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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with concerns about his hearing. He has a history of recurrent Ménière disease which has resulted in significant hearing loss. He struggles to hear his coworkers at work and his partner has noticed that he needs to turn the volume up high on the television. He has not considered hearing aids due to negative stories he has heard about them.
Upon reviewing his recent audiogram, it shows an 80 dB hearing loss at the 1,000 Hz and 2,000 Hz frequencies. The patient is interested in being referred for a cochlear implant.
What is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Refer her for a cochlear implant
Correct Answer: Refer her for hearing aids
Explanation:Individuals with severe to profound hearing loss, such as this woman, may benefit from a cochlear implant. It is not necessary for her to wait until her hearing worsens before seeking treatment. Ménière disease-related hearing loss, which is linked to inner ear issues and balance symptoms, can also be improved with a cochlear implant. While cochlear implants are available through the NHS, patients are typically required to have attempted hearing aids before being considered for the procedure.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A study investigates a new diagnostic test for dementia. You are interested in determining the proportion of patients who are classified as not having dementia by the test but actually do not have dementia. What measurement would indicate this?
Your Answer: Negative predictive value
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity, Specificity, and Predictive Values
When evaluating a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of sensitivity, specificity, and predictive values. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with the condition who are correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the condition who are correctly identified by the test.
Predictive values, on the other hand, take into account both true and false positives and negatives. The positive predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test positive and actually have the condition, while the negative predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test negative and do not have the condition.
It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are based on the disease state itself, while predictive values are based on the test result. This distinction can sometimes cause confusion among candidates, but understanding these concepts is crucial for interpreting diagnostic test results accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old male presents with a productive cough with regular sputum production, wheeze and breathlessness on exertion.
On examination his FEV1 is 75% of predicted with no diurnal variation. He has smoked 30 cigarettes a day for the past 50 years.
What is considered to be the most appropriate aspect of the long term management in this patient?Your Answer: Cessation of smoking
Explanation:Importance of Smoking Cessation in Managing COPD
Although chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a condition characterized by poorly reversible airflow limitation, quitting smoking is the only way to slow down its progression. A study involving 5,587 patients with mild COPD found that repeated smoking cessation over a period of 5 years resulted in a quit rate of 37%. After 14.5 years, those who quit smoking had higher lung function and survival rates compared to those who continued smoking.
While bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy are important mechanisms of treatment, it is crucial to remember that managing COPD doesn’t solely rely on drug therapy. Smoking cessation is a vital component in the management of COPD, and healthcare professionals should encourage and support patients in their efforts to quit smoking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?Your Answer: Referral for psychological therapy
Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone
Explanation:First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders
When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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GPs are being asked more frequently to provide medical reports by their patients or insurance companies. It is crucial to understand when patient consent is necessary before completing a report.
For which of the following reports will patient consent be necessary?Your Answer: Letter of support for absence from court
Explanation:Understanding Medical Reports
Medical reports are often requested from doctors by various entities such as government bodies, employers, insurance companies, and patients themselves. However, the need for patient consent varies depending on the type of report being requested. Legal reports that are necessary for patient care, such as child protection reports and mental capacity assessments, do not require patient consent. Similarly, reports that serve the public good, such as notifications of infectious diseases and adverse drug reactions, do not require patient consent either.
On the other hand, reports that provide information on illness as an entitlement or excuse, as well as reports that declare patients fit for sports or occupation, or provide information for actuarial assessments, all require patient consent. It is important for patients to understand the purpose of the report being requested and whether or not their consent is required. By doing so, patients can make informed decisions about their medical information and ensure that their privacy is protected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her desogestrel contraceptive pill (progestogen only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 0900, and it is now 1430. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed
Explanation:Since desogestrel has a 12-hour window, the patient can take the pill now without requiring any additional steps.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of pacifiers in toddlers is associated with sleep disturbances. What study design would be most suitable for this inquiry?
Your Answer: Cohort study
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:A case-control design is more suitable for studying sudden infant death syndrome due to its low incidence compared to a cohort study. This design compares a group with the disease to a group without, analyzing their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 8
Correct
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A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a hepatitis C test. What should be done in response?
