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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain that worsens upon leaning forward. Sinusitis is suspected. Which sinus is typically affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Ethmoidal

      Correct Answer: Maxillary

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinus is susceptible to infections due to its drainage from the top. This sinus is the most frequently affected in cases of sinusitis. While frontal sinusitis can lead to intracranial complications, it is still less common than maxillary sinusitis.

      The petrosal sinus is not a bone cavity, but rather a venous structure situated beneath the brain.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      654.7
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood, and back pain.

      Her blood results are as follows:
      Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for the patient’s condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by an excess release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) that stimulates osteoclast activity and causes an increase in blood calcium levels while decreasing phosphate levels. This is different from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by kidney damage that reduces vitamin D hydroxylation and results in lower/normal calcium levels and higher phosphate levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism presents with high levels of PTH, calcium, and phosphate. Hypothyroidism is not the cause as there are no abnormalities in TSH and free T4 levels. Although multiple myeloma also presents with high calcium levels, it is usually accompanied by anemia and renal failure, which are not present in this case as the patient’s hemoglobin and creatinine levels are normal.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old girl presents to the paediatric clinic with concerns about her delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents to the paediatric clinic with concerns about her delayed walking. Her mother reports that she has had three ear infections this year and has not been gaining weight as expected. The following blood test results are relevant:

      Hb 120 g/L (110 - 140)
      WBC 7.8 * 109/L (5.0 – 12.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Creatinine 30 µmol/L (13 – 39)
      CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
      Corrected serum Ca2+ 2.30 mmol/L (2.20-2.70)
      ALP 190 IU/l (76 – 308)
      Vitamin D 15 nmol/L (>50)
      IgA Anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTGA) Negative -
      TSH 5.0 mU/l (0.6 – 8.1)

      What is the underlying condition causing this child's delayed walking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 4 - A health-conscious 45-year-old presents with an unexplained acute kidney injury (AKI) and a...

    Incorrect

    • A health-conscious 45-year-old presents with an unexplained acute kidney injury (AKI) and a kidney biopsy reveals the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. The patient's calcium levels are normal, oxalate levels are elevated, and vitamin D levels are within normal range. Which vitamin overdose could potentially account for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      The deposition of calcium oxalate in the renal tubules indicates that the patient is experiencing oxalate nephropathy, which is commonly caused by an overdose of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin C overdose. It should be noted that elevated calcium levels are associated with vitamin D overdose, which is not applicable in this case.

      Understanding Oxalate Nephropathy

      Oxalate nephropathy is a type of sudden kidney damage that occurs when calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in the renal tubules. This condition can be caused by various factors, including the ingestion of ethylene glycol or an overdose of vitamin C. When these crystals build up in the renal tubules, they can cause damage to the tubular epithelium, leading to kidney dysfunction.

      To better understand oxalate nephropathy, it is important to note that the renal tubules are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and excreting them in the urine. When calcium oxalate crystals accumulate in these tubules, they can disrupt this process and cause damage to the tubular epithelium. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including decreased urine output, swelling in the legs and feet, and fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 5 - A 89-year-old man presents to his GP with a recent change in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year-old man presents to his GP with a recent change in his vision. He reports experiencing a gradual painless loss of vision in his left eye for about 5 minutes, described as a 'rising curtain', which has now resolved completely. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia. Upon examination, both pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, and fundoscopy shows no apparent pathology. What blood vessel is the most likely culprit for the patient's vision loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis fugax is a type of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) that affects the central retinal artery, not stroke. The patient’s description of transient monocular vision loss that appears as a ‘rising curtain’ is characteristic of this condition. Urgent referral to a TIA clinic is necessary.

      Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery is not associated with vision loss, but may cause motor loss and loss of temperature and pain sensation below the level of the lesion.

      Occlusion of the central retinal vein may cause painless monocular vision loss, but not the characteristic ‘rising curtain’ distribution of vision loss seen in amaurosis fugax.

      Occlusion of the ophthalmic vein may cause a painful reduction in visual acuity, along with other symptoms such as ptosis, proptosis, and impaired visual acuity.

      Occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is not associated with monocular vision loss, but is associated with lateral medullary syndrome.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP after discovering a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP after discovering a lump in her groin subsequent to relocating. The patient reports that she can push the lump back in, but it returns when she coughs. During the examination, the GP identifies the lump located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. The GP reduces the lump, applies pressure to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, and instructs the patient to cough. The lump reappears, leading the GP to tentatively diagnose the patient with a direct inguinal hernia. Through which anatomical structures will the hernia pass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia and superficial inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The correct structures for a direct inguinal hernia to pass through are the transversalis fascia (which forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal) and the superficial ring. If the hernia were to pass through other structures, such as the deep inguinal ring, it would reappear upon increased intra-abdominal pressure. In contrast, an indirect inguinal hernia enters the canal through the deep inguinal ring and exits at the superficial ring, so it would not reappear if the deep inguinal ring were blocked.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis C is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis C is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is the treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after a work-related injury resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after a work-related injury resulting in deep partial-thickness burns covering 18% of his body. The anaesthetist is consulted for pain management, but due to the extent of the burns, IV access is not possible. As an alternative, the anaesthetist decides to administer intramuscular ketamine to control the patient's pain. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N-methyl D-aspartic acid (NMDA) receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. They can be administered through inhalation or intravenous injection. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3. These drugs can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and increased pressure in gas-filled body compartments. Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, also act on receptors in the brain, but through different mechanisms. These drugs can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, and hallucinations. Each drug has its own unique properties and is chosen based on the patient’s medical history and the type of surgery being performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has visited her general practitioner complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has visited her general practitioner complaining of pain during urination. She has no other symptoms and no significant medical or drug history. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results show positive for nitrites and leukocytes. The general practitioner suspects a potential urinary tract infection and wants to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 10 - A woman in her 50s with lung cancer and bone metastasis in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s with lung cancer and bone metastasis in the thoracic spinal vertebral bodies experiences a pathological fracture at the level of T4. The fracture is unstable and the spinal cord is severely compressed at this level. Which of the following findings will not be present six weeks after the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diminished patellar tendon reflex

      Explanation:

      When there is a lesion in the thoracic cord, it can lead to spastic paraparesis, hyperreflexia, and extensor plantar responses, which are all signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. In addition, there may be incontinence, loss of sensation below the lesion, and a type of ataxia known as sensory ataxia. These symptoms usually appear a few weeks after the initial injury, once the spinal shock phase (characterized by areflexia) has passed.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 3-year-old girl is presented to the doctor with recurrent infections of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is presented to the doctor with recurrent infections of the upper respiratory tract and ear, as well as a recent episode of gastroenteritis. The doctor orders blood tests, including immunoglobulin levels, to determine if there are any deficiencies in antibody classes.

      Given the patient's medical history, which antibody class is most likely to be deficient in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate answer is IgA, which provides localized protection on mucous membranes. This is because IgA is specifically found on mucous membranes and in secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucous. The patient’s history of recurrent infections suggests a deficiency in IgA, which may be contributing to their susceptibility to infections in these areas.

      IgG, on the other hand, is the most abundant class of antibody and is found throughout the body. A deficiency in IgG would likely result in more widespread and severe infections.

      IgD is found in small amounts in blood serum and is therefore less likely to be relevant in this scenario. Similarly, IgM is primarily found in the blood and lymph and is less likely to be implicated in recurrent infections of mucous membranes.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by her nephrologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by her nephrologist to adhere to a 'renal diet'. She visits you to gain more knowledge about this.

      What is typically recommended to individuals with chronic kidney disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low potassium diet

      Explanation:

      Dietary Recommendations for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease patients are recommended to follow a specific diet that is low in protein, phosphate, sodium, and potassium. This dietary advice is given to reduce the strain on the kidneys, as these substances are typically excreted by the kidneys. By limiting the intake of these nutrients, patients can help slow the progression of their kidney disease and manage their symptoms more effectively. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider or a registered dietitian to ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs while following these dietary restrictions. With proper guidance and adherence to this diet, patients with chronic kidney disease can improve their overall health and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The patient has a medical history of a metallic heart valve.

      The patient is informed that INR levels will be used to monitor the effects of warfarin. INR is a ratio of the value during warfarin treatment to the normal value, which is used to measure a specific aspect of clotting.

