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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had two previous vaginal deliveries. After three hours, she gives birth to a healthy baby girl with APGAR scores of 9 at 1 minute and 10 at 5 and 10 minutes. However, the newborn appears to be macrosomic, and during delivery, the mother suffers a perineal tear. The midwife calls the doctor to suture the tear and upon examination, they discover an injury to the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, involving the external and internal anal sphincters, with mucosal sparing. What degree of injury does she have?

      Your Answer: Fourth-degree

      Correct Answer: Third-degree

      Explanation:

      The perineal tear in this patient involves the anal sphincter complex, including both the external and internal anal sphincters, which is classified as a third-degree injury. This type of tear is typically caused by the intense pressure and stretching that occurs during childbirth, particularly in first-time mothers or those delivering larger babies, often due to undiagnosed gestational diabetes.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
      What is the most probable location of the occlusion?

      Your Answer: Right (acute) marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction

      Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old African-Caribbean woman presents to Gynaecology Outpatients with heavy periods. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old African-Caribbean woman presents to Gynaecology Outpatients with heavy periods. She has always experienced heavy periods, but over the past few years, they have become increasingly severe. She now needs to change a pad every hour and sometimes experiences leaking and clots. The bleeding can last for up to 10 days, and she often needs to take time off work. Although there is mild abdominal cramping, there is no bleeding after sex. She is feeling increasingly fatigued and unhappy, especially as she was hoping to have another child. She has one child who is 7 years old, and she had a vaginal delivery. Her periods are regular, and she is not using any contraception. On examination, she appears well, with a soft abdomen, and a vaginal examination reveals a uterus the size of 10 weeks. Her blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 9, and the results of a pelvic ultrasound scan are pending.
      What is the most appropriate management option based on the clinical information and expected ultrasound results?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Myomectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for menorrhagia caused by fibroids in a patient hoping to conceive

      Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be caused by fibroids in the uterus. In a patient hoping to conceive, treatment options must be carefully considered. One option is myomectomy, which involves removing the fibroids while preserving the uterus. However, this procedure can lead to heavy bleeding during surgery and may result in a hysterectomy. Endometrial ablation, which destroys the lining of the uterus, is not suitable for a patient hoping to have another child. Tranexamic acid may help reduce bleeding, but it may not be a definitive treatment if the fibroids are large or in a problematic location. Laparoscopic hysterectomy, which removes the uterus, is a definitive treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. The Mirena® intrauterine system is an effective treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. Ultimately, the best treatment option for this patient will depend on the size and location of the fibroids and the patient’s desire to conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      165
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance. Her parents explain that she...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance. Her parents explain that she has had cold symptoms for the last 24 hours but is generally well. They describe her walking towards them in the park when she suddenly went floppy and all four limbs started shaking. This lasted for around 1 minute, during which time she did not respond to her name and her eyes were rolled back. She remained drowsy for the next 30 minutes or so in the ambulance but is now well, alert and active, moving all limbs normally.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a seizure in a young child

      Febrile convulsion, reflex anoxic seizure, meningitis, epilepsy, and hypoglycaemia are among the possible causes of a seizure in a young child. Febrile convulsions are the most common type of seizure in this age group, occurring during a febrile illness and lasting less than 15 minutes. They are usually benign and do not require long-term treatment, but there is a risk of recurrence and a small risk of developing epilepsy later in life. Reflex anoxic seizures are syncopal episodes triggered by a minor head injury, resulting in a brief loss of consciousness and some convulsive activity. Meningitis is a serious infection of the central nervous system that presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching rash. Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, but it cannot be diagnosed based on a single episode. Hypoglycaemia is a metabolic condition that can cause seizures in diabetic patients, typically accompanied by symptoms like sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. A careful history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      121.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia visits you with her caregiver on a Monday...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia visits you with her caregiver on a Monday morning. She informs you that she was out of town over the weekend and misplaced her prescribed clozapine, which she takes at a dosage of 200 mg in the morning and 400 mg at night. She hasn't taken any since Friday evening and seems to be experiencing psychotic symptoms. Her caregiver mentions that this is the first time she has ever lost her medication.
      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Restart clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Non-Compliance with Clozapine in Schizophrenia Patients

      When a patient with schizophrenia on clozapine misses their medication for more than 48 hours, it is important to manage the situation appropriately. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily is recommended, even if the patient has been on a higher dose previously. However, the titration upwards can be more rapid than for a clozapine-naive patient.

