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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer: Inability to flex the wrist
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures
Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.
2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.
3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.
While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A father attends the eye casualty with his 10-year-old daughter who has developed a red eye. The father says that the red eye started about a day ago. The child does not have decreased visual acuity but claims that her eyes feel itchy. She recently had a cold sore with runny nose and mild temperature. The girl is otherwise healthy and has been developing normally, and she does not have any swallowing difficulties. She does not suffer from any other conditions and does not have any allergies. There is no discharge seen and the eyelids are not sticky.
Which of the following medication is the most appropriate to treat this patient’s condition?Your Answer: Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Child with Conjunctivitis: An Overview
When a child presents with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it is important to consider the possible causes and choose the appropriate treatment. In the case of a child with a recent cold sore, the most likely cause is a herpes simplex infection. Oral acyclovir can be used to treat this type of viral conjunctivitis. However, prescribing prednisolone drops can worsen the infection and should be avoided.
If the child is very young and cannot swallow tablets, syrup acyclovir can be used instead. Chloramphenicol eye drops are often used for bacterial conjunctivitis, but this patient does not have any discharge. Sodium cromoglycate is used for allergic conjunctivitis, but this child does not have a history of allergies. By considering the specific symptoms and history of the child, the appropriate treatment can be chosen to effectively manage the conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37-year-old man presents with intrusive images of a violent altercation he witnessed a couple of months ago. He says he cannot concentrate because of it and has been avoiding going to the area where it happened. What should be your first line in management?
Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by repetitive, intrusive recollection or re-enactment of a traumatic event in memories, daytime imagery, or dreams. Other symptoms include emotional detachment, numbing of feeling, and avoidance of stimuli that might arouse recollection of the trauma. If symptoms are mild and occur within four weeks of the trauma, watchful waiting is appropriate. However, if symptoms are severe or persist beyond this time, psychological interventions should be considered as first-line treatments.
Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended treatment for PTSD. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is an alternative for those whose symptoms have persisted for three months beyond the trauma. Pharmacological interventions, such as paroxetine and mirtazapine, are considered second line but may be given first to those who express a preference.
Dynamic psychotherapy, which relies on the relationship between the patient and the psychotherapist, is not used as first-line treatment for PTSD but is considered the treatment of choice for adjustment disorder.
Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of mild lower back pain and tenderness around the L3 vertebra. Upon conducting tests, the following results were obtained: Hemoglobin levels of 80 g/L (120-160), ESR levels of 110 mm/hr (1-10), and an albumin/globulin ratio of 1:2 (2:1). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells found in the bone marrow. These plasma cells are derived from B lymphocytes, but when they become malignant, they start to divide uncontrollably, forming tumors in the bone marrow. These tumors interfere with normal cell production and erode the surrounding bone, causing soft spots and holes. Since the malignant cells are clones derived from a single plasma cell, they all produce the same abnormal immunoglobulin that is secreted into the blood.
Patients with multiple myeloma may not show any symptoms for many years, but eventually, most patients develop some evidence of the disease. This can include weakened bones, which can cause bone pain and fractures, decreased numbers of red or white blood cells, which can lead to anemia, infections, bleeding, and bruising, and kidney failure, which can cause an increase in creatinine levels. Additionally, destruction of the bone can increase the level of calcium in the blood, leading to symptoms of hypercalcemia. Pieces of monoclonal antibodies, known as light chains or Bence Jones proteins, can also lodge in the kidneys and cause permanent damage. In some cases, an increase in the viscosity of the blood may lead to headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past four months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; she walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip
Correct Answer: Perthes Disease
Explanation:Hip pain in the 10-14 year age group can have various causes, some of which may also result in knee pain. The most common disorder is transient synovitis of the hip, but it usually does not persist for more than 3 months. An osteosarcoma typically does not cause limb shortening unless there is a pathological fracture. While a slipped upper femoral epiphysis can lead to a similar presentation, it usually occurs later and in patients with different characteristics.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old primigravida at 37 weeks presents to the antenatal unit with complaints of right-sided abdominal pain and vomiting. She denies any abnormal discharge and reports normal fetal movements. Her blood pressure is 148/97 mmHg and her blood results show Hb of 93 g/l, platelets of 89 * 109/l, WBC of 9.0 * 109/l, urate of 0.49 mmol/l, bilirubin of 32 µmol/l, ALP of 203 u/l, ALT of 190 u/l, and AST of 233 u/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is HELLP syndrome, which is a severe form of pre-eclampsia characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. While hypertension, vomiting, and abdominal pain can support the diagnosis, they are not mandatory. The abdominal pain may indicate liver inflammation and stretching of the liver capsule.
