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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of her right arm. She denies any pain or previous shoulder issues and has not experienced any trauma. During examination, her passive range of motion is normal, but she is unable to begin abduction from a neutral position. However, if she uses her left arm to lift her right arm to approximately 15 degrees, she is then able to continue abduction without difficulty. Which muscle is responsible for initiating shoulder abduction?

      Your Answer: Deltoid

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for starting the process of lifting the arm away from the body, up to a point of about 15 degrees. After this point, the Deltoid muscle takes over as the primary muscle responsible for continuing the arm’s upward movement. When the arm is lifted beyond 90 degrees, the Trapezius muscle comes into play, elevating the shoulder and rotating the scapula. Finally, the Infraspinatus muscle is responsible for producing lateral rotation of the arm at the shoulder.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old male is brought to the emergency room by the police. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male is brought to the emergency room by the police. He has a two-day history of increasing confusion, sweats, and aggression. He resides in a homeless hostel and has a history of alcohol abuse. However, he claims to have stopped drinking since being at the hostel in the last week.

      Upon examination, he appears markedly agitated, sweaty, and confused. He reports seeing things on the wall. Additionally, he exhibits slightly hyperreflexia and flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP due to frequent chest infections and inadequate...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP due to frequent chest infections and inadequate growth and weight gain. The GP refers her to a paediatric clinic where she undergoes additional tests, including a genetic test to screen for cystic fibrosis by detecting mutations in the CFTR gene. The results reveal a mutation in which a stop codon replaces arginine. What is the term for this type of mutation?

      Your Answer: Frameshift mutation

      Correct Answer: Nonsense mutation

      Explanation:

      Single base mutations can have various effects on the structure and function of the transcribed protein, potentially leading to pathology such as the inactivation of tumour suppressor genes. However, some amino acid changes may not affect protein function and can be considered neutral.

      When a single base mutation occurs and the resulting codon still codes for the same amino acid, it is known as a silent mutation. This is possible due to the degeneracy of the genetic code. In this case, the protein is still translated without any downstream effects on processing or phenotype.

      On the other hand, a synonymous mutation also does not alter the amino acid, but it can cause changes in downstream processing or phenotype of the gene. Examples of conditions caused by this type of mutation include Phenylketonuria and von Hippel-Lindau disease.

      Types of DNA Mutations

      There are different types of DNA mutations that can occur in an organism’s genetic material. One type is called a silent mutation, which does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein. This type of mutation often occurs in the third position of a codon, where the change in the DNA base does not affect the final amino acid produced.

      Another type of mutation is called a nonsense mutation, which results in the formation of a stop codon. This means that the protein being produced is truncated and may not function properly.

      A missense mutation is a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence of a protein. This can have significant effects on the protein’s function, as the altered amino acid may not be able to perform its intended role.

      Finally, a frameshift mutation occurs when a number of nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA sequence. This can cause a shift in the reading frame of the DNA, resulting in a completely different amino acid sequence downstream. These mutations can have serious consequences for the organism, as the resulting protein may be non-functional or even harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer: Median and musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation

      The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal...

    Correct

    • An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with perforated diverticulitis.

      What group of bacteria is expected to be detected on a blood culture obtained from this elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative bacilli

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative rods are typically responsible for surgical infections that originate from the gut, which occur as a result of bacterial translocation from gut contents.

      Overview of Surgical Microbiology

      Surgical microbiology is a vast topic that covers various organisms causing common surgical infections. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that is a common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses. It is ideally treated with penicillin, but many strains have become resistant through beta-lactamase production. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that produces beta haemolysis on blood agar plates. It releases virulence factors into the host, resulting in rapid tissue destruction. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that produces lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome. It is resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram-positive infections and acquires resistance rapidly. Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, gram-negative, non-sporulating bacteria that is one of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide. Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative, helix-shaped rod that colonises the gastric antrum and irritates, resulting in increased gastrin release and higher levels of gastric acid.