Your Answer: Arrange an anti-HCV antibody test
Explanation:HCV RNA tests are typically not requested unless the antibody test comes back positive.
Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old business man who has been drinking heavily for at least two years, states that he drinks alcohol on his way into work as he suffers from anxiety attacks.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding his anxiety?Your Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol
Explanation:Understanding Mild Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms
This individual is struggling with alcohol dependence and is currently experiencing anxiety during the morning withdrawal period. Anxiety is a common symptom of mild alcohol withdrawal, which can also lead to agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors. While alcohol initially provides relief for these symptoms, continued abstinence can cause them to peak after approximately 72 hours and last for up to a week or more. However, most patients find that these symptoms have resolved within three weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 10
Correct
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A 5-year-old healthy girl is brought to the general practice surgery by her parents, who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her arms, legs and back. They think that these have been present since she was a small baby, but they seem more noticeable. They have counted six in total.
On examination, you observed several hyperpigmented macules with sharp borders and variable diameter: these are seen on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You also observe some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Distinguishing Neurofibromatosis Type 1 from Other Skin Conditions
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is typically diagnosed in children under the age of 8, with 80% of cases being identified by age 6. To diagnose NF1, at least two of seven criteria must be met, including the presence of café au lait macules, cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1.
Other skin conditions can be mistaken for NF1, including acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), and tuberous sclerosis. Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by dark, velvety discolouration in the body’s folds and creases, but lacks café au lait spots. Childhood lentigines are related to sun exposure and occur in sun-exposed areas, whereas NF1 patches develop on the legs, arms, and back. SWS presents with a port-wine stain affecting the facial skin, vascular eye abnormalities, and ipsilateral occipital leptomeningeal angiomas, which are not seen in NF1. Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by ash leaf macules and shagreen patches, which have a rough orange peel appearance, but are not present in NF1. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed amiodarone medication?
Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by drugs such as spironolactone, which is the most frequent cause, as well as cimetidine and digoxin.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
Why do teachers use this phrase?Your Answer: To elicit the patient agenda
Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule
Explanation:Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE
Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.
For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.
As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.
In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A young woman with haemophilia conceives with her husband and attends requesting information. Her husband has no family history of the disease (i.e. he is genetically normal in this context).
She asks about the chances of her offspring being affected by haemophilia.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: A daughter will have a 50% chance of being a carrier
Correct Answer: A son will not be affected
Explanation:Understanding Haemophilia Inheritance
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that the gene responsible for haemophilia is located on the X-chromosome. As a result, females who inherit one copy of the gene will be carriers of the disorder, but will not be affected by it as they have a normal X-chromosome that can compensate for the faulty one.
On the other hand, males who inherit the faulty X-chromosome from their mother will develop haemophilia as they do not have a second X-chromosome to compensate for the faulty one. However, males who inherit a normal X-chromosome from their mother will not develop haemophilia.
It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of haemophilia as it can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. By knowing the risk of passing on the disorder to their children, individuals can take steps to prevent or manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains in both feet that have been ongoing for several months. On examination, she has easily palpable pedal pulses but reduced light touch sensation in both feet up to her ankles. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 76 mmol/mol (9.1%) with normal full blood count, renal and liver function. She is currently taking metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. You discuss the importance of tighter glycemic control and potential medications that may help alleviate her symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for her burning foot pain?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The key points include offering a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment for all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia). If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs should be offered, with consideration for switching again if necessary. Tramadol should only be considered for acute rescue therapy, and capsaicin cream may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Nortriptyline is no longer recommended as an alternative to amitriptyline, and lamotrigine and venlafaxine are not recommended in non-specialized settings. It is important to note that there are many plausible options for medication, but the test is to select the one listed in the options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her right forefoot that has been bothering her for the past few months. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that is triggered by walking. The patient denies any history of injury and doesn't engage in regular physical activity. She reports consuming 28 units of alcohol per week. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the middle of her forefoot, and squeezing her metatarsals together reproduces her symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Morton's neuroma
Explanation:Based on the examination results, it is unlikely that the patient is suffering from alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy.
