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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Tobacco
Explanation:Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study
A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.
While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.
Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents requesting contraception to a general practice.
Which one of these statements is true with respect to condoms?Your Answer: Condoms pre-lubricated with spermicide are not recommended
Correct Answer: Condoms can be prescribed on a GP prescription
Explanation:Condoms in General Practice
Condoms cannot be prescribed in general practice in the UK, but local Clinical Commissioning Groups (CCGs) may have other arrangements for condom supplies. It is important to note that condoms pre-lubricated with spermicide are not recommended as they may increase the risk of HIV transmission. However, condoms in general do help prevent HIV transmission. It is also important to understand that condoms are not as effective at preventing pregnancy as hormonal and intrauterine methods. Condoms are typically made of either latex or polyurethane, and individuals with a latex allergy should stick to polyurethane condoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the Emergency Department because of tremor, agitation, confusion, visual and auditory hallucinations, fever, sweating, and tachycardia and hypertension. His partner reports that he has not had any alcohol for about four days.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Alcohol Withdrawal and Related Complications
Alcohol withdrawal can lead to various complications, including delirium tremens, major alcohol withdrawal symptoms (hallucinosis), Korsakoff psychosis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Delirium tremens is the most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, characterized by agitation, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, fever, hypertension, perspiration, and autonomic hyperactivity. Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms, also known as alcoholic hallucinosis, include visual and auditory hallucinations, whole body tremor, vomiting, perspiration, and hypertension. Korsakoff psychosis is a permanent brain damage caused by untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is a neuropsychiatric complication resulting from thiamine deficiency that occurs frequently in people with chronic alcohol dependence. It is crucial to have a high index of suspicion for Wernicke’s encephalopathy as the classic triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia is only present in about 10% of cases. While some of these features may be present in a patient with pneumonia, a cough and chest signs are typically present in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Correct
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You are assessing a 16-month-old boy with croup. What sign should indicate the need for referral to a hospital for further evaluation?
Your Answer: Audible stridor at rest
Explanation:Admission is recommended for patients with croup who exhibit audible stridor at rest. For further information, please refer to the guidelines provided by Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.
How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?Your Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions
Explanation:Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.
Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.
One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.
As part of his assessment you discuss his symptoms. He tells you that he can walk around without any problems on level ground but if he has to hurry or walk up an incline then he becomes breathless and has to stop to catch his breath.
How would you grade his degree of breathlessness according to the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale?Your Answer: Grade 2
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:The Importance of Grading Patients’ Symptoms
Grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of assessing disease severity, tailoring treatment, and monitoring treatment effect. One useful tool for this purpose is the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale, which has been introduced as part of the quality and outcomes framework in General practice. As part of the COPD assessment, it is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes.
The MRC dyspnoea scale grades the degree of breathlessness related to activities. The scale ranges from grade 0, where the patient is not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise, to grade 4, where the patient is too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing or undressing. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of a patient’s symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly. It is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes to monitor treatment effect and adjust treatment plans as necessary. Overall, grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of providing effective healthcare and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?
Your Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs
Explanation:Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Refer to general surgeons
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease
A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent endoscopy (within two weeks)
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known complication of coeliac disease in children?
Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer
Correct Answer: Hypersplenism
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with hypo-, rather than hypersplenism.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.
Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?Your Answer: Serial peak flow measurements
Explanation:Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma
Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).
Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 57-year-old caucasian woman is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension. Baseline investigations do not reveal evidence of end-organ damage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes apixaban. Her ECG is normal. Her QRISK3 score is calculated as 12.4%. She has no known drug allergies. Lifestyle advice is given and appropriate follow-up is scheduled. What is the most effective supplementary treatment choice?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin and amlodipine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, patients who are aged 55 years or over and do not have type 2 diabetes or are of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and do not have type 2 diabetes (of any age) should be prescribed calcium-channel blockers as the first-line treatment for hypertension. In addition, this patient requires a statin for primary cardiovascular disease prevention.
Amlodipine alone is not sufficient as she requires both an antihypertensive agent and lipid-lowering therapy.