      In summary, surgical microbiology covers a wide range of organisms that can cause infections. It is essential to understand the characteristics of these organisms to diagnose and treat infections effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the primary location for haematopoiesis during the first and second trimesters...

    Correct

    • What is the primary location for haematopoiesis during the first and second trimesters of foetal development?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Development of Haematopoiesis in the Foetus

      The development of haematopoiesis in the foetus is a complex process that involves several organs. Initially, the yolk sac is the primary site of haematopoiesis until around two months gestation when the liver takes over. The liver remains the most important site of haematopoiesis until about month seven when the bone marrow becomes the predominant site throughout life.

      After the age of 20, haematopoiesis occurs mainly in the proximal bones, with production in the distal lone bones decreasing. However, in certain disease states such as β-thalassaemia, haematopoiesis can occur outside of the bone marrow, known as extra-medullary haematopoiesis. the development of haematopoiesis in the foetus is important for identifying potential abnormalities and diseases that may arise during this process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 61-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset double vision. During the examination, you observe that his right eye is in a 'down and out' position. You suspect that he may be experiencing a third nerve palsy.

      What is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery stroke

      Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      A possible cause of the patient’s third nerve palsy is an aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery. However, diabetes insipidus is not related to this condition, while diabetes mellitus may be a contributing factor. Nystagmus is a common symptom of lateral medullary syndrome, while lateral pontine syndrome may cause facial paralysis and deafness on the same side of the body. A stroke in the middle cerebral artery can result in sensory loss and weakness on the opposite side of the body.

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the omohyoid and digastric muscles. During surgery to explore the injury, a nerve injury is discovered just above the lingual artery where it branches off from the external carotid artery. What is the most probable outcome of this injury?

      Your Answer: Paralysis of the ipsilateral side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is located posterior to the hypoglossal nerve, while the lingual arterial branch is situated below it. In case of damage to the nerve, the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles on the same side will become paralyzed. When the patient is instructed to stick out their tongue, it will deviate towards the affected side.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt vertigo, accompanied by...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt vertigo, accompanied by right-sided facial paralysis and hearing loss. All four limbs' motor function and vision are intact. You suspect a stroke diagnosis. Which vessel's stroke would best account for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the anterior inferior cerebellar artery. This artery can cause sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, as well as ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness, which are all symptoms mentioned in the question. The fact that the patient has right-sided facial paralysis indicates that the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery is affected.

      The anterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer. This artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, but the patient in the question has intact motor function in all four limbs.

      The basilar artery is also not the correct answer. Strokes affecting this artery can cause ‘locked-in’ syndrome, which is characterized by complete paralysis of voluntary muscles except for those controlling eye movement. However, the patient in the question has intact motor function in all limbs.

      The posterior cerebral artery is also not the correct answer. Strokes affecting this artery can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia, but the patient in the question has intact vision.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the primary function of zinc in the human body? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of zinc in the human body?

      Your Answer: Regulation of magnesium homeostasis

      Correct Answer: Antioxidant function

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Zinc in the Body

      Zinc is a vital mineral that plays various roles in the body. One of its essential functions is acting as an antioxidant, where it forms part of an enzyme complex that protects cell membranes from free radical damage. Additionally, zinc is involved in many enzyme reactions, including the production of hormones, DNA replication, and neurotransmitter metabolism. It also helps protect the body from toxins, heavy metals, and radiation.

      Furthermore, zinc is crucial in maintaining a healthy immune system, as it plays a role in both the antibody and cell-mediated immune responses. Unfortunately, zinc deficiency is relatively common among certain groups, such as women, children, the elderly, and pregnant patients. Vegetarians and chronic dieters may also experience mild zinc deficiency.

      To ensure adequate zinc intake, it is recommended to consume foods rich in zinc, such as liver, peas, pulses, meat, and wholemeal bread. By maintaining sufficient levels of zinc in the body, individuals can support their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 71-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe back pain...