      What is the value that is utilized during this monitoring process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Warfarin leads to an extended prothrombin time, which is the correct answer. The prothrombin time assesses the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade, and warfarin affects factor VII from the extrinsic pathway, as well as factor II (prothrombin) and factor X from the common pathway. This results in a prolonged prothrombin time, and the INR is a ratio of the prothrombin time during warfarin treatment to the normal prothrombin time.

      The activated partial thromboplastin time is an incorrect answer. Although high levels of warfarin may prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time, the INR is solely based on the prothrombin time.

      Bleeding time is also an incorrect answer. While warfarin can cause a prolonged bleeding time, the INR measures the prothrombin time.

      Fibrinogen levels are another incorrect answer. Fibrinogen is necessary for blood clotting, and warfarin can decrease fibrinogen levels after prolonged use. However, fibrinogen levels are not used in the INR measurement.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it...

    Incorrect

    • The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it like?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A lipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing out and hydrophobic tails facing in

      Explanation:

      The Function and Structure of the Mammalian Cell Membrane

      The mammalian cell membrane serves as a protective barrier that separates the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. It also acts as a filter for molecules that move across it. Unlike plant and prokaryotic cells, mammalian cells do not have a cell wall. The main component of the cell membrane is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids, which have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The phospholipids in the bilayer are oriented with their hydrophilic heads facing outward and their hydrophobic tails facing inward. This arrangement allows for the separation of the watery extracellular environment from the watery intracellular compartment.

      It is important to note that the cell membrane is not a monolayer and the phospholipids are not linked head-to-tail. This is in contrast to DNA, which has a helical chain formation. Overall, the structure and function of the mammalian cell membrane are crucial for maintaining the integrity and proper functioning of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash. He is experiencing tachycardia and his blood pressure is rapidly decreasing from 90/60mmHg. He is feeling dizzy and disoriented, and is experiencing pain in his left upper quadrant and left shoulder. Which organ is most likely to have sustained damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The patient’s tachycardia and low blood pressure indicate internal bleeding due to trauma. Although he experiences pain in his upper left abdominal quadrant, it does not rule out the possibility of internal bleeding. However, it makes heart and lung injuries less likely as he would have also complained of chest pain. The pain in his left shoulder suggests that the left phrenic nerve has been affected, which indicates damage to the spleen rather than the liver, as it would have been on the right side. The spleen is commonly damaged in trauma and could explain the rapid drop in blood pressure.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate vaginally at 35 weeks gestation following premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM). The baby has an APGAR score of 6 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes of life respectively. During examination in the delivery room, the baby appears lethargic, grunting with use of intercostal muscles, and has tachypnea and tachycardia. The baby's temperature is measured to be 39.1ºC. What is the most likely organism responsible for this baby's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is commonly caused by group B streptococcus infection, which is likely the case for this baby who is exhibiting symptoms within 24 hours of birth. Symptoms of neonatal sepsis include fever, tachycardia, respiratory distress, jaundice, and seizures. The mother’s lack of antenatal appointments increases the likelihood of an untreated GBS infection. Escherichia coli is another common cause, while Listeria monocytogenes is rare and typically only seen during outbreaks. Hospital-acquired infections from coagulase-negative staphylococci are unlikely in this case as the baby has not undergone any invasive procedures.

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements are not typically true in hypokalaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements are not typically true in hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It often accompanies acidosis

      Explanation:

      Potassium depletion can occur through the gastrointestinal tract or the kidneys. Chronic vomiting is less likely to cause potassium loss than diarrhea because gastric secretions contain less potassium than lower GI secretions. However, if vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis, renal potassium wasting may occur as the body excretes potassium instead of hydrogen ions. Conversely, potassium depletion can result in acidic urine.

      Hypokalemia is often associated with metabolic alkalosis due to two factors. Firstly, common causes of metabolic alkalosis, such as vomiting and diuretics, directly cause loss of H+ and K+ (via aldosterone), leading to hypokalemia. Secondly, hypokalemia can cause metabolic alkalosis through three mechanisms. Firstly, it causes a transcellular shift where K+ leaves and H+ enters cells, raising extracellular pH. Secondly, it causes an intracellular acidosis in the proximal tubules, promoting ammonium production and excretion. Thirdly, in the presence of hypokalemia, hydrogen secretion in the proximal and distal tubules increases, leading to further reabsorption of HCO3-. Overall, this results in an increase in net acid excretion.