Atorvastatin and indapamide (a thiazide-like diuretic) is not the best option as indapamide is only recommended as a second-line antihypertensive agent if a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated, not suitable or not tolerated.
Atorvastatin and ramipril is also not the best option as ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists) are first-line for patients under the age of 55 and not of black African or African-Caribbean family origin, or those with type 2 diabetes (irrespective of age or family origin).
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A woman in her third trimester is seeking guidance on air travel. What is the maximum time during her pregnancy that she can fly, assuming there are no complications and the estimated delivery date remains unchanged?
Your Answer: 36 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women with a singleton pregnancy are deemed fit to fly up to 36 weeks.
The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Correct
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Which one of the following is a recognized indication for the application of Botulinum toxin?
Your Answer: Blepharospasm
Explanation:Medical Uses of Botulinum Toxin
Botulinum toxin, commonly known as Botox, is not just used for cosmetic purposes. There are several licensed indications for its use in medical treatments. These include blepharospasm, hemifacial spasm, focal spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy, hand and wrist disability associated with stroke, spasmodic torticollis, severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae, and achalasia.
Blepharospasm is a condition where the eyelids twitch uncontrollably, while hemifacial spasm is a similar condition that affects one side of the face. Focal spasticity is a condition where certain muscles become stiff and difficult to move, often due to damage to the brain or spinal cord. Botulinum toxin can help relax these muscles and improve mobility.
Spasmodic torticollis is a condition where the neck muscles contract involuntarily, causing the head to twist or turn to one side. Severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae is excessive sweating in the armpits, which can be embarrassing and uncomfortable. Achalasia is a condition where the muscles in the esophagus do not work properly, making it difficult to swallow.
In all of these cases, botulinum toxin can be a useful treatment option. It works by blocking the signals that cause muscles to contract, leading to temporary muscle relaxation. While it is important to use botulinum toxin under the guidance of a medical professional, it can be a safe and effective treatment for a range of conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Correct
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You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for one of their residents which has confirmed the presence of Trichophyton rubrum. The patient is an 80-year-old woman with vascular dementia, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and ischaemic heart disease.
The nail clippings had been sent because of dystrophy of the left hallux nail and 2nd toenail on one foot. You decide that topical treatment would be more appropriate than oral treatment to reduce the risk of side effects and issue a prescription for topical amorolfine. You advise the nurse this should be applied twice a week, and that her nails should be clipped short regularly.
What other advice should you give regarding the treatment?Your Answer: Treatment may need to be continued for up to a year
Explanation:Topical treatment for fungal toenail infection may require a duration of up to 12 months. Patients should be advised to wear clean socks and shoes made of breathable fabrics like cotton, instead of synthetic fabric. Terbinafine, an oral antifungal, may cause taste disturbance as a known side effect. It is important to inform patients that the treatment course for fungal toenail infection may last for 3-6 months for oral antifungal treatment and 9-12 months for topical amorolfine. Some Clinical Commissioning Groups may require patients to purchase their own treatments for minor ailments that are available without a prescription.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 4-year-old child who has been brought back to the clinic one afternoon having been seen by a colleague in the morning.
You review the notes from this morning's consultation which show that the child presented with a fever and malaise and that a suspected viral infection was diagnosed and advice given accordingly. The mother reports that the child has become increasingly drowsy and hasn't really drunk anything since being seen earlier. Despite regular paracetamol a fever has persisted.
You examine the child who is clearly lethargic. Tympanic temperature is 38.1°C. The child is undressed and you find several non-blanching spots on the lower legs.
The clinical record states that the child is allergic to penicillin; you ask the mother who says that when he was given it in the past for a sore throat he came out in a rash on his trunk which resolved when the antibiotics were stopped.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment to institute acutely in the community?Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Management of Suspected Meningococcal Septicaemia in Children
When a child presents with suspected meningococcal septicaemia, it is crucial to note the presence of a non-blanching rash. Immediate administration of parenteral antibiotics is necessary, and it will not delay hospital transfer. In such cases, calling a 999 ambulance and administering antibiotics in the interim is recommended.