    Correct

    • An 71-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe back pain that started 2 hours ago. The pain is radiating from his flank to his groin and comes and goes in waves. He had a kidney stone 2 months ago. A CT scan reveals a hyperdense calculus in his left ureter. His serum calcium level is 2.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.6) and his urine calcium level is 9.2 mmol/24hours (normal range: 2.5-7.5). What medication is the most appropriate to reduce the risk of further renal stones?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, specifically bendroflumethiazide, can be used to decrease calcium excretion and stone formation in patients with hypercalciuria and renal stones. The patient’s urinary calcium levels indicate hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Bumetanide and furosemide, both loop diuretics, are not effective in managing hypercalciuria and renal stones. Denosumab, an antibody used for hypercalcaemia associated with malignancy, is not used in the management of renal stones.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset left-sided foot...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset left-sided foot and leg weakness and sensory loss. According to his wife, he stumbled and fell while they were out for dinner. Imaging results indicate an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery (ACA).

      Which lobes of the brain are expected to be impacted the most?

      Your Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The anterior cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes. While this type of stroke is uncommon and may be challenging to diagnose through clinical means, imaging techniques can reveal affected vessels or brain regions. Damage to the frontal and parietal lobes can result in significant mood, personality, and movement disorders.

      It’s important to note that the occipital lobe and cerebellum receive their blood supply from the posterior cerebral artery and cerebellar arteries (which originate from the basilar and vertebral arteries), respectively. Therefore, they would not be impacted by an ACA stroke. Similarly, the middle cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to the temporal lobe, so damage to the ACA would not affect this area.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 8-year-old girl comes to the doctor complaining of leg pains. She cries...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl comes to the doctor complaining of leg pains. She cries at night and her mother has to massage the painful areas to soothe her. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pains

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Limb Pains in Children

      Idiopathic limb pains, also known as growing pains, are a common occurrence in children between the ages of 3 and 9. These pains typically occur in the lower limbs and can be quickly settled with comforting. It is important to note that these pains are not associated with any abnormalities found during examination and the child should be growing normally.

      However, it is important to distinguish idiopathic limb pains from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, for example, may cause limb pain due to bone marrow infiltration. Children with this condition may also exhibit signs of bone marrow failure and be systemically unwell.

      Langerhans histiocytosis is another condition that can cause painful bone lesions. This proliferative disorder of antigen presenting cells may be localised or systemic and can be difficult to diagnose. The systemic form of the condition may also present with a widespread eczematous rash and fevers.

      Non-accidental injury may also present with recurrent pains, but evidence of an injury would be expected. Primary bone malignancy is more common in teenage years and typically presents with unremitting pain, growth failure, weight loss, or pathological fractures.

      In summary, while idiopathic limb pains are relatively easy to settle and associated with a normal examination, it is important to consider other potential conditions that may cause similar symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old male comes to urology for evaluation of pyelonephritis. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male comes to urology for evaluation of pyelonephritis. He complains of fatigue, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and a rash with raised bumps. Despite a negative Monospot test, due to his history of engaging in high-risk sexual activities, you are requested to rule out a possible HIV seroconversion illness. What test would be the most suitable for this investigation?

      Your Answer: gp120 polymerase chain reaction

      Correct Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department via ambulance complaining of chest...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department via ambulance complaining of chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly a few minutes ago and describes it as a sharp sensation that extends to his back.

      The patient has a history of uncontrolled hypertension.

      A CT scan reveals an enlarged mediastinum.

      What is the most likely cause of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tear in the tunica intima of the aorta

      Explanation:

      An aortic dissection is characterized by a tear in the tunica intima of the aortic wall, which is a medical emergency. Patients typically experience sudden-onset, central chest pain that radiates to the back. This condition is more common in patients with hypertension and is associated with a widened mediastinum on a CT scan.