      Stopping the clozapine prescription completely is not advisable, as the patient needs to be on treatment for their schizophrenia, and clozapine is often the treatment of choice for those who are resistant to other anti-psychotic medications. Restarting clozapine at a higher dose than the starting dose is also not recommended.

      Switching to a depo form of anti-psychotic medication may be considered if non-compliance is a recurring issue, but it should be a decision made in consultation with the patient, their family, and their healthcare team. However, switching to a depo after one incidence of non-compliance may be an overreaction, especially as it would require a change of medication.

      In summary, managing non-compliance with clozapine in schizophrenia patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and consultation with their healthcare team. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose is the recommended course of action, and switching to a depo form of medication should be considered only after careful discussion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most frequent location for a carcinoid tumor? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent location for a carcinoid tumor?

      Your Answer: Small bowel

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid Tumours and Neuroendocrine Tumours

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that originates from endocrine cells. These tumours can be found in various organs, but the most common location is the gastrointestinal tract, particularly the small intestine. The pancreas and lungs are also potential sites for carcinoid tumours. While some carcinoid tumours may not cause any symptoms, larger tumours and those located in the small intestine can lead to carcinoid syndrome. This occurs when the tumour cells release bioactive substances such as serotonin and bradykinin into the bloodstream, causing symptoms such as bronchospasm, diarrhoea, flushing, and heart damage.

      Other types of neuroendocrine tumours are derived from different endocrine cell types and may secrete different hormones. Examples include insulinoma, gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome), VIPoma, and somatostatinoma. Not all neuroendocrine tumours are functional, meaning they may not secrete hormones even if they originate from an endocrine cell.

      Treatment for carcinoid tumours typically involves surgical resection and/or somatostatin analogues such as octreotide, which can reduce the secretion of serotonin by the tumour. Most carcinoid tumours do not metastasize, but those that do may not be suitable for surgical resection depending on the extent of metastasis. However, some patients may benefit from octreotide and chemotherapy agents to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old graduate is referred to the renal clinic by the local health...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old graduate is referred to the renal clinic by the local health center. She has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking 10 mg of ramipril and 5 mg of amlodipine. Her medical history reveals recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood and recent use of ibuprofen for a knee injury. On examination, her blood pressure is 178/95 mmHg, pulse is regular at 74 bpm, and BMI is 22 kg/m2. Her creatinine level is elevated at 178 ÎĽmol/L. What is the most likely reason for her presentation?

      Your Answer: Chronic interstitial nephritis

      Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Reflux Nephropathy and its Management

      Recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood are most likely caused by reflux nephropathy, which can lead to renal scarring, resistant hypertension, and chronic renal failure over time. Early intervention is crucial, including investigation in childhood, antibiotics, and referral to a urologist to identify and correct any anatomical abnormalities. Chronic interstitial nephritis caused by analgesic use is unlikely in this case, as the patient’s knee injury was likely acute. IgA nephropathy typically presents after respiratory tract infections, while post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs 10-14 days after streptococcal pharyngitis. Essential hypertension is diagnosed based on the absence of an underlying cause. Proper management of reflux nephropathy can prevent long-term complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?

      Your Answer: Aspergillus

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More

      Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:

      – Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
      – Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
      – Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
      – Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
      – Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.

      Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
      What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms

      This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain and swelling in his right elbow. He mentions feeling generally unwell for the past few days and remembers hitting his elbow while cycling the previous week. During the examination, his temperature is 37.7 °C, his heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg. There is a warm, erythematous swelling on the posterior aspect of his right elbow.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Infected Olecranon Bursitis

      Suspected infected olecranon bursitis requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following options are available:

      Option 1: Oral flucloxacillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Empirical antibiotics, such as oral flucloxacillin, should be started immediately to cover for staphylococci and streptococci. However, urgent same-day aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 2: Arrange for corticosteroid injection
      If there are no signs of infection, corticosteroid injection may be considered after conservative measures have failed in aseptic olecranon bursitis. However, in suspected septic olecranon bursitis, urgent antibiotics and aspiration are required.

      Option 3: Oral flucloxacillin only
      Empirical oral flucloxacillin should be started as soon as possible in suspected infected olecranon bursitis. However, referral for urgent aspiration is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 4: Oral amoxicillin and refer for urgent aspiration
      Flucloxacillin, not amoxicillin, should be given for suspected septic olecranon bursitis to cover the most common organisms. Urgent aspiration should also be arranged to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility.