Understanding Morton’s Neuroma
Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.
To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.
Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care
When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.
In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.
It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the eye casualty with a recent change in vision in his right eye. He first noticed flashes of light, followed by a large cobweb-like obstruction in his vision. After a slit lamp examination, the ophthalmologist determines no further intervention is necessary.
What is a risk factor for the condition affecting this patient?Your Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: Posterior Vitreous Detachment, Refractive Errors, and Other Symptoms
A posterior vitreous detachment is a condition where the vitreous humor, the gel-like substance in the eye, separates from the retina. Myopia, or short-sightedness, is a risk factor for this condition as well as retinal detachment and tears. Refractive errors such as astigmatism and hypermetropia can also affect vision, causing blurred vision at near and far distances. Miosis, or a constricted pupil, can occur for various reasons including senile miosis, opioid toxicity, and Horner’s syndrome. Ptosis, or drooping of the upper eyelid, can also affect vision and is a feature of Horner’s syndrome, which has a triad of symptoms including miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis. Understanding these eye conditions and symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)
Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.
For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.
While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.
Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.
If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman came to see your colleague two weeks ago with a five day history of pain, redness and swelling of her left breast. She was given seven days of flucloxacillin. She has returned and it is no better; if anything it is slightly worse.
There is no discharge. She stopped Breastfeeding her last child eight months ago. She is otherwise very well. Her mother had breast cancer in her 60s and her maternal aunt had bowel cancer in her 70s.
On examination about half of the breast is erythematous, and the affected breast seems larger than the other side. There is no discrete mass to feel but the whole of the swollen area is indurated. She has a palpable axillary lymph node on that side. Her pulse is 80 bpm and her temperature is 36.2°C.
Which of these options would you select?Your Answer: Treat with anti-inflammatories and refer urgently to breast clinic
Explanation:Recognizing Inflammatory Breast Cancer
Most GPs and patients are familiar with the presentation of a breast lump, but inflammatory breast cancer can present in a more unusual way, making a swift diagnosis difficult. However, simply considering the possibility of this rare form of breast cancer can help pick out relevant information in the patient’s history and examination. Inflammatory breast cancer is not common, accounting for only 1-4% of all breast cancers, which can lead to delayed diagnosis in primary care. Patients with a personal or family history of breast cancer, symptoms of non-lactational mastitis that do not respond to antibiotics, palpable lymphadenopathy, involvement of more than 1/3 of the breast, and an absence of fever should be considered at high risk for inflammatory breast cancer.
It is important for GPs to ask about family history of breast cancer and check and record temperature when seeing patients with mastitis. Blindly prescribing another course of antibiotics, especially when the patient doesn’t have a fever or symptoms of infection, may delay diagnosis. Suggesting milk expression would be reasonable for lactational mastitis, but not for a patient who stopped breastfeeding six months ago. Attempting to aspirate would not be advisable for a generalist in a primary care setting, even if an abscess were suspected. Referring the patient to the Emergency department for assessment by a breast surgeon would be a wiser strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Correct
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A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.
The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.
After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Addition of losartan
Explanation:The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus since she was 20 years old. Her diabetes is currently well managed, and she has no other medical conditions. There is no family history of diabetes.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Thyroid disease
Explanation:The Link Between Diabetes and Other Medical Conditions
Diabetes, a chronic metabolic disorder, is often associated with other medical conditions. Autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease, which affect the thyroid gland, have a higher prevalence in women with diabetes. However, diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of developing giant cell arteritis (GCA) or polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), but the high-dose steroids used to treat these conditions can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes (T2DM). Anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction, is not linked to diabetes, but increased steroid use in asthmatic patients, a chronic respiratory condition, is a risk factor for developing T2DM. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune condition that causes widespread inflammation, doesn’t have a significant increased risk in diabetic patients, but steroid treatments used to treat SLE can increase the risk of developing T2DM. Understanding the link between diabetes and other medical conditions is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed by the malodorous discharge from the affected breast, which is causing considerable social embarrassment.
