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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting, feels extremely tired, and reports that her vision seems to have a yellow tint.

      What is the indication for administering DigiFab in this patient?

      Your Answer: Potassium level of 2.6 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Coexistent renal failure

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      23.4
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department acutely ill with abdominal and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department acutely ill with abdominal and lower limb pain. He had a syncopal episode in the department and was transferred to the resuscitation area.

      His initial blood results are as follows:
      Na+: 114 mmol/l
      K+: 7.1 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 150 mmol/l

      What is the most frequent cause of the underlying diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      Acute adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addisonian crisis, is a rare condition that can have catastrophic consequences if not diagnosed in a timely manner. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.

      Addison’s disease is caused by a deficiency in the production of steroid hormones by the adrenal glands, affecting glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, and sex steroid production. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis, bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, tuberculosis, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      An Addisonian crisis can be triggered by the intentional or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy, as well as factors such as infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation in areas such as palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed skin.

      During an Addisonian crisis, the main symptoms are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and even coma.

      Biochemical features that can confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease include increased ACTH levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may involve the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level measurement, plasma renin level measurement, and adrenocortical antibody testing.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves the administration of hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also require thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and MedicAlert bracelet to alert healthcare professionals of their condition and the potential for an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.9
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old from West Africa presents with joint pain, muscle pain, and symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old from West Africa presents with joint pain, muscle pain, and symptoms similar to the flu. In the past day or two, he has also developed stomach pain and diarrhea. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.7°C, and he experiences tenderness in the upper right quadrant of his abdomen along with an enlarged liver and spleen. He remembers having an itchy rash and a few blisters on his arm after swimming in a local river a few weeks ago. Blood tests show a significant increase in eosinophils.

      What is the MOST appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Praziquantel

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a tropical disease caused by parasitic trematodes (flukes) of the Schistosoma type. It is transmitted through contaminated water that has been contaminated with faeces or urine containing eggs. The disease requires a specific freshwater snail as an intermediate host and human contact with water inhabited by the snail. There are five species of Schistosoma that cause human disease: S. japonicum, S. mansoni, S. haematobium, S. intercalatum, and S. mekongi. Schistosomiasis is a significant public health issue, second only to malaria, with over 200 million people infected worldwide. It is prevalent in the Middle East, Africa, and parts of South America and the Caribbean. Infection can manifest as acute or chronic.

      Acute schistosomiasis is characterized by the early clinical sign of swimmers itch, which causes blisters and an urticarial response in the area where the parasite enters the skin. Most acute infections are asymptomatic, but some patients may develop an acute syndrome. The most common acute syndrome is known as Katayama fever, which typically occurs in individuals with no previous exposure. It is caused by an allergic reaction to the sudden release of highly antigenic eggs and usually presents a few weeks after initial exposure to S. japonicum. Symptoms of Katayama fever include fever, flu-like illness, arthralgia, myalgia, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and cough. Patients may also experience right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. An extremely high eosinophil count is commonly observed.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can manifest as intestinal or urogenital forms. Intestinal schistosomiasis occurs when adult worms migrate from the liver to the mesenteric venules, where female worms continuously lay eggs. Common symptoms include abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Advanced cases may present with hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension. Schistosomiasis is the second most common cause of oesophageal varices worldwide. Urogenital schistosomiasis occurs when adult worms migrate to the vesical plexus. The hallmark sign is haematuria. In women, it may cause genital and vaginal lesions, as well as dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics after being pulled from a lake. The patient initially had a core temperature of 29.2ºC. CPR is underway. The patient's core temperature is rechecked after warming measures are introduced and the core temperature has increased to 32.5ºC. What changes, if any, would you make to administration of adrenaline during CPR in a patient with a core temperature of 32.5ºC compared to someone with a normal core temperature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interval between doses doubled

      Explanation:

      When performing CPR on patients with a core temperature of 30-35°C, it is recommended to double the interval between IV drug doses compared to what is used for normothermic patients. However, if the core temperature is above 35°C, standard drug protocols should be followed.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
    Which characteristic is considered...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      Which characteristic is considered to be a ‘B’ symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      The ‘B’ symptoms associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma include fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Fever is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38 degrees Celsius. Night sweats refer to excessive sweating during sleep. Weight loss is considered significant if it amounts to more than 10% of a person’s body weight over a period of six months. It is important to note that pain after consuming alcohol is a distinctive sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it is not classified as a ‘B’ symptom. This symptom is relatively rare, occurring in only 2-3% of individuals diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 68 year old has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a history of collapsing shortly after complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. It has been determined that the patient needs rapid sequence induction after pre-oxygenation. What is the best position for the patient to be in during pre-oxygenation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20-30 degrees head up tilt

      Explanation:

      Several studies have shown that elevating the head by 20-30 degrees is beneficial for increasing oxygen levels compared to lying flat on the back.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 7 - You evaluate a 58-year-old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 58-year-old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately one month. The patient is currently on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate vasomotor symptoms.