      Option 5: Refer for urgent aspiration
      Urgent aspiration is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and obtain antibiotic susceptibility. Empirical antibiotics should be started first while awaiting culture results. If the patient is seen in the Emergency Department, aspiration may be done first before starting antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of feeding difficulties and worsening respiratory distress. The infant has no significant medical history. During examination, a precordial ejection systolic murmur is heard and the lips appear bluish in color. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of fallot

      Explanation:

      TGA is a type of cyanotic congenital heart disease that presents within the first few days of life, while TOF typically presents at 1-2 months of age. In this case, the infant’s symptoms of decompensated heart disease with cyanosis rule out VSD, coarctation, and PDA, leaving TGA and TOF as possible diagnoses. The timing of the presentation suggests TGA as the more likely option, as it is duct dependent and presents early after birth. TOF, on the other hand, typically occurs later as the RV hypertrophy increases and causes a right to left shunt. TOF is characterized by VSD, RV hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and an overriding aorta, with a boot-shaped heart on chest x-ray and RVH on ECG. Treatment involves surgical repair around 6 months of age and management of cyanotic spells with b-blockers.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 12 - Sophie, a 35-year-old woman who is G1P0 and 16 weeks pregnant, visits you...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 35-year-old woman who is G1P0 and 16 weeks pregnant, visits you to discuss her 12-week combined screening test results. Her HCG levels are high, PAPP-A levels are low, and the nuchal translucency is thickened. Sophie has researched the results and is worried that her baby may have Down's syndrome. She is extremely upset and anxious. This is her first pregnancy after trying for a year, and she is concerned that her age may affect her ability to conceive again. However, Sophie is uncertain about continuing with the pregnancy and is contemplating termination.

      What advice would you offer Sophie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An amniocentesis test would give a more accurate result

      Explanation:

      The combined test is a screening test offered between weeks 11 and the end of the 13th week to assess the chance of fetal anomalies. While there is a small risk of miscarriage associated with diagnostic tests (such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling), it is generally considered acceptable when a screening test indicates a high chance of anomaly. However, as Katie is now outside of the window for the combined test, repeating it would not be useful. Instead, it is more appropriate to progress to a diagnostic test. The quadruple test is another screening test offered between weeks 14-19, but repeating a screening test would not confirm or rule out a diagnosis. Therefore, a diagnostic test would be the next step for Katie.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a central venous line (CVL) inserted. Which of the following statements is the most precise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CVL placement is required for the administration of adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      Central Venous Lines: Placement, Uses, and Complications

      Central venous lines (CVLs) are commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, including the administration of inotropes such as adrenaline, parenteral nutrition, blood products, fluids, and measurement of central venous pressures. However, the use of CVLs is not without risks and complications, which include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax.

      When it comes to the placement of CVLs, the site of choice is the subclavian vein, although the complication risk is higher. Femoral lines are more susceptible to infection due to the flora within the groin area. Consideration of the age of all lines should be made on daily review within the Intensive Care Unit/High Dependency Unit environment, as routine replacement of a CVL every fortnight is uncommon.

      Lastly, a check radiograph for placement is recommended on insertion of both subclavian and internal jugular lines to confirm correct placement within the superior vena cava and to exclude a procedural pneumothorax. However, this does not need to be repeated on removal, as there are no needles or incisions involved in the removal of the line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.

      A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.

      Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for contraception advice. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for contraception advice. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes daily, and has a BMI of 25 kg/m². She has no history of venous thromboembolism in her family or personal medical history. She underwent a right-sided salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy six years ago. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be unsuitable for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Women over 35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes a day should not use any form of combined hormonal contraception, such as the pill, patch, or vaginal ring. However, the other four methods listed are safe for use in this group.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following types of renal stones are radiolucent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of renal stones are radiolucent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xanthine stones

      Explanation:

      On an x-ray, cystine stones appear semi-opaque while urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent.

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 18 - Barbara, a 75-year-old recently widowed woman, visits your medical practice with her son,...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara, a 75-year-old recently widowed woman, visits your medical practice with her son, who is concerned about his mother's memory. Over the past few months, she has been forgetting appointments and conversations that they had just a few days ago, requiring frequent reminders to recall recent events. When you speak with Barbara, she mentions that she has lost her appetite and is waking up earlier than usual. She denies experiencing any hallucinations or issues with movement.
      After administering a mini mental state exam, Barbara scores 23, and you observe that she is having difficulty focusing on your questions, often responding with I don't know.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and Alzheimer’s can have similar presentations in elderly patients, so it’s important to consider depression as a possible cause. Depression is a common issue among the elderly, and it can cause concentration problems that may be mistaken for memory loss.