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Causes

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium and hydrogen ions are competitors, and as potassium levels decrease, more hydrogen ions enter the cells. Hypokalaemia can occur with either alkalosis or acidosis. In cases of alkalosis, hypokalaemia may be caused by vomiting, thiazide and loop diuretics, Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome. On the other hand, hypokalaemia with acidosis may be caused by diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, acetazolamide, or partially treated diabetic ketoacidosis.

      It is important to note that magnesium deficiency may also cause hypokalaemia. In such cases, normalizing potassium levels may be difficult until the magnesium deficiency has been corrected. Understanding the causes of hypokalaemia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 18 - A different patient, presenting with symptoms of fatigue, polyuria and bone pains, is...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient, presenting with symptoms of fatigue, polyuria and bone pains, is found to have a history of renal stones and depression. Blood tests reveal high serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels, and low phosphate levels, leading to a suspected diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. Imaging confirms the presence of a parathyroid adenoma, and the patient is started on treatment including a phosphate supplement for symptom relief. In this patient, where will the supplementary electrolyte primarily be reabsorbed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is responsible for the reabsorption of phosphate. This patient’s symptoms are consistent with hyperparathyroidism, which causes an increase in serum calcium levels and a decrease in phosphate levels due to increased osteoclast activity, increased renal and intestinal absorption of calcium, and reduced renal reabsorption of phosphate from the proximal tubule. Treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism typically involves a parathyroidectomy, but medical treatment can be used if surgery is not possible.

      The distal tubules absorb electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and calcium, and play a role in pH regulation through the absorption and secretion of bicarbonate and protons. However, only a minimal amount of phosphate is reabsorbed in the distal tubules.

      The duodenum and jejunum are responsible for the absorption of iron and folate, respectively, but only a small amount of phosphate is reabsorbed in the gastrointestinal tract as a whole.

      The loop of Henle reabsorbs several electrolytes, including sodium, potassium, chloride, magnesium, and calcium, but only a relatively small amount of phosphate is reabsorbed in this aspect of the renal tract.

      The terminal ileum absorbs vitamin B12 and bile salts, but again, only a very small amount of phosphate is reabsorbed in the GI tract.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements relating to the Cavernous Sinus is not...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the Cavernous Sinus is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mandibular branch of the trigeminal and optic nerve lie on the lateral wall

      Explanation:

      The veins that empty into the sinus play a crucial role in preventing cavernous sinus thrombosis, which can result from sepsis. It is worth noting that the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve, rather than the mandibular branches, traverses the sinus.

      Understanding the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.

      The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

      In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl has been experiencing status epilepticus for 50 minutes. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been experiencing status epilepticus for 50 minutes. She is administered intravenous lorazepam boluses and then started on a phenytoin infusion, after which she regains consciousness and her seizures cease. What is the mechanism of action of phenytoin as an emergency treatment for epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is used as a second-line treatment for emergency epileptic seizures. Epilepsy is caused by a lower seizure threshold, which is perpetuated by positive feedback of sodium channels. Phenytoin works by blocking these voltage-gated sodium channels, which disrupts the immediate propagation of action potentials along the neurons. This increases the refractory period and may help to stop the seizure.

      Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.

      Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.

      Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.

      It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis. She had a history of rheumatic fever during childhood.

      Which of the following clinical signs is not typically reported in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spider naevi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis is a condition that typically manifests after a prolonged period of feeling unwell. The symptoms of this condition are varied and can include Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, petechiae, finger clubbing, and microscopic hematuria. Finger clubbing is also a symptom of other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital cardiac disease and atrial myxoma.

      Janeway lesions are painless, small, red spots that appear on the palms and soles of the feet. Osler nodes are painful, red nodules that appear on the fingers and toes. Roth spots are small, white spots that appear on the retina of the eye. Splinter hemorrhages are small, red or brown lines that appear under the nails. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots that appear on the skin. Finger clubbing is a condition in which the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. Microscopic hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine that can only be detected under a microscope.

