting the afferent signal for this reflex?Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Explanation:The loss of the gag reflex is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which is responsible for providing sensation to the pharynx and initiating the reflex. This reflex is important for preventing choking when eating large food substances or eating too quickly.
The facial nerve (CN VII) is not responsible for the gag reflex, but rather for motor innervation of facial expression muscles and some salivary glands. It is involved in the corneal reflex, which closes the eyelids when blinking.
The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for motor innervation of the tongue, which is important for eating, but it does not provide afferent signals for reflexes.
The ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) is not involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for providing sensation to the eye and is involved in the corneal reflex.
The vagus nerve (CN X) is involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for the efferent response, innervating the muscles of the pharynx, rather than the afferent sensation that initiates the reflex.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man visits his GP complaining of an 8-week cough and an unintentional weight loss of 7kg. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. The GP observes some alterations in his left eye, which are indicative of Horner's syndrome.
The man is referred to the suspected cancer pathway and is subsequently diagnosed with a Pancoast tumour.
What symptom is this individual most likely to exhibit?Your Answer: Anhidrosis
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos, and may also present with anhidrosis. Anhidrosis is a common symptom in preganglionic and central causes of Horner’s syndrome, while postganglionic causes do not typically result in anhidrosis. Exophthalmos is not associated with Horner’s syndrome, but rather with other conditions. Hypopyon and mydriasis are also not symptoms of Horner’s syndrome.
Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old Caucasian female presented to her primary care physician complaining of left eye pain that has been bothering her for the past week. She also reported experiencing tingling sensations in her upper limbs and two episodes of weakness in her right arm that lasted for a few days before resolving. She noted that the weakness and tingling were exacerbated after taking a hot bath. What is the origin of the cells primarily impacted in this woman's condition?
Your Answer: Neural crest cells
Correct Answer: Neural tube neuroepithelia
Explanation:Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder caused by the loss of oligodendrocytes, which produce myelin in the central nervous system. These cells are derived from the neural tube neuroepithelial cells, not from mesenchymal cells, which develop into other tissue cells such as bone marrow, adipose tissue, and muscle cells. The neural crest cells give rise to the neurons of the peripheral nervous system and myelin-producing Schwann cells, while the mesoderm only gives rise to microglia during nervous system development. The notochord plays a role in inducing the overlying ectoderm to develop into the neuroectoderm and neural plate, and gives rise to the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc. Ultimately, the oligodendrocytes are embryological derivatives of the neural tube neuroepithelia, which develop from the ectoderm overlying the notochord.
Embryonic Development of the Nervous System
The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.
The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A mother brings her 3-month-old son for his routine check-up. She mentions that his left hand has been in a fixed 'claw-like' position since birth. Upon examination, the left forearm is found to be supinated and the left wrist and fingers are flexed. Additionally, a slight droop is observed in the right eyelid and the right pupil is constricted.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Klumpke palsy
Explanation:Klumpke palsy is a condition that can occur due to shoulder dystocia during birth or sudden upward jerking of the hand. It results from damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus (C8, T1) and can cause a flattened forearm, flexed wrist, and fingers. Klumpke injury may also be associated with Horner’s syndrome, which can cause ptosis and miosis on the opposite side of the face.
Erb-Duchenne palsy is another condition that can occur due to shoulder dystocia during birth, but it results from damage to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5, C6). The affected arm hangs by the side, is internally rotated, and has an extended elbow.
Radial nerve palsy can be caused by a humeral midshaft fracture and can result in wrist drop.
Median nerve palsy can have different features depending on the site of the lesion. If the lesion is in the wrist, it can cause paralysis of the thenar muscles, leading to an inability to abduct and oppose the thumb. If the lesion is in the elbow, it can cause a loss of pronation of the forearm and weak wrist flexion.
Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the doctor after a peculiar incident. She complained of feeling an intense sense of terror, experiencing nausea, having a rapid heartbeat, and hearing laughter. Her mother observed her turning pale. She did not faint or feel lightheaded. The episode lasted for 90 seconds, and afterward, she felt disoriented and had a strange sense of familiarity.
What could be the probable reason for this occurrence?Your Answer: Focal temporal lobe seizure
Explanation:Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations. In this case, the boy experienced fear, epigastric discomfort, tachycardia, and heard laughter. His mother also noticed a change in his skin color and he felt confused and experienced deja vu after the seizure. These symptoms are typical of temporal lobe seizures.