From the list below, choose the single treatment which would help alleviate this symptom.Your Answer: Oral metronidazole or gel
Correct Answer: Allevyn dressings
Explanation:Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care
In palliative care, managing foul odors is an important aspect of providing comfort to patients. One approach is to use metronidazole, which can improve smells caused by anaerobic organisms that infect fungating tumors. Another option is to use charcoal dressings, which absorb malodorous substances. It is recommended to familiarize oneself with the British National Formulary (BNF) section on prescribing in palliative care, as it contains valuable information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate unpleasant odors and improve the quality of life for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Correct
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You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has diarrhoea and vomiting. When you see the patient, he has symptoms suggestive of norovirus infection.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this situation.Your Answer: Barrier-nurse in isolation within the residential home
Explanation:Understanding Norovirus: Symptoms, Transmission, and Control Measures
Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes diarrhoea and vomiting. It spreads rapidly through person-to-person contact, aerosol, and contact with infected vomit or stool. The symptoms typically include diarrhoea and vomiting with fever and abdominal cramps, and the illness usually lasts for 12-60 hours.
Outbreaks of norovirus are common in restricted environments such as hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. To prevent the spread of the virus, patients should be barrier-nursed and treated with fluid replacement and symptomatic treatment. It is important to note that these patients should not be admitted to hospitals unless absolutely necessary due to the highly infectious nature of the disease.
Key control measures for norovirus include frequent cleaning, environmental disinfection, and prompt clearance of soiling caused by vomit or faeces. Hygiene and hand-washing are also crucial in preventing the spread of the virus. Anyone who is infected should not prepare food for others until at least 3 days after symptoms have gone.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, transmission, and control measures of norovirus is crucial in preventing outbreaks and protecting public health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Correct Answer: Shingles
Explanation:Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions
Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine
Explanation:When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.
Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granuloma annulare
Explanation:A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.
Understanding Granuloma Annulare
Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.
Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:
Your Answer: Children may perform ritualistic behaviour
Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence
Explanation:Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer: Admit for IV pamidronate
Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 31
Correct
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The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?
Your Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Explanation:Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.
The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.
The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.
The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.
The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.
While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 7.1 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?Your Answer: Reduced verbal output
Explanation:Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.
Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.
Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.
It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with multiple symptoms affecting his nose and throat. He has long-standing nasal congestion, but over the past week has also been suffering from a painful lesion in his mouth, sore throat and hoarse voice. On examination, he has bilateral, grey nasal swellings, a solitary yellow ulcer of 4 mm diameter on the oral mucosa, a multinodular goitre and unilateral parotid enlargement. He states that the parotid lump has been there for a few months, at least. His GP suspects cancer.
Which of the following presentations warrants specialist referral under the 2-week rule?
Your Answer: The discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland
Explanation:Common Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
The following are common head and neck symptoms and the appropriate referral guidelines:
1. Discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland: Any unexplained lump in the head or neck requires a 2-week rule referral. A discrete, persistent, unilateral lump in the parotid gland requires an urgent referral, imaging, and further investigation to determine the nature of the mass.
2. Solitary, painful ulcer on the oral mucosa, of 1-week duration: This is most likely to be an aphthous ulcer. An unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks, or an unexplained neck lump, would warrant a 2-week wait referral.
3. A 7-day history of hoarseness and sore throat: Patients over the age of 45 with persistent unexplained hoarseness should be referred using the cancer pathway. After seven days, this is most likely to be an upper respiratory tract infection.
4. Diffuse multinodular thyroid swelling: For suspected thyroid cancer, the single referral criterion is an ‘unexplained thyroid lump’. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is a multinodular goitre.
5. Nasal obstruction and bilateral grey swellings visible by nasal speculum: Bilateral nasal swellings of this description are almost certainly polyps. These can initially be managed in primary care. Unilateral polyps should be referred to the ear, nose and throat clinic.
Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 35
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.
What vaccines should be offered to this patient?Your Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine
Explanation:Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.