Intense pruritus is the primary symptom of obstetric cholestasis, and a rise in serum bile acids is the most sensitive marker. Acute fatty liver is another severe condition associated with pre-eclampsia, which causes higher elevations in liver enzymes and deep jaundice. Hyperuricaemia can be a useful marker of pre-eclampsia and does not necessarily indicate gout. Urate levels increase due to reduced kidney function and clearance. Hyperemesis gravidarum is unlikely to present for the first time this late in pregnancy and should be a diagnosis of exclusion.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Shoulder X-ray
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?
Your Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes
Explanation:Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family
For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.
One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.
Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.
Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.
Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.
Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old man has a 10-week history of auditory hallucinations and delusions, on a background of a two-year history of personality change, low mood and disorganisation. He attends his GP with his mother but then refuses emergency psychiatric admission. His GP is concerned that he is at risk to himself and others in the community and does not have the capacity to make decisions about his medical care. Assessment with regard to need for involuntary admission is arranged to his local psychiatric unit.
Which section of the Mental Health Act would apply to his admission for treatment following assessment by a mental health specialist?Your Answer: Detainment under section 2 of the Mental Health Act
Explanation:Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act
The Mental Health Act provides a legal framework for the assessment and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. There are several sections within the act that allow for different forms of detainment and treatment.
Detainment under section 2 of the Mental Health Act allows for a person to be detained in hospital for up to 28 days for assessment and treatment of their mental disorder. This section is applicable when the person is potentially suffering from a mental disorder that warrants their detention in hospital and it is in their best interest for their own health, safety, or the protection of others.
Section 3 of the Mental Health Act, also known as a treatment order, allows for the detention of a service user for treatment in the hospital. This section is applicable when the person is suffering from a mental disorder that warrants their care and treatment in hospital and there is a risk to their health, safety, or the safety of others.
Community treatment order under section 17 of the Mental Health Act allows for the Responsible Clinician to grant a detained patient leave of absence from the hospital. This is the only legal means by which a detained patient may leave the hospital site.
Emergency detainment under section 4 of the Mental Health Act is an emergency application for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours. This section requires only one medical recommendation from a doctor and is usually applied by an Approved Mental Health Professional.
Holding under section 5 of the Mental Health Act allows for nurses to detain someone in hospital for up to six hours and doctors for up to 72 hours. This section is applicable when an assessment is needed to determine if further detention under the Mental Health Act is necessary.
Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for individuals with mental disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Deltoid
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries
The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.
The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.
The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.
The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.
The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.
Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.
Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Endocardial Cushion Defects
Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.
The results of her blood tests are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
- ALP: 240 u/l
- ALT: 550 u/l
- AST: 430 u/l
- γGT: 30 u/l
- INR: 1.8
- Hb: 110 g/l
- Platelets: 331 * 109/l
- WBC: 12.5 * 109/l
An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Explanation:Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman discovers she is pregnant and despite it being unplanned, she is excited to become a mother. During her initial check-up, her blood pressure is measured at 170/120 mmHg. She has a clean medical history, except for a childhood bout of Henoch-Schönlein purpura. Additionally, there is no relevant family history and she does not smoke. What could be the probable reason for her hypertension?
Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Chronic renal impairment
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension in Pregnancy
This patient is experiencing hypertension during pregnancy, which is commonly associated with pre-eclampsia. However, pre-eclampsia usually occurs later in pregnancy and should not be present during the initial booking visit. The patient’s medical history of Henoch-Schölein purpura suggests the possibility of chronic kidney disease as a potential cause of her hypertension.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of related disorders that can cause abnormal development of sexual characteristics, adrenal crisis, and hypertension. This condition is often diagnosed during puberty when girls experience virilization due to the production of androgens while cortisol levels remain deficient. As a result, many patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia may have reduced fertility compared to their peers.
While stress can contribute to hypertension, it is less likely to explain consistently high blood pressure readings. Membranous glomerulonephritis is another potential cause of hypertension, but it is uncommon in a woman of this age. This condition can be caused by heavy metal toxicity, malignancy, or infection with hepatitis C virus.