The options of focal frontal lobe seizure, focal parietal lobe seizure, and panic attack are incorrect. Focal frontal lobe seizures usually involve movement, while focal parietal lobe seizures cause a sensation of paraesthesia. A panic attack may cause some of the symptoms, but not the hallucinations or deja vu. It may also lead to dizziness or loss of consciousness.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance following a sudden onset of symptoms during lunch with his daughter. He reports feeling extremely dizzy and nauseous, and has since lost hearing in his left ear and the ability to move the left side of his face. An urgent CT scan reveals a thrombus blocking an artery in his brain. Which artery is most likely affected by the thrombus?
Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, as sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and deafness are all symptoms of lesions in this area.
The middle cerebral artery is an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia.
The posterior cerebral artery is also an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia.
Similarly, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is an incorrect answer, as lesions in this area cause ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, ataxia, and nystagmus.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by his mother, reporting a deteriorating headache, vomiting, and muscle weakness that has been developing over the past few months. Upon examination, you observe ataxia and unilateral muscle weakness. The child is otherwise healthy, with no significant medical history, and is apyrexial. Imaging tests reveal a medulla oblongata brainstem tumor.
From which embryonic component does the affected structure originate?Your Answer: Diencephalon
Correct Answer: Myelencephalon
Explanation:The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla oblongata and the inferior part of the fourth ventricle. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and the superior part of the fourth ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.
Embryonic Development of the Nervous System
The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.
The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination.
During the examination:
The patient can smile and show their teeth, but they struggle to clench their teeth.
There are no issues with eyebrow movement or pupillary size.
Sensation in the forehead is intact.
However, there is a decrease in sensory innervation in the area of the buccinator.
Which nerve is the most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Trigeminal (mandibular branch)
Explanation:Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance that started 2 hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia.
During the examination, there is no facial asymmetry, and the patient appears comfortable. The visual field test shows homonymous hemianopia on the right side, and automated perimetry indicates macular sparing. The patient is unable to name familiar objects, such as a pen or a spoon.
Which artery is most likely to have been occluded?Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the posterior cerebral artery. When a lesion occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, it can result in contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. This is because the visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. The macula is usually spared because the posterior pole of the occipital cortex, which processes visual signals from the macula, receives collateral flow from the middle cerebral artery.
On the other hand, lesions in the anterior cerebral artery, which supplies the frontal cortex, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, altered sensorium, and aphasia. Meanwhile, occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, which supplies the lateral pons, can lead to sudden onset vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria.
Lastly, the central retinal artery is not the correct answer as occlusion of this artery typically results in amaurosis fugax, which is a painless transient ‘descending curtain’ visual field defect, rather than homonymous hemianopia.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine check-up. During the visit, the woman expresses her concern about her inability to breastfeed her baby, despite several attempts.
The woman has a medical history of sensorineural deafness, which she acquired after contracting bacterial meningitis as a child.
Her serum prolactin levels are within the normal range at 250 g/L (34-386 ng/mL). The doctor explains that the milk let-down reflex also requires the hormone oxytocin.
Can you identify the part of the brain where oxytocin is synthesized?Your Answer: Pineal gland
Correct Answer: Paraventricular nucleus
Explanation:The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin. This hormone is synthesized in the periventricular nucleus and then secreted into the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and eventually released into the systemic circulation. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the milk let-down reflex, causing the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract and release milk. However, this patient may have difficulty breastfeeding due to complications from her childhood meningitis. It is important to note that oxytocin is not synthesized or released from the arcuate nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, or pineal gland.
The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl is brought to the first-seizure clinic by her parents after experiencing multiple seizures in the past two weeks. According to her parents, the girl loses consciousness, becomes rigid, and falls to the ground while shaking for about two minutes during each episode. They also report that she has been experiencing urinary incontinence during these seizures.
The specialist decides to prescribe an antiepileptic medication.
What is the likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the mechanism of action of the prescribed drug?Your Answer: Carbamazepine - inhibits sodium channels
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate - inhibits sodium channels
Explanation:The patient in this scenario is experiencing a classic case of tonic-clonic seizures, which is characterized by unconsciousness, stiffness, and jerking of muscles. The first-line treatment for males with tonic-clonic seizures is sodium valproate, which is believed to work by inhibiting sodium channels and suppressing the excitation of neurons in the brain. Lamotrigine or levetiracetam is recommended for females due to the teratogenic effects of sodium valproate. Carbamazepine, which is a second-line treatment for focal seizures, would not be prescribed in this case. Ethosuximide, which is used to treat absence seizures, works by partially antagonizing calcium channels in the brain.
Treatment Options for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.
It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.
It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her GP complaining of intense facial pain. The pain lasts only a few seconds but is unbearable and worsens with exposure to cold air and touch.