What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?Your Answer: Tiotropium 18 micrograms OD PLUS budesonide 200 micrograms, Formoterol fumarate 6 micrograms/metered inhalation 2 puffs BD
Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD
Explanation:Spirometry and Management of COPD
In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 37
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 38
Correct
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A 14-year-old female presents with acute tonsillitis.
She has been feeling unwell for the past five days with a high fever and a sore throat. Upon examination, you notice marked tonsillar exudate bilaterally and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Given her condition, you believe that antibiotic treatment is necessary. However, her medical notes indicate a previous penicillin allergy. What would be an appropriate antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Penicillin V remains the preferred antibiotic for treating sore throat due to its effectiveness, affordability, safety, and narrow spectrum. This helps prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. However, individuals who are allergic to penicillin should take either erythromycin or clarithromycin for five days. The clinical knowledge summaries website provides evidence-based recommendations for antibiotic selection, drawing from guidance from SIGN, Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health, and Public Health England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 39
Correct
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Liam is a 2-day old boy who was born with a pale pink patch on the back of his neck. It has an irregular edge and is more visible when he cries. It was noted to blanch with pressure.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own without treatment. These birthmarks are often found in symmetrical patterns on the forehead, eyelids, or nape of the neck.
Cafe-au-lait spots are another type of birthmark that appear as brown patches on the skin. While they are common, they can sometimes be a sign of an underlying medical condition.
Cherry angiomas are small, red bumps that tend to develop later in life.
Port-wine stains are a rare type of birthmark that can darken over time and are often asymmetrical in appearance.
Strawberry naevi are raised, red lesions that typically appear within the first few weeks of life.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she may be at risk of ovarian cancer.
Her 52-year-old maternal cousin has just been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Her mother also recently passed away with ovarian cancer, which she contracted aged 77. Her paternal uncle died of lung cancer in his 60s.
What should you do?Your Answer: Refer to specialist genetics clinic
Explanation:Key Points for Referring Women for Genetic Counselling
When it comes to referring women for genetic counselling, there are a few key points to keep in mind. While you don’t need to know all the details, it’s important to know when to refer. One crucial learning point is that women should be referred if they have two relatives with ovarian cancer on the same side of the family, regardless of age.
If a woman’s mother had breast cancer instead of ovarian cancer, the age of diagnosis would be a factor in determining whether she should be referred. Guidelines suggest that if the mother was diagnosed with breast cancer before the age of 50, the daughter should be referred to a specialist genetics clinic.
Other guidelines from NICE and SIGN provide additional criteria for referral, such as a family history of breast or colon cancer. However, annual examinations for breast or ovarian cancer are not recommended, and CA125 testing is not currently suggested for asymptomatic patients.
It’s important to provide women with advice on ovarian cancer symptoms so they can seek medical attention early if needed. But ultimately, a specialist genetics service assessment is the best way to determine if genetic counselling is necessary. By keeping these key points in mind, healthcare providers can ensure that women receive the appropriate care and support for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision is made to perform a PSA test. He is a regular gym-goer and exercises daily. What is the recommended duration for him to abstain from intense exercise before taking the PSA test?
Your Answer: 48 hours
Correct Answer: 1 week
Explanation:Factors that can affect PSA levels
PSA testing is a common method used to screen for prostate cancer. However, there are several factors that can increase PSA levels, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary biopsies. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of these factors before undergoing a PSA test.
Firstly, men should not have a PSA test if they have an active urinary infection, as this can cause inflammation and increase PSA levels. Additionally, if a man has had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks, this can also cause an increase in PSA levels and should be avoided.
Furthermore, vigorous exercise in the last 48 hours or ejaculation in the last 48 hours can also affect PSA levels. This is because physical activity and sexual activity can cause temporary inflammation in the prostate gland, leading to an increase in PSA levels.
In conclusion, men should be counselled on these factors prior to undergoing a PSA test to ensure accurate results and avoid unnecessary procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.
She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.
Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.