In summary, hypertension during pregnancy can have various underlying causes, including pre-eclampsia, chronic kidney disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, stress, and membranous glomerulonephritis. Further investigation and medical evaluation are necessary to determine the specific cause and appropriate treatment for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Correct
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A researcher compared the mean age in 2 groups of middle-aged adults who were randomised to either standard treatment or standard treatment + new supplement. The data collected was parametric and continuous. Which one of the following is the most appropriate statistical test?
Your Answer: Unpaired t test
Explanation:Two Sample Unpaired T Test
The two sample unpaired t test is a statistical test used to determine whether two populations, corresponding to two random samples, are equal. This test is appropriate for continuous data that is assumed to follow a normal distribution, making it useful for comparing weight loss between two groups.
It is important to note that a t test is not appropriate for all types of data. For example, a paired t test is used when the data is dependent, meaning there is a one-to-one correspondence between the values in the two samples. This could include measuring the same subject before and after a process change or at different times.
Overall, the appropriate use of statistical tests is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation. The two sample unpaired t test is just one tool in a statistician’s toolbox, but it can provide valuable insights when used correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has been occurring for the past four weeks. He reports that solid foods are particularly problematic and feel as though they are getting stuck. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and osteoarthritis of the knees, for which he takes amlodipine 5 mg OD and paracetamol 1 g as required respectively. He has a 20-pack year smoking history but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient appears well at rest and has a normal body habitus. Abdominal examination is largely unremarkable, except for some mild epigastric discomfort. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology for OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) under the 2-week wait criteria
Explanation:Recognizing Red Flags for Oesophageal Cancer: Referring for OGD under the 2-Week Wait Criteria
When a patient presents with subacute and first-onset dysphagia limited to solids, it suggests a new mass obstructing the oesophagus. This symptom is a red flag for oesophageal cancer, and a 2-week wait referral for OGD is necessary to prevent a delay in diagnosis. If abnormal tissue is found during the OGD, biopsies will be taken for histological analysis to confirm the diagnosis.
PPI therapy and review in a month is not appropriate for dysphagia, as it may delay a potential cancer diagnosis. Emergency hospital admission is unnecessary, as the patient is not acutely unstable. Routine outpatient gastrointestinal appointment is appropriate, but it must be performed within two weeks in accordance with the UK’s referral guidelines for potential cancer diagnoses. Acute specialist care of the elderly clinic referral is not necessary, as the patient’s age alone does not indicate a need for geriatric care.
It is important to explain to the patient that while cancer is a possibility, there may be other explanations as well. Encouraging a step-by-step approach and informing the patient that the specialist who conducts the OGD will explain things in more detail when consenting them for the procedure is appropriate. The full criteria for a 2-week wait referral for OGD includes new-onset dysphagia at any age, and additional criteria for patients over 55 years old with weight loss, epigastric abdominal pain, dyspepsia, reflux, or a history of Barrett’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has experienced a single episode of mania that was successfully managed with medication during a two-week stay in a psychiatric facility. She is currently adhering to her medication regimen without any negative side effects and has gained full awareness of her condition. She is curious about when she will be permitted to resume driving?
Your Answer: After a period of three months of remaining stable and well
Explanation:Driving Restrictions for Psychiatric Patients
Patients with psychiatric illnesses often ask about the conditions under which they can continue driving. In cases of uncomplicated mania and psychosis, patients must wait for a period of three months of stability after an acute episode before they can resume driving. This waiting period is necessary to ensure that patients are not at risk of causing accidents due to their condition. It is important for patients to follow these restrictions to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg on three separate occasions. Her cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, but further investigation reveals a significantly smaller left kidney with a 'string of beads' appearance in the left renal artery. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Surgical revascularisation
Correct Answer: Balloon angioplasty
Explanation:Management of Renal Artery Stenosis: Fibromuscular Dysplasia
Fibromuscular dysplasia is a rare cause of renal artery stenosis, typically affecting young women and presenting with hypertension. The characteristic ‘string of beads’ appearance on CT imaging helps in diagnosis. While atherosclerotic disease is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis, a combination of antihypertensive therapy and renal artery balloon angioplasty is curative for fibromuscular dysplasia. Kidney transplantation is not usually required, but it is important to recognize the condition in donors to prevent complications in recipients. Nephrectomy is not typically necessary, and surgical reconstruction is rarely recommended. Statins are not used in the management of fibromuscular dysplasia, but may be used in atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with her sister. The sister is worried that the patient may have a personality disorder due to her lack of interest in socializing and her preference for being alone. Upon further discussion, the patient admits to having no desire for romantic relationships, being unemployed, and lacking motivation to work. She denies any self-harm or suicidal thoughts and has no history of legal issues. During the consultation, she displays a flat and emotionless facial expression. What personality disorder is most likely present in this patient?