      Aortic dissection is a serious condition that can cause chest pain. It occurs when there is a tear in the inner layer of the aorta’s wall. Hypertension is the most significant risk factor, but it can also be associated with trauma, bicuspid aortic valve, and certain genetic disorders. Symptoms of aortic dissection include severe and sharp chest or back pain, weak or absent pulses, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation. Specific arteries’ involvement can cause other symptoms such as angina, paraplegia, or limb ischemia. The Stanford classification divides aortic dissection into type A, which affects the ascending aorta, and type B, which affects the descending aorta. The DeBakey classification further divides type A into type I, which extends to the aortic arch and beyond, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in...

    Incorrect

    • What are the personality disorders included in Cluster B (the 'dramatic' group) in the DSM?

      Your Answer: Dependant, histrionic, and obsessive-compulsive

      Correct Answer: Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Psychiatric Disorders

      Psychiatric disorders are often grouped together based on their similarities, which can be useful for research and classification purposes. The three main clusters are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. The eccentric cluster includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal disorders. The dramatic cluster includes borderline, narcissistic, antisocial, and histrionic disorders. The fearful cluster includes obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent disorders.

      The classification of psychiatric disorders follows the operational criteria of either DSM or ICD. DSM-V, published by the American Psychiatric Association, is multi-axial and allows for assessment of the patient’s current mental state diagnosis, personality disorder and learning difficulties, any physical condition, psychosocial or environmental factors, and global assessment of functioning scale. On the other hand, ICD-10, published by the World Health Organization, is used widely in Europe and also includes a multi-axial approach. However, personality disorder is not differentiated from other mental state disorders in ICD. The three axes in ICD are current mental state diagnosis (including personality disorder), disabilities, and contextual factors.

      In summary, the classification of psychiatric disorders is important for research and treatment purposes. The three main clusters of disorders are eccentric, dramatic, and fearful. DSM and ICD are the two main operational criteria used for classification, with DSM being multi-axial and including a global assessment of functioning scale, while ICD is also multi-axial but does not differentiate personality disorder from other mental state disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up...

    Correct

    • A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up to 10 wet nappies a day. He recalls that his cousin had a kidney condition and wonders if it could be affecting his child. After being referred to a paediatrician, the doctor mentions the possibility of Bartter's syndrome.

      What is the root cause of Bartter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mutated NKCC2 channel in the ascending loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The cause of Bartter’s syndrome is a faulty NKCC2 channel located in the ascending loop of Henle.

      Polydipsia, polyuria, and dehydration are common symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome, which is an inherited disorder resulting from mutated NKCC2 channels.

      Gitelman syndrome is a related condition caused by a mutated NCl symporter.

      Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus are characterized by mutated ADH receptors and a lack of ADH production, respectively.

      Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. This disorder is usually inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia, such as Conn’s, Cushing’s, and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting NKCC2, which is similar to the effects of Bartter’s syndrome. The symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome usually appear in childhood and include failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, normotension, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with her parents, who are...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with her parents, who are concerned about her extremely swollen legs. The patient reports feeling fine and has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, there is pitting edema that extends to the lower abdominal wall. Laboratory tests confirm hypoalbuminemia.

      A urine dipstick reveals ++++ proteinuria and no red blood cells.

      What is the probable result of electron microscopy of a renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Effacement of podocyte foot processes

      Explanation:

      Effacement of podocyte foot processes is observed in minimal change disease on electron microscopy, indicating fusion of podocytes. This condition is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, which is characterized by hypoalbuminemia, edema, and marked proteinuria. Although normal glomerular architecture may be observed in minimal change disease when viewed with a light microscope, electron microscopy is necessary to detect the effacement of podocyte foot processes. Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions are not a feature of minimal change disease, as they are commonly observed in diabetic nephropathy. Similarly, mesangial cell proliferation is not a hallmark of minimal change disease, as it is typically observed in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which presents as a nephritic syndrome and is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Overall, minimal change disease is typically responsive to steroid treatment and has a favorable prognosis.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      13.7
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm. He also experiences nausea and excessive sweating. After conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, leading to a diagnosis of an inferior ST-elevation MI. Can you identify the primary coronary vessel that supplies blood to the base of the heart?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The heart has several arteries that supply blood to different areas. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart and can cause a heart attack in the lower part of the heart, which can lead to abnormal heart rhythms. The left anterior descending artery and left circumflex artery supply the left side of the heart and can cause heart attacks in different areas, which can be detected by changes in specific leads on an ECG. The left marginal artery branches off the left circumflex artery and supplies blood to the outer edge of the heart.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.9
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  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her wrist and small joints of the hand. She mentioned that her joints felt stiff in the morning but improved throughout the day. The doctor prescribed glucocorticoids and methotrexate, which helped alleviate her symptoms. After a year, she returned to her doctor with a dry cough and shortness of breath that had been bothering her for a month. She denied any recent weight loss or coughing up blood. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol moderately. The woman has no significant medical or surgical history and has been a homemaker while her husband works in a shipyard. Her father died of a heart attack at the age of 77. What is the most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Intrapulmonary nodules

      Explanation:

      1. Caplan syndrome is a condition characterized by intrapulmonary nodules found peripherally and bilaterally in individuals with both pneumoconiosis and rheumatoid arthritis. The immune system changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis are thought to affect the body’s response to coal dust particles, leading to the development of nodules.
      2. A normal chest X-ray does not rule out the possibility of underlying respiratory disease. If there is a high clinical suspicion, further investigation should be pursued to confirm or rule out potential diagnoses, such as asthma.
      3. Chronic obstructive respiratory disease, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, is characterized by hyperinflated lungs and a flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray. This is due to the loss of elastic recoil in the lungs and airway obstruction caused by inflammation of the bronchi.
      4. Silicosis is a restrictive lung disease that develops in individuals exposed to silica, such as sandblasters and those working in silica mines. Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is a characteristic finding on chest X-ray.
      5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs, a non-small cell type of lung cancer, is associated with a central bronchial opacity around the hilar region on chest X-ray. This type of cancer is more common in smokers and may be accompanied by hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At what stage of meiosis does the process of homologous recombination occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of meiosis does the process of homologous recombination occur?

      Your Answer: Metaphase II

      Correct Answer: Prophase I

      Explanation:

      Homologous Recombination: A Mechanism for DNA Repair and Genetic Variation

      Homologous recombination is a process that allows for the exchange of nucleotide sequences between two similar or identical DNA molecules. This occurs during meiosis, specifically during the second phase of prophase I, where sister chromatids swap sequences. The primary purpose of homologous recombination is to accurately repair harmful double-strand DNA breaks. This process results in new combinations of DNA sequences that provide genetic variation in daughter cells and, ultimately, the organism’s offspring.

      In prokaryotic organisms such as bacteria and viruses, homologous recombination occurs during horizontal gene transfer. This process involves the exchange of genetic material between different strains and species. Homologous recombination plays a crucial role in the evolution of these organisms by allowing for the acquisition of new traits and adaptations.

      Overall, homologous recombination is a vital mechanism for DNA repair and genetic variation. It ensures the accuracy of DNA replication and contributes to the diversity of life on Earth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man injures his forearm and wrist and presents with an inability...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man injures his forearm and wrist and presents with an inability to adduct his thumb during examination. What nerve lesion is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inability to adduct the thumb may occur due to damage to the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. A clinical test to assess this involves attempting to remove a piece of paper from the patient’s hand, which is held between the thumb and index finger.

      Adductor Pollicis Muscle

      The adductor pollicis muscle originates from the tendon sheath of the flexor carpi radialis and the bases of the second, third, and fourth metacarpals. The transverse head comes from the longitudinal ride of the third metacarpal, while the fibres of the two heads converge on insertion into the ulnar aspect of the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb. The muscle is supplied by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1).

      The main function of the adductor pollicis muscle is to adduct the thumb into the plane of the palm and draw it to the midline. This movement is important for grasping and holding objects. The muscle also plays a role in stabilizing the thumb during pinch and grip activities.