Benzylpenicillin can be given intramuscularly or intravenously, except in children with a clear history of anaphylaxis after a previous dose. A history of rash following penicillin use is not a contraindication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Correct
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An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He has been experiencing this for quite some time and had to give up driving a few months ago as he felt it was no longer safe.
Regarding the registration of sight impairment, who is authorized to issue a certificate of vision impairment?Your Answer: Consultant ophthalmologist
Explanation:Registration for People with Sight Impairment
Registration for people with sight impairment is not mandatory, but it provides access to benefits and low vision services. To complete the registration process, a consultant ophthalmologist must fill out a certificate of vision impairment. There are two categories for registration: severely sight-impaired (blind) and sight-impaired/partially sighted. The severely sight-impaired category includes people with corrected visual acuity worse than 3/60 or corrected visual acuity of 3/60 to 6/60 with a contracted field of vision. It also includes people with corrected visual acuity of 6/60 or better who have a contracted field of vision, especially if it is in the lower part of the field. The sight-impaired/partially sighted category includes any person who is substantially and permanently handicapped by defective vision caused by a congenital defect, illness, or injury.
For more information on registering for sight impairment as a disability, visit the .Gov website or the RNIB website. Additionally, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists has published a guide on low vision that may be of general interest to healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with a red eye. He complains of a one day history of a painful 'ache' in his right eye and that his vision has become blurry.
He is systemically well and has no significant ocular past medical history. His last optician check was eight months ago and he tells you that he was advised his vision was good and there were no issues.
On examination he has an obvious red right eye. Visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/60 in the right eye. The right eye is markedly photophobic and watery.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Refer immediately to eye casualty
Explanation:Acute Uveitis: A Medical Emergency
The main issue at hand is the presence of an acute red eye with a significant reduction in visual acuity. Regardless of any other symptoms or diagnosis, this requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. Acute uveitis is a possible diagnosis in this scenario, with patients over 20 years of age being affected in 90% of cases, with a mean age of onset at 40 years.
It is important to note that the major histocompatibility complex antigen HLA-B27 is positive in approximately 50% of all patients with uveitis, and should be considered in cases where there are co-existing conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and reactive arthritis.
According to the College of Optometrists, onset of acute uveitis is usually sudden at the first episode and gradual at subsequent episodes. It is typically unilateral, and if bilateral, it is more likely to be associated with systemic disease and more likely to become chronic. The main symptoms include pain (dull/ache), exacerbated on induced pupillary constriction (direct, near, or consensual), photophobia, redness, decreased vision, and lacrimation. It is important to note that if the condition is recurrent, the eye may be asymptomatic and white despite the presence of inflammation.
In summary, acute uveitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate referral for assessment in eye casualty. It is important to consider co-existing conditions and to be aware of the main symptoms associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Correct
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A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits her General Practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. She also complains of stiffness in her shoulders, hips and knees.
What diagnosis best fits with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Shoulder Pain, and Flexor Tenosynovitis
Dialysis Amyloidosis: A Likely Diagnosis
The patient in question has been undergoing dialysis therapy for six years, which puts them at risk for dialysis amyloidosis. This condition occurs due to the accumulation of beta-2-microglobulin (B2M) in the body, which is not effectively cleared during dialysis. Symptoms of B2M amyloidosis typically appear after five years of dialysis therapy and often present as a triad of carpal tunnel syndrome, shoulder pain, and flexor tenosynovitis in the hands. The presence of all three symptoms in this patient strongly supports a diagnosis of dialysis amyloidosis.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible diagnosis due to joint pain and stiffness, but the absence of joint swelling makes it less likely. Diabetic neuropathy can cause sensory and motor neuropathies, but the joint symptoms in this patient do not support this diagnosis. Seronegative arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of joint swelling, and it doesn’t account for the neuropathic symptoms seen in this patient. Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, but the presence of joint symptoms in this patient doesn’t support a diagnosis of neuropathy.