      In conclusion, subacute bacterial endocarditis can present with a range of symptoms that can be easily confused with other cardiac conditions. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, especially if they persist or worsen over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, a purulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, a purulent cough and a fever over the past month. He reports that he lost 5kg in this period, and also experiences night sweats. One month ago, he returned to the UK from a two-month-long mission trip to India, where he worked as a volunteer in mission hospitals.

      On examination, he appears to be tachypnoeic and uncomfortable. Crepitations are heard at the apices of both lungs, and a productive cough is noted.

      He is admitted to the isolation ward, and the attending physician obtains samples for an acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear. However, why is an AFB smear alone insufficient in achieving a definitive diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AFB smear is not specific for TB as all mycobacteria will stain positive

      Explanation:

      An AFB smear is not a definitive test for TB as it can also detect other mycobacteria. However, it is one of the initial investigations for patients with symptoms suggestive of TB, such as this man with a purulent cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss, especially if they have a travel history to an endemic area like India. A culture is necessary to confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and determine its susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. The AFB smear is a quick and simple test that can be performed in most healthcare institutions, and it can detect both active and latent TB.

      Tuberculosis can be screened for using the Mantoux test, which involves injecting a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and reading the results a few days later. A positive result indicates hypersensitivity to the tuberculin protein, which may be due to previous TB infection or BCG vaccination. False negative results can occur in certain situations, such as in very young children or individuals with certain medical conditions. The Heaf test, which was previously used in the UK, has since been discontinued.

      To diagnose active tuberculosis, a chest x-ray may reveal upper lobe cavitation or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum smear tests involve examining three specimens for the presence of acid-fast bacilli using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. While this test is rapid and inexpensive, its sensitivity is between 50-80% and is decreased in individuals with HIV. Sputum culture is considered the gold standard investigation, as it is more sensitive than a smear and can assess drug sensitivities. However, it can take 1-3 weeks to obtain results. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) allow for rapid diagnosis within 24-48 hours, but are less sensitive than culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and irregular menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and irregular menstrual cycles. During the physical examination, a pelvic mass is discovered, leading to a referral to a gynaecologist. The transabdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of a fibroid in a structure that connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall.

      What is the name of this ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      The pelvic wall is connected to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries through the broad ligament. While the cardinal and suspensory ligaments also attach to the pelvic wall, they are only connected to one structure each: the cervix for the cardinal ligament and the ovaries for the suspensory ligament. The broad ligament encompasses the round ligament, ovarian ligament, and suspensory ligament of the ovaries.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 24 - At which of the following anatomical locations does the common peroneal nerve bifurcate...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the following anatomical locations does the common peroneal nerve bifurcate into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The point where the common peroneal nerve is most susceptible to injury is at the neck of the fibula, where it divides into two branches.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man is being evaluated on the ward. He was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is being evaluated on the ward. He was admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and required IV antibiotics. The results of his blood tests taken this morning are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 143 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 6.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      An urgent ECG is ordered, which reveals peaked T waves and a loss of P waves.

      What is the immediate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      The correct treatment for stabilizing the cardiac membrane in a patient with hyperkalaemia and ECG changes, such as peaked T waves and loss of P waves, is IV calcium gluconate. This is the first-line treatment option, as it can effectively stabilize the cardiac membrane and prevent arrhythmias. Other treatment options, such as calcium resonium, combined insulin/dextrose infusion, and nebulised salbutamol, can be used to treat hyperkalaemia, but only after IV calcium gluconate has been given.

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: A Step-by-Step Guide

      Hyperkalaemia is a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if left untreated. To manage hyperkalaemia, it is important to address any underlying factors that may be contributing to the condition, such as acute kidney injury, and to stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. Treatment can be categorised based on the severity of the hyperkalaemia, which is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the patient’s potassium levels.

      ECG changes are also important in determining the appropriate management for hyperkalaemia. Peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern are all associated with hyperkalaemia and should be evaluated in all patients with new hyperkalaemia.

