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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately 60 minutes every five to six days.

      Careful questioning reveals no clear precipitating factors, and he is otherwise an infrequent attender to the surgery. On examination, his BP is 140/80 mmHg, his pulse irregular at 100 bpm, but otherwise cardiovascular and respiratory examination is unremarkable.

      You arrange for an ECG the following day with the practice nurse, which is normal.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Arrange an event recorder ECG

      Explanation:

      Recommended Investigation for Diagnosis of Heart Condition

      The recommended investigation for confirming the diagnosis of the heart condition in this scenario is an event recorder electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because symptomatic episodes are more than 24 hours apart, making a 24-hour ambulatory ECG less likely to confirm the diagnosis. While echocardiography may be useful in evaluating atrial fibrillation, a diagnosis must first be made.

      It is important to note that there is no indication of haemodynamic compromise in this scenario, so acute admission is not necessary. By conducting the appropriate investigation, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Reassure this is normal and will improve with age

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painless lump in his left lower eyelid that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a small lump is observed, which is more noticeable when the eyelid is turned inside out. There is no discharge or redness. The doctor suspects a meibomian cyst. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Advise lubricant eye drops + warm compresses + review in one month

      Correct Answer: Advise warm compresses + review in one month

      Explanation:

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm?

      Your Answer: Adult polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's disease

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Associated Risks

      Polycystic kidney disease is a condition that can lead to renal failure and is strongly linked to berry aneurysm. However, Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) doesn’t increase the risk of renal carcinoma, nor does the rarer recessive type. On the other hand, patients on dialysis who develop cystic kidneys have a higher incidence of RCC, and Von-Hippel-Lindau disease also carries an increased risk.

      Neurofibromatosis may be associated with phaeochromocytoma, while polycystic ovary disease carries a higher risk of endometrial cancer. However, psoriasis doesn’t predispose to skin cancer, and De Quervain’s thyroiditis doesn’t lead to malignancy. Finally, Gilbert’s disease is a benign familial abnormality of bilirubin metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.

      HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north...

    Incorrect

    • You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north of England.

      Out of the six prescriptions you sign that morning, which one would be exempt from NHS prescription charges for a patient who is 65 years old?

      Your Answer: A prescription of warfarin, as an anticoagulant in atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: A prescription of desogestrel ('Cerazette') as a contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Prescription charges do not apply to prescribed contraceptives in England, as they are exempt from such charges. Other exempt drugs include STI treatments and medications that a GP can administer. It is important to note that this exemption only applies to England and not to Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland. However, if Dianette is prescribed for acne rather than as a contraceptive, it would be subject to prescription charges. Additionally, there are extensive lists of medical conditions that qualify patients for free prescriptions.

      Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?

      In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.

      Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.

      Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.

      For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well and has no symptoms. As she is approaching 50 and overweight, you arrange for routine blood tests, including HbA1c. The results come back showing a glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) of 49 mmol/mol.
      What is the most appropriate response to this result?

      Your Answer: Diagnose impaired glucose tolerance (pre-diabetes)

      Correct Answer: Repeat the test

      Explanation:

      Understanding HbA1c Test Results for Diabetes Diagnosis

      The HbA1c test is a diagnostic tool for diabetes, with a recommended cut-off point of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%). However, a single abnormal result doesn’t confirm the diagnosis, especially in asymptomatic patients. In such cases, a repeat laboratory venous HbA1c test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the second result is still above 48 mmol/mol, the patient is diagnosed with diabetes. If the result is below 48 mmol/mol, the patient is considered to have a high diabetes risk and should repeat the test in six months or sooner if symptoms develop. HbA1c levels below 42 mmol/mol are normal for non-diabetic adults, while levels from 42 to 47 mmol/mol indicate pre-diabetes. An oral glucose tolerance test is not necessary in the absence of hyperglycaemic symptoms, and more than one test on two separate days is required for a diagnosis. Understanding HbA1c test results is crucial for accurate diabetes diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer: Faecal fat estimation

      Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
    Select from...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
      Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.