Conclusion
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, dialysis amyloidosis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and rule out other possible conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You encounter a 27-year-old woman who wishes to discuss her contraceptive options. She has had difficulty finding a suitable pill and is considering a coil. She has no immediate plans for pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. She experiences heavy and painful periods and is concerned about the possibility of a coil exacerbating her symptoms. She has heard about the Mirena® intrauterine system from a friend but is curious about the new Kyleena® coil and how it compares to the Mirena®.
What advice should you provide to this individual?Your Answer: The Kyleena® is only licensed for heavy menstrual bleeding
Correct Answer: The rate of amenorrhoea is likely to be less with the Kyleena® than the Mirena®
Explanation:Compared to the Mirena IUS, the Kyleena IUS has a lower rate of amenorrhoea. The Kyleena IUS is a newly licensed contraceptive that contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel and can be used for up to 5 years. However, it is not licensed for managing heavy menstrual bleeding or providing endometrial protection as part of hormonal replacement therapy, unlike the Mirena IUS. The Kyleena IUS is smaller in size than the Mirena coil, and the Jaydess IUS contains the least amount of LNG at 13.5mg but is only licensed for 3 years. While the lower LNG in the Kyleena IUS may result in a higher number of bleeding/spotting days, overall, the number of such days is likely to be lower than other doses of LNG-IUS. Women may prefer the Kyleena IUS over the Mirena IUS due to its lower systemic levonorgestrel levels.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Correct
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
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A 10-year-old girl is struggling with reading and it is suspected that she may have dyslexia. Which of the following characteristics is NOT typically linked to a diagnosis of dyslexia?
Your Answer: Low intelligence
Explanation:Understanding Dyslexia: A Reading Disorder with Developmental Implications
Dyslexia is a reading disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by an unexpected difficulty in learning to read despite adequate intelligence, motivation, and educational opportunities. While low intelligence can cause reading difficulties, dyslexia requires a reading ability that is substantially below what is expected for the person’s age and measured intelligence. It is estimated that 4% of the population has severe dyslexia, while an additional 6% have mild to moderate dyslexia.
Children with dyslexia may also experience developmental problems with expressive language, receptive language, or both. Additionally, about half of those with dyslexia also have dyscalculia, which is difficulty acquiring arithmetical skills. Children with a reading disorder are twice as likely as other children to have ADHD, and children with ADHD are twice as likely to have a reading disorder. Dyspraxia, which is difficulty in activities requiring coordination and movement, is also more common in children with dyslexia.
Overall, understanding dyslexia is crucial for identifying and addressing the developmental implications that come with this reading disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 24
Correct
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A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning. The symptoms have since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal Detachment: A Time-Critical Eye Emergency
Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be associated with various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies that require immediate medical attention.
Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?
Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control
The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?
Your Answer: Measles
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?
Your Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis
Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy
Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.
It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain. During the examination, the doctor notices a tender, oedematous, purplish subcutaneous perianal lump.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoids
Explanation:The posterior midline is where anal fissures, hemorrhoids, and pilonidal sinuses are commonly found. Genital warts, on the other hand, are small fleshy growths that are slightly pigmented and may cause itching or bleeding. These warts are usually caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Pilonidal sinus, which is characterized by cycles of pain and discharge, is caused by hair debris creating sinuses in the skin. If the sinus is located near the anus, it may cause anal pain.
Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that doesn't affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities.
What is the most precise diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis of this woman?Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA
Explanation:A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?
Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:The following are X-linked conditions: Duchenne/Becker, haemophilia, and G6PD.
X-Linked Recessive Conditions: Inherited Disorders with Varying Patterns
X-linked recessive conditions are genetic disorders that are inherited in a specific manner. These conditions are caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. As a result, these conditions are more common in males than in females, as males only have one X chromosome while females have two.
Some of the most well-known X-linked recessive conditions include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophilia A and B, and colour blindness. Other conditions such as Fabry’s disease, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome are also inherited in this manner.
It is important to note that some diseases have varying patterns of inheritance, with the majority being in an X-linked recessive fashion. For example, chronic granulomatous disease is inherited in over 70% of cases in an X-linked recessive manner. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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