      The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body. IV calcium gluconate is used to stabilise the myocardium, while insulin/dextrose infusion and nebulised salbutamol can be used to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Calcium resonium, loop diuretics, and dialysis can be used to remove potassium from the body.

      In practical terms, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment, including IV calcium gluconate to stabilise the myocardium and insulin/dextrose infusion to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Other treatments, such as nebulised salbutamol, may also be used to temporarily lower serum potassium levels. Further management may involve stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying causes, and lowering total body potassium through the use of calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 26 - What is the full form of ATP and how is it used during...

    Incorrect

    • What is the full form of ATP and how is it used during exercise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine triphosphate

      Explanation:

      ATP Generation During Exercise

      During exercise, the process of muscle contraction requires the generation of ATP, which stands for adenosine triphosphate. ATP is a small molecule composed of adenine and a sugar group attached to three phosphate groups. When ATP loses a phosphate group, it becomes ADP and releases energy.

      To sustain prolonged exercise, ATP must be regenerated quickly. This is achieved through the creatine phosphate – ATP system. Creatine phosphate releases a phosphate group, which allows for the rapid regeneration of ATP from ADP. This system ensures that the muscles have a constant supply of ATP to support muscle contraction during exercise. Proper ATP generation is crucial for athletes and individuals engaging in physical activity to perform at their best.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - As a junior doctor in orthopaedics, you come across a patient during a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in orthopaedics, you come across a patient during a ward round who had a hemiarthroplasty 6 days ago for a broken hip. Regrettably, the patient has now contracted a bacterial infection at the surgical site. Can you identify which immune-mediated processes are at play to combat this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cell antigen-presentation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is B cell antigen presentation. This process helps the body produce a large number of antibodies that are specific to the invading pathogen. It’s important to note that B cells mature into plasma cells, which are responsible for antibody production.

      The other options are incorrect. Eosinophils coordinate the body’s response to parasites, while macrophages do not produce antibodies. Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to platelets and do not participate in antigen presentation. Neutrophils do not coordinate the destruction of parasites; this is primarily the role of eosinophils.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of sensation in the 1st webspace of his left hand after a night of heavy drinking at a party. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient is unable to extend his left wrist and also reports a loss of sensation in the dorsal aspect of the 1st webspace. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies the skin on the dorsal aspect of the hand, while the axillary nerve innervates teres minor and deltoid muscle and provides sensory innervation to the badge area. The median nerve is the main nerve of the anterior compartment of the forearm, and the ulnar nerve innervates muscles in the forearm and intrinsic muscles of the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies muscles in the upper arm and terminates as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old man has been referred to the sleep clinic by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man has been referred to the sleep clinic by his GP due to reports from his partner of sleepwalking and appearing frightened during the night. Additionally, he has been known to scream while sleeping and recently experienced an episode of bedwetting. At which stage of sleep do these symptoms typically occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-REM stage 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old patient with well-controlled Parkinson's disease presents following several syncopal episodes. Each...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient with well-controlled Parkinson's disease presents following several syncopal episodes. Each episode is preceded by a change in posture, typically when the patient gets out of bed in the morning. The patient feels dizzy and nauseous and falls. He recovers within seconds after the event. The neurologist states these symptoms are likely a side-effect of the patient's levodopa, and prescribes a medication to treat the condition.

      What medication would be the most appropriate for managing the symptoms of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Orthostatic hypotension can be treated with midodrine or fludrocortisone. Fludrocortisone is a synthetic mineralocorticoid that can replace low levels of aldosterone and is often used as an alternative to midodrine, which can cause side-effects such as hypertension and BPH in some patients. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat angina and hypertension, while losartan is an angiotensin-II-receptor antagonist used to manage hypertension. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardias.

      Understanding Orthostatic Hypotension

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition that is more commonly observed in older individuals and those who have neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, diabetes, or hypertension. Additionally, certain medications such as alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia can also cause this condition. The primary feature of orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure, usually more than 20/10 mm Hg, within three minutes of standing. This can lead to presyncope or syncope, which is a feeling of lightheadedness or fainting.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for orthostatic hypotension. Midodrine and fludrocortisone are two medications that can be used to manage this condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for orthostatic hypotension, individuals can take steps to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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