Upon examination, there are no focal neurological signs. However, a few minutes after the examination, she experiences severe pain on her right cheek, which she describes as always being over her right zygoma.
Through which opening in the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?Your Answer: Foramen rotundum
Explanation:The correct answer is Foramen rotundum, as the maxillary nerve passes through this foramen to exit the skull. This nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the upper teeth, gums, and palate. The patient’s trigeminal neuralgia is caused by irritation of the right-sided maxillary nerve.
Cribriform plate is not the correct answer, as this area of the skull is where the olfactory nerve passes through to enable the sense of smell.
Foramen ovale is also not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the mandibular nerve exits the skull to provide sensation to the lower face.
Jugular foramen is not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the accessory nerve passes through to innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements relating to the Cavernous Sinus is not true?
Your Answer: The mandibular branch of the trigeminal and optic nerve lie on the lateral wall
Explanation:The veins that empty into the sinus play a crucial role in preventing cavernous sinus thrombosis, which can result from sepsis. It is worth noting that the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve, rather than the mandibular branches, traverses the sinus.
Understanding the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.
The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.
In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 70-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Upon examination, it was found that one of the cranial nerves was acutely paralyzed. Imaging studies revealed a large aneurysm in the right carotid artery within the cavernous sinus, which was compressing a nerve. Which nerve is most likely affected by the development of this aneurysm, given its close anatomical proximity to the artery, resulting in the patient's visual symptoms?
Your Answer: Abducens nerve
Explanation:The abducens nerve is at the highest risk of being affected by an enlarging aneurysm from the internal carotid artery as it travels alongside it in the middle of the cavernous sinus. On the other hand, the ophthalmic, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves travel along the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and are not in close proximity to the internal carotid artery. Additionally, the optic nerve does not travel within the cavernous sinus and is therefore unlikely to be compressed by an intracavernous aneurysm.
Understanding the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.
The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.
In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A man in his early fifties presents to the GP with hearing loss in his right ear. After conducting a Webber's and Rinne's test, the following results were obtained:
- Webber's test: lateralizes to the left ear
- Rinne's test (left ear): Air > Bone
- Rinne's test (right ear): Air > Bone
What is the probable cause of his hearing loss?Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear is indicative of an acoustic neuroma, which is the only option listed as a cause for this type of hearing loss. Other options such as otitis media with effusion and otitis externa cause conductive hearing loss, while ossicular fracture is a rare cause of conductive hearing loss. Understanding the Weber and Rinne tests is important in interpreting these results accurately.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman with a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia experienced sudden weakness in her right lower leg while preparing breakfast. She had a similar episode two days ago, which resolved after an hour. Her son brought her to the emergency department, where she reported her symptoms to the attending physician. The patient can speak well and fully comprehend what the doctor tells her. Upon examination, the doctor noted decreased touch sensation in her right leg. A non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan was unremarkable, but a repeat CT scan after 12 hours revealed an area of hypo-attenuation in a region of the brain. Which artery of the cerebral circulation is most likely to be occluded in this patient?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of stroke, likely caused by their long history of diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia, which are all risk factors for ischemic stroke. The absence of risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke, such as blood clotting disorders or warfarin use, supports this diagnosis. The CT scan performed upon admission may have been too early to detect the stroke, as ischemic strokes are typically visible on CT scans only after 6 hours. However, brain tissue swelling 12 hours later can produce an area of hypo-attenuation visible on CT scan.
The patient’s contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with greater impact on the lower extremity than the upper, suggest an ischemic stroke affecting the anterior cerebral artery. If the posterior cerebral artery were obstructed, the patient would experience contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. An ischemic stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery would more likely affect the upper limbs and face, and could also impact language centers or cause hemineglect. An ischemic stroke affecting the basilar artery could result in severe neurological impairment, such as locked-in syndrome or quadriplegia. An occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery would cause swallowing impairment, hoarseness, and loss of the gag reflex.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old factory worker gets his arm caught in a metal grinder and is rushed to the ER. Upon examination, he displays an inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints and abduct his shoulder. Additionally, he experiences weakness in his elbow and wrist. What specific injury has occurred?
Your Answer: Lateral cord of brachial plexus
Correct Answer: Posterior cord of brachial plexus
Explanation:Lesion of the posterior cord results in the impairment of the axillary and radial nerve, which are responsible for innervating various muscles such as the deltoid, triceps, brachioradialis, wrist extensors, finger extensors, subscapularis, teres minor, and latissimus dorsi.