      What would be the MOST SUITABLE next course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology service (for an appointment within 2 weeks)

      Explanation:

      If you are a woman under the age of 55 and experiencing postmenopausal bleeding, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. One possible cause of this symptom could be endometrial cancer. To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, it is recommended to follow the suspected cancer pathway referral guidelines provided by NICE. These guidelines aim to facilitate recognition and referral of suspected cancer cases. By adhering to these guidelines, you can increase the likelihood of securing an appointment for further evaluation within two weeks. to the NICE referral guidelines on recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought in by ambulance to the resus area of your Emergency Department. They have been convulsing for the past 5 minutes. You have been unable to gain IV access and plan to administer a dose of buccal midazolam.
      What is the recommended dose of buccal midazolam for treating seizures in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dosage of buccal midazolam for treating a child experiencing seizures is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old office worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old office worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. The pain is severe and has greatly affected their ability to move. You discuss the available treatment options.
      Which of the following medication treatments is NOT recommended according to the current NICE guidelines? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol alone

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old male patient with epilepsy complains of feeling down. You observe that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient with epilepsy complains of feeling down. You observe that he has rough facial features, gum hypertrophy, and noticeable facial acne. Additionally, he exhibits an unsteady gait while walking.
      Which ONE anti-epileptic medication is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is a potent anti-epileptic drug that is no longer recommended as the initial treatment for generalized or partial epilepsy due to its toxic effects. Users often experience common symptoms such as ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, tremor, and dysarthria. Additionally, other side effects may include depression, decreased cognitive abilities, coarse facial features, acne, gum enlargement, polyneuropathy, and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
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  • Question 11 - You are requested to observe and approve a DOPS form for a final...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to observe and approve a DOPS form for a final year medical student who will be conducting nasal cautery on a 68-year-old patient experiencing epistaxis. You inquire with the student regarding potential complications associated with the procedure. What is a commonly acknowledged complication of nasal cautery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septal perforation

      Explanation:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse sweating, rapid heartbeat, and sudden high blood pressure is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that develops from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas, also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas, are similar tumors that originate in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system but are less common. These tumors secrete catecholamines and cause a range of symptoms and signs related to hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is high blood pressure, which can be either sustained or sporadic. Symptoms tend to come and go, occurring multiple times a day or very infrequently. As the disease progresses, the symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      Surgical removal is the preferred and definitive treatment option. If the tumor is completely removed without any spread to other parts of the body, it often leads to a cure for hypertension.

      Before surgery, it is crucial to manage the condition medically to reduce the risk of hypertensive crises during the operation. This is typically done by using a combination of non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) and beta-blockers. Alpha-blockade should be started first, at least 7-10 days before the surgery, to allow for expansion of blood volume. Once this is achieved, beta-blockade can be initiated to help control rapid heart rate and certain irregular heart rhythms. Starting beta-blockade too early can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

      Genetic counseling should also be provided, and any associated conditions should be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg by a patient with Alzheimer's disease at a nearby nursing home. The bite wound seems to have only punctured the skin without any ongoing bleeding or signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or discharge. Despite the absence of current infection, you decide to administer prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended length of time for prophylactic antibiotics in a non-infected human bite wound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      In cases of human bite wounds where the skin is broken but no blood is drawn, it is recommended to consider antibiotic prophylaxis, especially if the bite occurs in a high-risk area like the hands. According to NICE guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is usually sufficient for prophylaxis in bite wounds. However, if the bite wound becomes infected, a 5-day course of antibiotics is advised for treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.

      Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.

      When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.

      Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.

      The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.

      Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a single...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a single stab wound to the abdomen while attempting to intervene in a fight. The patient's observations are as follows:

      Parameter Reading
      Blood pressure: 122/84 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 88 bpm
      Respiration rate: 12 rpm
      SpO2: 98% on air

      Which two organs are frequently affected in cases of penetrating abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver and small bowel

      Explanation:

      In cases of penetrating abdominal trauma, two organs that are frequently affected are the liver and the small bowel. This means that when a person sustains a stab wound or any other type of injury that penetrates the abdomen, these two organs are at a higher risk of being damaged.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and fever. On examination, he has tenderness in the right iliac fossa. He refuses to flex the thigh at the hip, and if you passively extend the thigh, his abdominal pain significantly worsens.