The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and has tested positive for a BRCA1 mutation on genetic screening. Her mother and aunt both received treatment for breast cancer at a young age, indicating a strong family history of the disease.
The woman is worried that she may have passed the gene onto her son and daughter, and is also concerned that her sister may have inherited the gene.
During counselling, what is the most appropriate statement to make regarding the risk of her family members inheriting the BRCA1 gene?Your Answer: Both children and her sister have a 100% chance of inheriting the gene
Correct Answer: Both children and her sister have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene
Explanation:Breast Cancer Risk Factors
Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women worldwide. There are several factors that can increase a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer. One of the most significant predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes, which can increase a woman’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation exposure, p53 gene mutations, and obesity. Additionally, previous surgery for benign disease may increase the risk of breast cancer due to the possibility of scar tissue hiding a lump. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A teenager is brought to the General Practitioner by his mother for a check-up. She states that a relative has recently been diagnosed with fragile X syndrome and she asks whether her son is likely to have the same condition.
Which of the following is most likely to first lead to a suspicion of this condition in this patient?Your Answer: Craniofacial appearance
Correct Answer: Delayed developmental milestones
Explanation:Understanding Fragile X Syndrome: Symptoms and Prevalence
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that affects intellectual development, particularly in boys. It is caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome and is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. A UK screening study estimated a prevalence of 2.3/10,000 in the population.
Symptoms of fragile X syndrome can be difficult to diagnose in infancy, but delays in gross motor development and speech and language skills are common. Autism is also frequently diagnosed in patients with fragile X syndrome. In later childhood, affected males may have a distinct craniofacial appearance and learning difficulties may become more apparent in school. Seizures are also a common symptom, particularly in male patients.
Early diagnosis and DNA testing can confirm the presence of fragile X syndrome. Understanding the symptoms and prevalence of this condition can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 45
Correct
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During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which ligament is most commonly torn?
Your Answer: Medial collateral
Explanation:Common Knee Injuries and Diagnostic Tests
Knee injuries are common among young athletes participating in sports that involve aggressive knee flexion. Of all knee injuries, those to the medial side are the most frequent. Symptoms include pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the knee joint, instability with side-to-side movement, and tenderness along the course of the medial collateral ligament. Medial collateral ligament injuries often occur in association with cruciate and meniscal injuries, which should be excluded.
The valgus stress test is a diagnostic test used to measure the amount of joint-line opening of the medial compartment of the knee when a valgus stress is applied at the ankle. A proficient tester may be able to quantify the amount of joint-line opening to determine the severity of the tear of the medial collateral complex of ligaments.
Other knee injuries include anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, patellar, and posterior cruciate injuries. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, non-contact deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Lateral collateral ligament injuries may be due to a direct blow to the medial aspect of the knee or a varus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures are relatively infrequent and often the result of chronic tendon degeneration or sudden contraction of the quadriceps. Posterior cruciate injuries are most often due to hyperflexion, such as from a fall on a flexed knee or a car accident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 46
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nosebleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 as her only regular medication. A full blood count is ordered and the results are as follows: Hb 11.7 g/dl, platelets 62 * 109/l, WCC 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks platelets, leading to a reduction in their count. This condition is more common in older females and tends to be chronic in adults. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation. ITP is usually detected incidentally during routine blood tests.
Diagnosis of ITP is based on a full blood count, which shows isolated thrombocytopenia, and a blood film. A bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, and antiplatelet antibody testing has poor sensitivity and doesn’t affect clinical management.
The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, which is effective in most cases. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used, especially if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. IVIG raises the platelet count quicker than steroids. Splenectomy, which used to be a common treatment for ITP, is now less commonly used.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), a condition known as Evan’s syndrome. In such cases, treatment may involve addressing both conditions simultaneously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 48
Correct
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You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?
Your Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm
Explanation:Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is worried about passing on his genetic condition to his unborn son. Which genetic disorder is most likely to be inherited by a male child?
Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns of Common Conditions
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing on the condition to both sons and daughters. A person with the condition has one mutant gene and one normal gene or two mutant genes on a pair of autosomal chromosomes.
Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition, which means that a man with cystic fibrosis could have an affected son if his partner is a carrier. However, men with cystic fibrosis are almost always infertile due to congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens.
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an X-linked condition, which means that none of the sons of an affected man will be affected or be carriers, whereas all his daughters will be carriers and at risk of having affected sons. Affected people usually die in their twenties or thirties.
Haemophilia A is also an X-linked condition, where sons will be unaffected and daughters will be carriers.
Phenylketonuria is autosomal recessive, so the man could have an affected son if his wife is a carrier. However, it is much less common than familial hypercholesterolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 50
Correct
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A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 days. He reports that his toe is swollen and red, and he has never experienced this before. A friend suggested that he may be suffering from gout and he has come to ask if you can prescribe him with something stronger than paracetamol.
The patient's medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and atrial fibrillation, and he currently takes atorvastatin and amiodarone. He is also intolerant to opioids. Based on this information, what medication would you safely recommend for this patient?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gout
Gout is a painful condition that can be effectively treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets or colchicine. However, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history and current medications before choosing a treatment option.
Piroxicam, while effective, has a high risk of gastro-intestinal side effects and should not be the first choice. Codeine, an opioid, should be avoided if the patient is intolerant to this class of drugs. Allopurinol is typically used as prophylaxis rather than for acute attacks.
Colchicine is a good choice for treating gout, but patients on statins have an increased risk of myopathy when given colchicine, and patients on amiodarone have a possible increased risk of colchicine toxicity. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors before prescribing colchicine.
Prednisolone is not a first-line option for uncomplicated cases of acute gout. Overall, the choice of treatment for gout should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and current medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 51
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?
Your Answer: Recurrence after excision is common
Explanation:Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts
Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:
Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.
They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.
Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.
They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.
They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.
In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 53
Correct
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A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the female partner is 33-years-old. They have no children and she has never been pregnant before. They have been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse.
The male partner is in good health with no significant medical history or testicular problems. He doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and has a body mass index of 23.5 kg/m2. The female partner has regular periods every four weeks and bleeds for four to five days with each period. She has no significant menstrual issues or vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her periods have always been light and regular. She has no other significant medical history and is a non-smoker, non-alcohol drinker, with a body mass index of 24.1 kg/m2. Neither of them take any regular medications.
They have returned to seek further advice after initial investigations were conducted.
It is noted that she had blood tests for FSH, LH, prolactin, TFTs and a day 21 progesterone, all of which were normal. High vaginal swabs were normal. She also underwent an open access hysterosalpingogram which was normal. His semen analysis was normal.
What is the most appropriate management advice to provide at this stage?Your Answer: They should be referred to a secondary care infertility clinic if they have not conceived after a year of trying
Explanation:Infertility Management and Referral Criteria
Infertility is a common issue that affects many couples. According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if a couple has been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse for one year and are without comorbidities that affect fertility, investigation into the cause of infertility should be initiated. If no cause is found, the couple should be referred for specialist input.
The referral criteria for infertility may vary between health authorities, so it is important to refer to local guidelines. However, in general, if the woman is younger than 36 years and history, examination, and investigations are normal in both partners, referral should be considered if the couple has not conceived after one year. If the woman is aged 36 years or older, referral should be considered after six months. Earlier referral may be necessary if there is a known cause for infertility, a history of factors that predispose to infertility, or if treatment is planned that may result in infertility.
It is important to ensure that the couple has been offered counselling before, during, and after investigation and treatment, regardless of the outcome. Infertility and its investigation and treatment can cause psychological stress, and infertility counsellors are provided by all licensed clinics in the UK through the British Infertility Counselling Association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination, the GP observes truncal obesity, skin striae, and extensive bruising on her arms. The GP suspects Cushing syndrome.