      There are several key symptoms that suggest depression, including loss of appetite, early morning wakening, poor concentration, and recent loss of a spouse. When conducting a mini mental state examination, patients with depression may respond with I don’t know, while those with Alzheimer’s may try to answer but give incorrect responses.

      MMSE scores can help determine the severity of cognitive impairment, with scores of 24-30 indicating no impairment, 18-23 indicating mild impairment, and 0-17 indicating severe impairment.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
      In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A ventilator-supported patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis

      Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.

      One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.

      Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.

      Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 21 - A patient is seen in the Psychiatric Clinic. He is a 28-year-old diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is seen in the Psychiatric Clinic. He is a 28-year-old diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has been taking olanzapine for two months now. He reports all the changes in his life – he has now given up smoking, cut down on drinking alcohol and is drinking lots of fruit juice. He is taking St John’s Wort on the recommendation of a friend and has stopped taking regular ibuprofen, as his back pain has improved. You are concerned that his dose of olanzapine may need to be reduced.

      Why might the olanzapine dose need to be reduced for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking induces metabolism of olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Interactions with Olanzapine: What to Watch Out For

      When prescribing medications, it’s important to consider potential interactions with other substances. For patients taking olanzapine, there are a few key interactions to keep in mind.

      Firstly, smoking can induce the metabolism of olanzapine and clozapine, which may result in adverse effects. It’s important to ask patients about their smoking habits and consider adjusting their medication accordingly.

      On the other hand, St John’s Wort can inhibit the metabolism of olanzapine, potentially decreasing its effectiveness. Patients should be advised to avoid taking these two substances together.

      Alcohol does not induce metabolism of olanzapine, but it may increase its sedative effects. Patients should be cautious when consuming alcohol while taking this medication.

      Finally, while fruit juices are not known to interact with antipsychotics like olanzapine, they can affect other medications such as warfarin and statins. Patients should be advised to check with their healthcare provider before consuming large amounts of fruit juice.

      It’s also worth noting that ibuprofen does not induce metabolism of olanzapine, so there is no interaction between these two medications.

      Overall, healthcare providers should be aware of these potential interactions and take steps to minimize any adverse effects for patients taking olanzapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
      What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable...

    Incorrect

    • A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable to form new memories and, as such, is stuck in 1992, believing that the Gulf War is ongoing. He has been hospitalised since 1993. He is unaware of his memory problem and confabulates his story when you try to point out the discrepancies between his stories and reality. He is able to remember everything up until 1992 without any problem.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of his disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Common Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

      Vitamin B1 Deficiency:
      Korsakoff’s amnesia is a severe neurological disorder caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1). This condition is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics and is characterized by anterograde amnesia, confabulations, and bilateral loss of the mammillary bodies in the brain. Thiamine deficiency can also lead to beriberi, which presents with polyneuritis and symmetrical muscle wasting in the dry form and dilated cardiomyopathy in the wet form.

      Vitamin B6 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B6 is essential for GABA synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to convulsions, neuropathy, and hyperirritability.

      Conversion Disorder:
      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition characterized by the presence of a deficit, such as paralysis or numbness, without any identifiable somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom but are aware of the problem.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined neurodegeneration, and glossitis.

      Vitamin C Deficiency:
      Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy, which presents with swollen gums, easy bruising, anemia, and poor wound healing.

      Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A patient who underwent abdominal surgery 12 hours ago now has a temperature...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who underwent abdominal surgery 12 hours ago now has a temperature of 38.2ÂşC. Their blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, heart rate 68 beats per minute and respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute. The patient reports feeling pain around the incisional wound. On examination, the wound appears red and their chest is clear. What is the probable reason for the fever in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological reaction to operation

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of a fever developing within the first 24 hours after surgery in an otherwise healthy patient is a physiological reaction to the operation. This is due to the inflammatory response to tissue damage caused by the surgery. Other potential causes such as cellulitis, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are less likely due to the absence of other symptoms and vital sign changes. Cellulitis may present with red and tender wounds, but without changes in other vital signs, it is not the likely cause. Pneumonia and pulmonary embolism typically occur after 48 hours and 2-10 days respectively, and would be accompanied by changes in heart and respiratory rates, which were not observed in this patient.

      Post-operative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and can be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, and a physiological systemic inflammatory reaction that usually occurs within a day following the operation. Pulmonary atelectasis is also often listed as an early cause, but the evidence to support this link is limited. Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak.