      Which clinical sign is present in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas sign

      Explanation:

      This patient is showing the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this case, it is most likely due to acute appendicitis.

      To elicit the psoas sign, the thigh of a patient lying on their side with extended knees can be passively extended, or the patient can be asked to actively flex the thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they cause friction against the nearby inflamed tissues. This strongly suggests that the appendix is retrocaecal in position.

      There are other clinical signs that support a diagnosis of appendicitis. These include Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when the left lower quadrant is palpated. The obturator sign is pain experienced during internal rotation of the right thigh, indicating a pelvic appendix. Dunphy’s sign is increased pain with coughing, and Markle sign is pain in the right lower quadrant when dropping from standing on the toes to the heels with a jarring landing.

      A positive Murphy’s sign is observed in cases of acute cholecystitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking warfarin as part of his treatment.
      Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Warfarin has been found to elevate the likelihood of bleeding events when taken in conjunction with NSAIDs like ibuprofen. Consequently, it is advisable to refrain from co-prescribing warfarin with ibuprofen. For more information on this topic, please refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sickle-cell disease

      Explanation:

      Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - You plan to administer ketamine to sedate a toddler before suturing. After obtaining...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to administer ketamine to sedate a toddler before suturing. After obtaining consent and ensuring there are no contraindications, what is the recommended initial dosage of ketamine for pediatric sedation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      To achieve sedation in children, it is recommended to administer an initial dose of ketamine at a rate of 1.0 mg/kg through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least one minute. It is important to note that administering the medication too quickly can lead to respiratory depression. In some cases, an additional dose of 0.5 mg/kg may be necessary to maintain the desired level of sedation.

      Further Reading:

      Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.

      Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.

      During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.

      Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.

      Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.

      Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 19 - You evaluate the ECG of a 62-year-old male who has come in with...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the ECG of a 62-year-old male who has come in with episodes of Presyncope. What is the most suitable threshold to utilize in differentiating between a normal and prolonged QTc?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 450 ms

      Explanation:

      An abnormal QTc, which is the measurement of the time it takes for the heart to recharge between beats, is generally considered to be greater than 450 ms in males. However, some sources may use a cutoff of greater than 440 ms as abnormal in males. To further categorize the QTc, a measurement of 430ms or less is considered normal, 431-450 ms is borderline, and 450 ms or more is considered abnormal in males. Females typically have a longer QTc, so the categories for them are often quoted as less than 450 ms being normal, 451-470 ms being borderline, and greater than 470ms being abnormal.

      Further Reading:

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a condition characterized by a prolonged QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG), which represents abnormal repolarization of the heart. LQTS can be either acquired or congenital. Congenital LQTS is typically caused by gene abnormalities that affect ion channels responsible for potassium or sodium flow in the heart. There are 15 identified genes associated with congenital LQTS, with three genes accounting for the majority of cases. Acquired LQTS can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and bradycardia from other causes.

      The normal QTc values, which represent the corrected QT interval for heart rate, are typically less than 450 ms for men and less than 460ms for women. Prolonged QTc intervals are considered to be greater than these values. It is important to be aware of drugs that can cause QT prolongation, as this can lead to potentially fatal arrhythmias. Some commonly used drugs that can cause QT prolongation include antimicrobials, antiarrhythmics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiemetics, and others.

      Management of long QT syndrome involves addressing any underlying causes and using beta blockers. In some cases, an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) may be recommended for patients who have experienced recurrent arrhythmic syncope, documented torsades de pointes, previous ventricular tachyarrhythmias or torsades de pointes, previous cardiac arrest, or persistent syncope. Permanent pacing may be used in patients with bradycardia or atrioventricular nodal block and prolonged QT. Mexiletine is a treatment option for those with LQT3. Cervicothoracic sympathetic denervation may be considered in patients with recurrent syncope despite beta-blockade or in those who are not ideal candidates for an ICD. The specific treatment options for LQTS depend on the type and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of lower back pain and numbness in both feet. Three days ago, she experienced a sharp, shooting pain in her back after lifting a heavy object at work. The pain has worsened over the past three days, and she has now developed weakness in her right leg. She is also experiencing difficulty with urination. Her medical history includes a previous laminectomy for a herniated lumbar disc four years ago. During the examination, normal power is observed in her left leg, but reduced power is noted in the right leg. Motor strength is reduced to 3 out of 5 in the hamstrings, 2 out of 5 in the ankle and toe plantar flexors, and 0 out of 5 in the ankle dorsiflexors and extensor hallucis longus. The right ankle and Achilles tendon reflexes are absent. Sensory examination reveals reduced sensation in the right calf, right foot, labia, and perianal area. Rectal examination reveals reduced sphincter tone.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on the bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. As a result, individuals may experience loss of control over their bladder and bowel functions.