What is the most probable cause of Cushing syndrome in this patient? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Adrenal adenoma
Correct Answer: She is taking steroids
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by an abnormally high level of cortisol in the body, leading to various symptoms such as thin skin, easy bruising, osteoporosis, central obesity, hypertension, muscle wasting, fatigue, and diabetes. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is the use of exogenous glucocorticoids, which are prescribed for respiratory, oncological, and rheumatological conditions. Endogenous causes, which are rare, can be corticotropin-dependent or corticotropin-independent. Corticotropin-independent causes are usually due to a unilateral tumour, such as an adrenal adenoma, while corticotropin-dependent causes are often caused by a pituitary adenoma, known as Cushing’s disease. In rare cases, patients may develop tumours that secrete ectopic corticotropin, such as small-cell lung cancer. Understanding the various causes of Cushing syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 55
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.
During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 56
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his face, which has been going on for 2 months. In addition, he complains of a buzzing sound in his right ear and right-sided hearing loss. Two weeks earlier he also complained of numbness in his face, but the doctor who saw him then was unable to find any abnormal signs. When you see him, he is in pain. He does appear to have hearing loss and a reduced corneal reflex on the right, but nothing else.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Distinguishing between Trigeminal Neuralgia and Acoustic Neuroma: A Clinical Overview
When presented with facial numbness and a diminished corneal reflex, a structural lesion is highly suspected, rather than trigeminal neuralgia. While tinnitus and hearing loss may be present in both conditions, the latter favors a structural lesion. Brainstem plaques and acoustic neuromas can mimic trigeminal neuralgia symptoms, but sensorineural hearing loss is more indicative of a structural lesion. Acoustic neuromas are typically benign and slow-growing, but can cause symptoms through mass effect and pressure on local structures. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing, recurrent pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the Vth cranial nerve. Ménière’s disease and viral labyrinthitis may also cause hearing loss, but vertigo is the most prominent symptom. While the age of presentation may slightly favor a diagnosis of acoustic neuroma over multiple sclerosis, the vast majority of cases are never diagnosed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)?
Your Answer: Patients have good insight
Correct Answer: The onset is usually after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Obsessional Neurosis and Obsessional Compulsive Disorder
Obsessional neurosis is a mental health condition characterized by repetitive rituals, persistent fears, and disturbing thoughts. Patients with this disorder maintain insight and often find the illness distressing, which can lead to depression. On the other hand, obsessional compulsive disorder typically starts in early adulthood and has equal sex incidence. Patients with this disorder have above-average intelligence.
It is important to note that Sigmund Freud’s theory that obsessive-compulsive symptoms were caused by rigid toilet-training practices is no longer widely accepted. Despite this, understanding these disorders and their symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of these disorders, individuals can work towards managing their symptoms and improving their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 58
Correct
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A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A mother attends with her 4-year-old son and is anxious because she is going away for a week’s holiday on the next day. She wonders how soon her son will develop symptoms.
Select from the list the option within which the incubation period for Chickenpox lies.Your Answer: Medium (7-21 days)
Explanation:Understanding Incubation Periods and Latent Periods in Diseases
Incubation period refers to the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism and the onset of symptoms. This period can range from minutes to even 30 years, depending on the disease. Latent period, on the other hand, is the time from infection to infectiousness. While the two terms may be synonymous, a distinction is sometimes made between them.
Examples of diseases with short incubation periods include norovirus, influenza, and scarlet fever. Diseases with medium incubation periods include roseola, measles, and pertussis. Mumps, erythema infectiosum, and rubella have long incubation periods, while infectious mononucleosis and hepatitis A have extra-long incubation periods. Hepatitis B has an incubation period greater than six weeks.
Clinical latency occurs in diseases like AIDS, where people infected with HIV may not show any symptoms or signs of AIDS despite having a large viral load. It is important to understand incubation and latent periods in diseases to prevent their spread and manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 1 year, with AEDs being stopped over 8-12 months
Correct Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 2 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months
Explanation:The 2004 NICE guidelines recommend that the process be carried out with the assistance of a specialist and that benzodiazepine withdrawal should be conducted over an extended period.
Treatment Options for Epilepsy
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.
It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.
It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?
Your Answer: Transplantation can only occur if the donor and recipient are human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-compatible
Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation
Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:
– The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
– HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
– Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
– Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
– Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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