      To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, it is helpful to use the memory aid of the 4 W’s: wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic). This means that the causes can be related to respiratory issues (wind), urinary tract or other fluid-related problems (water), wound infections or complications (wound), or something that was done during the surgery or post-operative care (iatrogenic). It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia and treat it promptly to prevent further complications. This information is based on a peer-reviewed publication available on the National Center for Biotechnology Information website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated by breathing deeply and improved by leaning forward. The chest pain is not radiating. He has a mild fever but denies nausea, vomiting, cough or haemoptysis. He has self-medicated for a common cold and sore throat 5 days previously. On the electrocardiogram (ECG), there is diffuse, mild ST segment elevation (on leads II, aVF and V2–V6) and PR depression.
      Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed on physical examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triphasic systolic and diastolic rub

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics

      Pericarditis: Triphasic Systolic and Diastolic Rub
      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that improves by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub, with a scratchy, rubbing quality, is the classic cardiac auscultatory finding of pericarditis. It is often a high-pitched, triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur due to friction between the pericardial and visceral pericardium during ventricular contraction, ventricular filling, and atrial contraction.

      Mitral Regurgitation: High-Pitched Apical Pan-Systolic Murmur Radiating to the Axilla
      A high-pitched apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla is heard in mitral regurgitation.

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Continuous Systolic and Diastolic Murmur Obscuring S2 Sound and Radiating to the Back
      A continuous systolic and diastolic murmur obscuring S2 sound and radiating to the back is heard in coarctation of the aorta.

      Mitral Stenosis: Apical Opening Snap and Diastolic Rumble
      An apical diastolic rumble and opening snap are heard in mitral stenosis.

      Aortic Regurgitation: Soft-Blowing Early Diastolic Decrescendo Murmur, Loudest at the Third Left Intercostal Space
      A soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the second or third left intercostal space, is heard in aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography

      Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:

      1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.

      2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.

      3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.

      5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.

      In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood. She states that she had a heavy night of drinking and has vomited multiple times this morning. After the fourth time, she noticed about a tablespoon of fresh blood mixed in with the vomit. What is the probable reason for her haematemesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory–Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      This tear in the mucosa is usually caused by repeated vomiting, resulting in increased abdominal pressure. Young patients with a clear history may not require further investigation, and bleeding usually resolves without treatment.

      Oesophageal Varices
      This condition should be considered in patients with signs of chronic liver disease or a history of heavy alcohol intake. Oesophageal varices can be life-threatening, with mortality rates as high as 30%.

      Peptic Ulceration
      Peptic ulceration is a common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients who use non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoke, or have Helicobacter pylori infection. Patients with peptic ulcer disease should be tested for H. pylori and treated accordingly.

      Reflux Oesophagitis
      This condition is characterized by heartburn and can be asymptomatic. It is usually an incidental finding on endoscopy and can be treated with antacid medication.

      Haemophilia
      Haemophilia is a condition that increases the risk of bleeding due to the absence of clotting factors. While spontaneous gastrointestinal bleeding is rare, patients may present with spontaneous bleeding in other parts of the body, such as joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has been experiencing severe pins and needles in her hands upon waking in the morning. The patient has worked as a stenographer for the last 25 years, and this sensation has been increasing in intensity over the past 7 years.
      What would be the anticipated findings for this patient based on her medical history and symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flattening of the thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Median Nerve Compression in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed within the carpal tunnel of the wrist. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including numbness, weakness, and pain in the affected hand and fingers. Here are some common symptoms of median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome and what they mean:

      Flattening of the thenar eminence: The thenar eminence is the fleshy area at the base of the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, the muscles in this area may undergo wasting, leading to a flattened appearance.

      Numbness over the medial aspect of the ring finger: The median nerve supplies sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, including the ring finger. Numbness in this area may be a sign of median nerve compression.

      Inability to abduct the thumb: The abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve, is responsible for abducting the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, this movement may be weakened.

      Numbness over the proximal palm: The median nerve gives off a palmar cutaneous branch before entering the carpal tunnel. This branch supplies sensation to the proximal palm and is therefore unaffected by median nerve compression.

      Normal sensation over the radial aspect of the ring finger: Despite supplying sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, the median nerve does not supply sensation to the dorsal aspect of the interdigital web between the thumb and index finger or the radial aspect of the ring finger. Therefore, sensation in this area would not be affected by median nerve compression.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals recognize the signs of carpal tunnel syndrome and seek appropriate treatment. Treatment options may include medication, wrist splints, and surgery to release the compressed nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
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