      There are certain red flags that may indicate the presence of CES. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having severe or worsening neurological issues in both legs (such as significant weakness in knee extension, ankle eversion, or foot dorsiflexion), difficulty starting urination or a decreased sensation of urinary flow, loss of sensation in the rectum, experiencing numbness or tingling in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and having a lax anal sphincter.

      Conus medullaris syndrome (CMS) is a condition that affects the conus medullaris, which is located above the cauda equina at the T12-L2 level. Unlike CES, CMS primarily causes back pain and may have less noticeable nerve root pain. The main symptoms of CMS are urinary retention and constipation.

      To confirm a diagnosis of CES and determine the level of compression and any underlying causes, an MRI scan is considered the gold-standard investigation. In cases where an MRI is not possible or contraindicated, a CT myelogram or standard CT scans can be helpful. However, plain radiographs have limited value and may only show significant degenerative or traumatic bone diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, also known as abruptio placentae, occurs when the placental lining separates from the wall of the uterus before delivery and after 20 weeks of gestation.

      In the early stages, there may be no symptoms, but typically abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding develop. Approximately 20% of patients experience a concealed placental abruption, where the haemorrhage is confined within the uterine cavity and the amount of blood loss can be significantly underestimated.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include sudden onset abdominal pain (which can be severe), variable vaginal bleeding, severe or continuous contractions, abdominal tenderness, and an enlarged, tense uterus. The foetus often shows signs of distress, such as reduced movements, increased or decreased fetal heart rate, decreased variability of fetal heart rate, and late decelerations.

      In contrast, placenta praevia is painless and the foetal heart is generally normal. The degree of obstetric shock is usually proportional to the amount of vaginal blood loss. Another clue that the cause of bleeding is placenta praevia rather than placental abruption is that the foetus may have an abnormal presentation or lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of excessively heavy menstrual periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of excessively heavy menstrual periods. Her GP recently ordered a complete blood count, which came back normal. During a vaginal examination, no apparent abnormalities were found. She is content with having finished having children.
      Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate treatment option for her? Select only ONE response.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirena IUS

      Explanation:

      The most recent guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend using a LNG-IUS, such as Mirena IUS, as the initial treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) in women who have no identified pathology, fibroids smaller than 3 cm without uterine cavity distortion, or suspected/diagnosed adenomyosis. If a woman declines or cannot use an LNG-IUS, alternative pharmacological treatments can be considered. These include non-hormonal options like Tranexamic acid or NSAIDs, as well as hormonal options like combined hormonal contraception or cyclical oral progestogens. to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 65 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her son. The son informs you that he visited his mother at the assisted living facility and noticed a decline in her alertness and mental state since his last visit 2 weeks ago. He expresses dissatisfaction with the facility staff, who made excuses about several caregivers being absent due to illness or vacation.

      Upon assessment, the patient opens her eyes and makes incomprehensible sounds when spoken to, but is unable to speak coherently or form words. The patient exhibits localized response to painful stimuli.

      What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      The GCS scoring system evaluates a patient’s level of consciousness based on three criteria: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each criterion is assigned a score, and the total score determines the patient’s GCS score. For example, if a patient has a GCS score of 10 (E3 V2 M5), it means they scored 3 out of 4 in eye opening, 2 out of 5 in verbal response, and 5 out of 6 in motor response.

      Further Reading:

      A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a condition where there is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater of the brain. It occurs when the cortical bridging veins tear and bleed into the subdural space. Risk factors for SDH include head trauma, cerebral atrophy, advancing age, alcohol misuse, and certain medications or bleeding disorders. SDH can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on its age or speed of onset. Acute SDH is typically the result of head trauma and can progress to become chronic if left untreated.

      The clinical presentation of SDH can vary depending on the nature of the condition. In acute SDH, patients may initially feel well after a head injury but develop more serious neurological symptoms later on. Chronic SDH may be detected after a CT scan is ordered to investigate confusion or cognitive decline. Symptoms of SDH can include increasing confusion, progressive decline in neurological function, seizures, headache, loss of consciousness, and even death.

      Management of SDH involves an ABCDE approach, seizure management, confirming the diagnosis with CT or MRI, checking clotting and correcting coagulation abnormalities, managing raised intracranial pressure, and seeking neurosurgical opinion. Some SDHs may be managed conservatively if they are small, chronic, the patient is not a good surgical candidate, and there are no neurological symptoms. Neurosurgical intervention typically involves a burr hole craniotomy to decompress the hematoma. In severe cases with high intracranial pressure and significant brain swelling, a craniectomy may be performed, where a larger section of the skull is removed and replaced in a separate cranioplasty procedure.