      Overall, the adductor pollicis muscle is an important muscle for hand function and is involved in many daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - After a carotid endarterectomy, a woman experiences weakness in her tongue. Which nerve...

    Correct

    • After a carotid endarterectomy, a woman experiences weakness in her tongue. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged in this process?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal

      Explanation:

      Carotid surgery poses a higher risk to the hypoglossal nerve, which is responsible for innervating the tongue.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby is worried about the possibility of her child having a congenital heart defect. She was born with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) herself and wants to know what treatment options are available for this condition.

      What treatment will you recommend if her baby is diagnosed with PDA?

      Your Answer: Nothing, patent ductus arteriosus mostly close spontaneously

      Correct Answer: The baby receives indomethacin as a neonate

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in neonates is indomethacin or ibuprofen, administered after birth. While PDA is more common in premature infants, a family history of heart defects can increase the risk. Diagnosis typically occurs during postnatal baby checks, often due to the presence of a murmur or symptoms of heart failure. Doing nothing is not a recommended approach, as spontaneous closure is rare. Surgery may be necessary if medical management is unsuccessful. Prostaglandin E1 is not the best answer, as it is typically used in cases where PDA is associated with another congenital heart defect. Indomethacin or ibuprofen are not given to the mother during the antenatal period.

      Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.

      This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.

      The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of a new proton pump inhibitor...

    Incorrect

    • A study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in older adults who are on aspirin therapy. The new PPI is administered to 120 patients, while the standard PPI is given to a control group of 240 individuals. During a five-year follow-up, 24 patients in the new PPI group experienced upper gastrointestinal bleeding, whereas 60 patients in the standard PPI group had the same outcome. What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which section of an antibody is targeted by immune cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which section of an antibody is targeted by immune cells?

      Your Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Cells of the immune system attach to the fragment crystallizable (Fc) region of immunoglobulins during crystallization.

      Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, can be categorized into two primary pairs:
      1. Fab region, which is responsible for binding to antigens
      2. Fc region, which is the tail end of an antibody that interacts with receptors on the surface of cells.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 10-month history of joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 10-month history of joint pain in his hands. After being diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, he is prescribed methotrexate and prednisone, but they do not provide sufficient relief. He is then referred to a specialist who starts him on anakinra.

      What is the mechanism of action of anakinra?

      Your Answer: Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed by a maximal exhalation. Which of the following measurements will most accurately depict this process?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in and out within one minute is known as maximum voluntary ventilation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man comes to the doctor after returning from a cheese and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the doctor after returning from a cheese and wine tasting trip in Portugal. He mentions trying unpasteurized cheese and now feels very sick. He reports experiencing fluctuating temperatures, transient joint and muscle pain, and excessive sweating with a distinct wet hay odor. What organism is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Correct Answer: Brucella melitensis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with Brucellosis, including fluctuating temperatures, temporary joint and muscle pain, excessive sweating with a distinct odor. The key factor in the patient’s history is their consumption of unpasteurized cheese, which can contain the Brucella melitensis bacteria responsible for the infection.

      If the patient had been infected with Bartonella henselae, the cause of cat scratch disease, they would have a history of exposure to cat scratches.

      In the case of Yersinia pestis, the bacteria responsible for bubonic plague, the patient would have a history of exposure to flea bites in an area where the disease is prevalent. Additionally, their temperature would remain constant rather than fluctuating.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are non-specific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman is having a trendelenberg procedure to treat her varicose veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is having a trendelenberg procedure to treat her varicose veins. While dissecting the saphenofemoral junction, which structure is most susceptible to injury?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep external pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      The deep external pudendal artery is situated near the origin of the long saphenous vein and can be damaged. The highest risk of injury occurs during the flush ligation of the saphenofemoral junction. However, if an injury is detected and the vessel is tied off, it is rare for any significant negative consequences to occur.

      The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins

      The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.

      Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/2) 50%
Neurological System (3/5) 60%
General Principles (2/7) 29%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Renal System (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular System (2/5) 40%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
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