Brachial Plexus Cords and their Origins
The brachial plexus cords are categorized based on their position in relation to the axillary artery. These cords pass over the first rib near the lung’s dome and under the clavicle, just behind the subclavian artery. The lateral cord is formed by the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks and gives rise to the lateral pectoral nerve, which originates from C5, C6, and C7. The medial cord is formed by the anterior division of the lower trunk and gives rise to the medial pectoral nerve, the medial brachial cutaneous nerve, and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which originate from C8, T1, and C8, T1, respectively. The posterior cord is formed by the posterior divisions of the three trunks (C5-T1) and gives rise to the upper and lower subscapular nerves, the thoracodorsal nerve to the latissimus dorsi (also known as the middle subscapular nerve), and the axillary and radial nerves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 75-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset facial weakness and concerns of a stroke. However, upon further questioning, the patient denies any risk factors for cardiovascular disease. During the examination, the patient displays unilateral weakness on the right side of their face and reports experiencing pain in their right ear. Further investigation reveals a widespread vesicular rash on the patient's right ear.
What is the causative organism responsible for this syndrome?Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:Ramsey-Hunt syndrome (VII nerve palsy) is caused by the varicella zoster virus.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which of these openings allows the facial nerve to enter the temporal bone?
Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone and emerges from the stylomastoid foramen.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old male who has been newly diagnosed with giant cell arteritis presents with a positive relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in his right eye during examination.
What is the significance of RAPD in this patient's diagnosis?Your Answer: The left and right eye appears to dilate when light is shone on the right eye
Correct Answer: The left and right eye appears to dilate when light is shone on the left eye
Explanation:When there is a relative afferent pupillary defect, shining light on the affected eye causes both the affected and normal eye to appear to dilate. This occurs because there are differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, often due to retinal or optic nerve disease, which results in reduced constriction of both pupils when light is directed from the unaffected eye to the affected eye.
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.
The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense shooting pain on one side of his face that is aggravated by chewing. Which of the following accurately identifies the location where the maxillary (V2) and mandibular nerves (V3) exit the skull?
Your Answer: V2 - foramen rotundum, V3 - foramen ovale
Explanation:Trigeminal nerve branches exit the skull with Standing Room Only:
V1 – Superior orbital fissure
V2 – Foramen rotundum
V3 – Foramen ovaleThe trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of severe morning headaches. The doctor conducts a neurological evaluation to detect any neurological impairments. During the assessment, the patient exhibits normal responses for all tests except for the absence of corneal reflex.
Which cranial nerve is impacted?Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The loss of corneal reflex is associated with the trigeminal nerve, specifically the ophthalmic branch. This reflex tests the sensation of the eyeball when cotton wool is used to touch it, causing the eye to blink in response. The glossopharyngeal nerve is not associated with the eye but is involved in the gag reflex. The optic nerve is responsible for vision and does not provide physical sensation to the eyeball. The oculomotor nerve is primarily a motor nerve and only provides sensory information in response to bright light. The trochlear nerve is purely motor and has no sensory innervations.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man comes to the Parkinson clinic for a levodopa review. In Parkinson's disease, which region of the basal ganglia is most affected?
Your Answer: Substantia nigra pars compacta
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease primarily affects the basal ganglia, which is responsible for movement. Within the basal ganglia, the substantia nigra is a crucial component that plays a significant role in movement and reward. The dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, which contain high levels of neuromelanin, function through the indirect pathway to facilitate movement. However, these neurons are the ones most impacted by Parkinson’s disease. The substantia nigra gets its name from its dark appearance, which is due to the abundance of neuromelanin in its neurons.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old man is referred to a neurology clinic due to experiencing uncontrolled movements of his limbs. The probable diagnosis is Huntington's disease, which results in the deterioration of the basal ganglia.
Which neurotransmitters are expected to be primarily impacted, leading to the manifestation of the man's symptoms?Your Answer: ACh and Glutamate
Correct Answer: ACh and GABA
Explanation:The neurons responsible for producing ACh and GABA are primarily affected by the degeneration of the basal ganglia in Huntington’s disease, which plays a crucial role in regulating voluntary movement.
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.
Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man with multiple sclerosis is prescribed baclofen by your consultant to treat muscle spasms.
What is the mechanism of action of baclofen?Your Answer: GABA receptor agonist
Explanation:Baclofen is a medication that is commonly prescribed to alleviate muscle spasticity in individuals with conditions like multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and spinal cord injuries. It works by acting as an agonist of GABA receptors in the central nervous system, which includes both the brain and spinal cord. Essentially, this means that baclofen helps to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which can help to reduce the activity of certain neurons and ultimately lead to a reduction in muscle spasticity. Overall, baclofen is an important medication for individuals with these conditions, as it can help to improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of muscle spasticity on their daily activities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)