      CT imaging can help differentiate between subdural hematoma and other conditions like extradural hematoma. SDH appears as a crescent-shaped lesion on CT scans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 24 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 35 minutes. So far, he has received two doses of IV lorazepam. His bowel movement is normal. He has a history of epilepsy and is on phenytoin as maintenance therapy.

      According to the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Set up phenobarbitone infusion

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for the treatment of a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, the initial dose of benzodiazepine should be administered. This can be done by giving Lorazepam at a dose of 0.1 mg/kg intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of Step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for a further 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to summon senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of Step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior help to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already on phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of Step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      Please note that this algorithm is subject to change based on individual patient circumstances and the guidance of medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of worsening left sided otalgia and high temperature. During examination, a bulging red tympanic membrane is observed and acute otitis media is diagnosed.

      What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most probable causative organism in this case is Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of acute otitis media, especially in young children. It is known to cause infection in the middle ear, leading to symptoms such as ear pain (otalgia), fever, and a red, bulging tympanic membrane. Other organisms such as Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause ear infections, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit in this particular case.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 26 - The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing...

    Incorrect

    • The FY1 doctor seeks your guidance concerning an elderly patient they are managing who has experienced a head injury. They are uncertain whether they should request a CT head scan for their patient. Which of the following is NOT among the clinical criteria for an urgent CT head scan in an elderly individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 episode of vomiting

      Explanation:

      If an adult with a head injury experiences more than one episode of vomiting, it is recommended to undergo a CT scan of the head. There are several criteria for an urgent CT scan in individuals with a head injury, including a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment in the emergency department (ED), a GCS score of less than 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, new focal neurological deficit, and being on anticoagulation medication. If any of these signs are present, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour, except for patients on anticoagulation medication who should undergo a CT scan within 8 hours if none of the other signs are present. However, if a patient on anticoagulation medication has any of the other signs, the CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain began abruptly a couple of months ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, you observe muscle wasting in his left quadriceps, struggles in standing up from a seated position, and an absent knee jerk on the left side. Additionally, you notice muscle fasciculations in his left thigh.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic amyotrophy

      Explanation:

      Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically begins with discomfort in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly manifest, as seen in this case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, making it difficult for the patient to transition from sitting to standing without assistance. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Good control of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and lifestyle adjustments can reverse diabetic amyotrophy.

      Peripheral neuropathy is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy and typically manifests as pain or loss of sensation in the feet or hands.

      Autonomic neuropathy leads to changes in digestion, bowel and bladder function, sexual response, and perspiration. It can also affect the cardiovascular system, resulting in rapid heart rates and orthostatic hypotension.

      Focal neuropathy causes sudden weakness in a single nerve or group of nerves, resulting in pain, sensory loss, or muscle weakness. Any nerve in the body can be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy background of depression arrives at the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy background of depression arrives at the hospital after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that the medication she takes for this condition is verapamil immediate-release 240 mg. She ingested the tablets approximately half an hour ago but was promptly discovered by her husband, who quickly brought her to the Emergency Department.

      What is one of the effects of verapamil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative dromotropy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious matter and should always be treated as potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      The toxic effects of calcium-channel blockers can be summarized as follows:

      Cardiac effects:
      – Excessive negative inotropy: causing myocardial depression
      – Negative chronotropy: leading to sinus bradycardia
      – Negative dromotropy: resulting in atrioventricular node blockade

      Vascular smooth muscle tone effects:
      – Decreased afterload: causing systemic hypotension
      – Coronary vasodilation: leading to widened blood vessels in the heart

      Metabolic effects:
      – Hypoinsulinaemia: insulin release depends on calcium influx through L-type calcium channels in islet beta-cells
      – Calcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance: causing reduced responsiveness to insulin.

      It is important to be aware of these effects and take appropriate action in cases of calcium-channel blocker overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 29 - You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of...

    Incorrect

    • You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
      The hands and feet appear bluish in color
      The heart rate is 110 beats per minute
      There is no response to stimulation
      There is slight bending of the limbs
      The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
      What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old woman is found to have immunoglobulin light chains in her urine.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman is found to have immunoglobulin light chains in her urine.
      Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin light chains that are present in the urine are commonly known as Bence-Jones proteins (BJP). These proteins are primarily observed in individuals with multiple myeloma, although they can occasionally be detected in Waldenström macroglobulinemia, although this is a rare occurrence. It is important to note that BJP in the urine is not observed in the other conditions mentioned in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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