Your Answer: Schizoid
Explanation:The man’s presentation suggests that he may have schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by negative symptoms similar to those seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms include a lack of interest in others, solitary behavior, and emotional detachment. It is important to rule out positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions. Antisocial personality disorder, which involves disregard for others and criminal behavior, is not a likely diagnosis for this man as he has no history of such behavior. Avoidant personality disorder, which involves a desire for social contact but fear of rejection, is also not a likely diagnosis as the man has no desire for interpersonal contact. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, also known as borderline personality disorder, is not a likely diagnosis as the man does not exhibit the unstable relationships, self-image, or emotional reactions associated with this disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with complaints of palpitations and feeling unwell. Her friends report that she had a negative reaction to the alcohol they consumed and deny any use of illegal substances. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is holding onto her chest. Her pupils are dilated, and her pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure 135/92 mmHg. She mentions feeling nauseous. Which of the following substances could be responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:Understanding Cocaine Toxicity
Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.
Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.
Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.
In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are called to confirm the death of a 86-year-old man who is registered with your practice. The person used to live alone. You complete the necessary checks to verify this man’s death.
In which one of the following scenarios would it be most acceptable to issue a death certificate immediately?Your Answer: Suspicion of suicide
Correct Answer: History of chronic alcohol-related liver disease
Explanation:When to Report a Death to the Coroner: Guidelines for Different Scenarios
Reporting a death to the Coroner is not always necessary, but there are certain situations where it is required. Here are some guidelines for when to report a death to the Coroner:
1. History of chronic alcohol-related liver disease: Deaths due to chronic conditions like alcoholic liver disease do not need to be reported unless other criteria for reporting are met.
2. Lack of adequate nourishment: If neglect is suspected, such as an elderly person not having adequate shelter or nourishment, then the death should be reported to the Coroner.
3. History of asbestos-related disease: Any deaths due to injury or disease that could be due to a person’s employment must be reported to the Coroner, such as jobs in coal mining or construction work where patients could be susceptible to diseases like pneumoconiosis, asbestosis, or mesothelioma.
4. Suspicion of suicide: Deaths that are thought to be due to self-harm and/or suicide as a result of poisoning, trauma, or injuries to self must always be reported to the Coroner.
5. Suspicion of violence: If there is suspicion or evidence of violence, trauma, or injury, then the death should be reported to the Coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who found him confused and drowsy, with his hands over his abdomen. The patient has vomited twice on the way to the hospital and appears to be in pain. An arterial blood gas reveals the following results: pH 7.29 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 17 mmol/L (normal range: 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6kPa), p02 12kPa (normal range: 10-14kPa), and anion gap 20mEq/L (normal range: 10-14mEq/L). Which diagnostic test would provide the quickest indication of the patient's condition?
Your Answer: Paracetamol levels
Correct Answer: Blood glucose monitoring (BM)
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: MRI head
Correct Answer: CT head scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.
During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.
While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old soccer player suddenly collapses during a game. He is immediately taken to the Emergency department where he is diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. Despite successful defibrillation, he experiences a recurrence of ventricular tachycardia and unfortunately passes away after prolonged resuscitation. The 12 lead ECG taken after resuscitation reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a possible cause of sudden arrhythmia in a young, previously healthy individual. It is recommended that relatives of the patient be screened for the condition. Most patients with HCM have an abnormal resting electrocardiogram (ECG), which may show left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, T-wave inversion, right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement. Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation occurs in about 20% of cases and is linked to an increased risk of fatal cardiac failure. Drug abuse is not a likely cause, and aortic stenosis is rare without congenital or rheumatic heart disease. Myocardial infarction and massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes.
In summary, HCM is a possible cause of sudden arrhythmia in young, previously healthy individuals. ECG findings may include left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, T-wave inversion, and various arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common complication and is associated with an increased risk of fatal cardiac failure. Relatives of the patient should be screened for the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes in with weight loss and a serum calcium concentration of 3.22 mmol/l (normal range 2.1-2.8 mmol/l). Her skeletal survey shows no abnormalities. The doctors suspect non-metastatic hypercalcaemia. What is the probable substance being produced by the tumor?
Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
Explanation:Causes of Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients
Hypercalcaemia is a common occurrence in cancer patients, affecting around 10-20% of cases. It is caused by increased bone resorption and release of calcium from bone. The most common cancers associated with hypercalcaemia are breast and lung cancers, as well as multiple myeloma.
One of the most common causes of hypercalcaemia in patients with non-metastatic solid tumours is the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), also known as humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy. This should be suspected in any patient with a solid tumour in the absence of bony metastases or in patients with unexplained hypercalcaemia and low serum PTH concentration. PTHrP is related in function to PTH and is most commonly secreted by breast and lung tumours.
Osteoclast-activating cytokines can also cause osteolytic metastases and release of calcium. Calcitonin is used to lower plasma calcium concentration in patients with hypercalcaemia associated with malignancy. Calcitriol is the cause of almost all cases of hypercalcaemia in Hodgkin’s disease and approximately one-third of cases in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Secretion of PTH as a cause is rare, and serum PTH concentrations are typically low.
In conclusion, hypercalcaemia in cancer patients can have various causes, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What statement is true about fragile X syndrome?
Your Answer: The condition can only be diagnosed after birth
Correct Answer: Affected children are taller than average
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: Characteristics and Diagnosis
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects children, causing them to be taller than average and exhibit physical characteristics such as a high arched palate, long ears, a long face, and macro orchidism. The diagnosis of this syndrome was originally based on the expression of a folate-sensitive fragile X site induced in cell culture under conditions of folate deprivation. While affected males usually have learning difficulties, not all do. Additionally, one third of females with the mutation also experience learning difficulties.
Diagnosis of fragile X syndrome can be made through the detection of the mutant FMR 1 gene by chorionic villus sampling. In some cases, confirmatory amniocentesis may be required. It is important to identify this syndrome early on in order to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. She has been experiencing pain in her left hip for the past two weeks and has been limping. Upon examination, there is a slight decrease in the range of motion in her left hip joint, but no signs of swelling or effusion. Her right hip appears normal. Blood tests, including cultures, are negative. What is the most suitable initial management option for the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reassurance and follow-up
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4 and 8. It is more common in boys and presents with symptoms such as hip pain, limping, and reduced range of motion. However, if Perthes’ disease occurs in children under the age of 6, it has a good prognosis and can be managed with observation and follow-up. Therefore, this is the preferred management choice. Open reduction and internal fixation, splinting, and the use of a Pavlik harness are not appropriate treatments for Perthes’ disease in children under 6 years old.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department in a distressed state. He says he hears voices telling him that he is worthless and that the people talking to him know what he is doing as they are listening to his thoughts via the television and radio. His friends who attend with him tell you that he has become withdrawn over the past few months and has been missing lectures. There is a history of cannabis use but nil else of note. When he talks to you, he appears to have constructed a number of new words to describe the machines used to listen to him.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 294 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 16 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Manic-depressive psychosis
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Psychosis
Acute psychosis can have various underlying causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management. Here is a brief overview of some of the possibilities for a patient who presents with auditory hallucinations, neologisms, and odd behavior.
Schizophrenia: This is a primary psychotic disorder characterized by Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, which include auditory hallucinations, thought insertion/withdrawal/interruption, thought broadcasting, and delusions of control. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications.
Delirium tremens: This is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can cause confusion, agitation, tremors, seizures, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs in people with a history of heavy alcohol use and requires urgent medical attention.
Manic-depressive psychosis (bipolar disorder): This is a mood disorder that can involve episodes of elevated or irritable mood (mania or hypomania) and episodes of depressed mood. Psychotic symptoms may occur during manic or mixed episodes, but not necessarily during depressive episodes.
Amphetamine abuse: Stimulant drugs like amphetamines can induce psychosis, which may resemble schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders. A history of drug use and toxicology screening can help identify this possibility.
Subdural hematoma: This is a type of brain injury that can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, drowsiness, and focal neurological deficits. It is less likely in the absence of a history of head trauma or abnormal findings on neurological examination, but imaging studies may be needed to rule it out.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for acute psychosis includes various psychiatric and medical conditions that require different approaches to treatment and management. A comprehensive evaluation should consider the patient’s history, symptoms, physical and neurological examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with fatigue, weakness, tachycardia and generalised pallor, along with an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds. He has been experiencing frequent constipation and has noticed streaks of red blood on the surface of his stools over the past year. His family history is notable for a history of colorectal cancer. Upon examination, a mass is palpated on the left lower abdominal quadrant. The barium enema reveals an apple-core lesion of the descending colon, and there are enlarged lymph nodes and foci of liver metastasis on the abdominal CT scan. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen is significantly elevated. Molecular genetic studies have revealed a mutation in a gene located on the short arm of chromosome 12.
Which gene is most likely affected by this mutation?Your Answer: P53
Correct Answer: KRAS
Explanation:Genes Associated with Cancer: KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC
KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC are genes that play a crucial role in the development of cancer. KRAS is an oncogene that codes for the K-Ras protein involved in regulating cell division. Mutations in KRAS can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to cancer, particularly colorectal cancer. Rb is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the pRB protein, which regulates cell growth and division. Mutations in Rb are associated with various cancers, including retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, bladder cancer, melanoma, and some forms of breast and lung cancers.
P53 is another tumour suppressor gene that codes for the p53 protein, which controls the cell cycle and triggers apoptosis if it detects any abnormalities. Mutations in P53 can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to tumours. APC is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the APC protein, which controls cell division and prevents uncontrolled division. Mutations in APC can cause loss of control of cell division and tumour formation, leading to familial adenomatous polyposis.
Finally, DCC is a gene that encodes for the neptrin-1 receptor protein, which controls the development of the nervous system and acts as a tumour suppressor by triggering apoptosis in malfunctioning cells. Mutations in DCC can cause loss of this control and have been associated with over 70% of colorectal cancers. Understanding the role of these genes in cancer development can help in the development of targeted therapies and prevention strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood results are obtained:
- Adjusted calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
- Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- PTH 15.21 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
- Urea 4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
- Creatinine 81 µmol/L (60-120)
- 25 OH Vit D 12 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and its Effects on the Body
Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can be caused by a lack of dietary vitamin D or insufficient exposure to sunlight. This deficiency is more common in certain populations, such as the elderly, institutionalized patients, and ethnic groups with dark skin tones. Additionally, reduced sunlight exposure due to cultural dress codes, poor intake of dairy foods, and malabsorption states affecting fat-soluble vitamins can also contribute to vitamin D deficiency.
When the kidneys are functioning normally, they activate vitamin D through the 1-alpha hydroxylase mechanism. The actions of 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D have various effects on the body. It has a direct effect on the gut, increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate. It also has a direct effect on the kidney, inhibiting its own synthesis by reducing 1-alpha hydroxylase activity. Furthermore, it has a direct effect on the parathyroids, inhibiting PTH synthesis. At high concentrations, activated vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity, promoting bone resorption.
In conclusion, the risk factors and effects of vitamin D deficiency is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing related conditions. Adequate exposure to sunlight and a balanced diet can help prevent vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Cardiology Ward with acute left ventricular failure. The patient is severely short of breath.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Administer oxygen and secure venous access
Correct Answer: Sit her up and administer high flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing Acute Shortness of Breath: Prioritizing ABCDE Approach
When dealing with acutely unwell patients experiencing shortness of breath, it is crucial to follow the ABCDE approach. The first step is to address Airway and Breathing by sitting the patient up and administering high flow oxygen to maintain normal saturations. Only then should Circulation be considered, which may involve cannulation and administering IV furosemide.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, non-invasive ventilation should be considered as part of non-pharmacological management if simple measures do not improve symptoms.
It is important to prioritize the ABCDE approach and not jump straight to administering medication or inserting a urinary catheter. Establishing venous access and administering medication should only be done after ensuring the patient’s airway and breathing are stable.
If the patient has an adequate systolic blood pressure, iv nitrates such as glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) infusion could be considered to reduce preload on the heart. However, most patients can be treated with iv diuretics, such as furosemide.
In cases of acute pulmonary edema, close monitoring of urine output is recommended, and the easiest and most accurate method is through catheterization with hourly urine measurements. Oxygen should be given urgently if the patient is short of breath.
In summary, managing acute shortness of breath requires a systematic approach that prioritizes Airway and Breathing before moving on to Circulation and other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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