      Your Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut

      Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.

      The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.

      Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
    What is the single correct statement about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
      What is the single correct statement about his condition?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis is a common disease complication

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) is typically normal in non-infected patients with active disease

      Explanation:

      There are some inaccuracies in the given explanation about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Firstly, C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a reliable indicator of disease activity in SLE, but it can help distinguish between a lupus flare and infection. Secondly, neutropenia is less common than lymphopenia in SLE. Thirdly, while SLE can lead to various pulmonary complications, severe pulmonary fibrosis is uncommon. Fourthly, rheumatoid factor can be positive in up to 40% of SLE patients. Lastly, the low-dose combined oral contraceptive pill is not contraindicated in SLE, but caution should be exercised in women with certain antibodies and alternative methods of contraception may be preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology

      Explanation:

      If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itching. He reports experiencing these symptoms at this time of year for the past few years, but this year they are worse and are interfering with his college attendance. He has no trouble breathing, no other medical issues, and takes no regular medications. His mother suggested he try putting vaseline around his nose, and he has taken some cetirizine, but it has not been effective thus far.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intranasal fluticasone furoate and continue regular antihistamine

      Explanation:

      For individuals with moderate-to-severe or persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, intranasal steroids are the recommended first-line treatment. They have been found to be more effective than oral antihistamines. Combining intranasal steroids with oral antihistamines can provide even better results.

      If a person experiences persistent watery rhinorrhea despite using both intranasal steroids and oral antihistamines, an intranasal anticholinergic like ipratropium bromide can be added to the treatment plan.

      In cases where symptoms are severe and significantly impacting quality of life despite optimal treatment, a short course of oral steroids may be considered. However, this should only be used for important life events.

      If symptoms remain uncontrolled despite optimal management, immunotherapy may be considered as a future option.

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden vision loss in one eye. What ocular feature would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pale oedematous optic disc

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Visual Symptoms of Giant-Cell Arteritis

      Giant-cell arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects medium and large arteries, particularly those in the carotid artery and its branches. This condition can cause various symptoms, including headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and systemic symptoms like weight loss and fever. However, one of the most concerning effects of giant-cell arteritis is its impact on vision.

      Inflammation of the ophthalmic artery’s branches can lead to ischaemic optic neuritis, which can cause visual disturbances. Around 50% of patients with giant-cell arteritis eventually experience visual symptoms, such as transient visual blurring, diplopia, visual field defects, and sudden loss of vision.

      On fundoscopy, an eye doctor may observe pallor and oedema of the optic disc, as well as cotton-wool patches and small haemorrhages in the retina. These features are usually seen following loss of vision. Transient repeated episodes of blurred vision are usually reversible, but sudden loss is an ominous sign and is almost always permanent. Symptoms can occur in the absence of, or before the development of, headache.

      It’s important to note that some symptoms commonly associated with eye problems, such as a hard eye or a pupil that doesn’t respond to light, are not necessarily indicative of giant-cell arteritis. Instead, an eye with very high intraocular pressure may feel hard, while a sluggish or absent pupillary reflex may be present with optic nerve involvement. Additionally, widespread retinal haemorrhages are not typically seen in giant-cell arteritis, but may be a feature of central retinal vein occlusion.

      Overall, understanding the visual symptoms of giant-cell arteritis can help individuals seek prompt medical attention and potentially prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased appetite and palpitations. She also reports that her periods have become irregular but has no previous history of note. On examination, you note a fine tremor and a resting pulse rate of 110 bpm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

      Hyperthyroidism is a common condition that presents with a variety of symptoms, including weight loss, heat intolerance, and muscle weakness. It is typically caused by Graves’ disease or multinodular goitre. In contrast, carcinoid syndrome is a rare condition associated with carcinoid tumours that primarily affect the midgut. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, results in weight gain, dry skin, and a slow resting pulse. New-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, while polycystic ovarian syndrome is characterized by obesity, oligomenorrhoea, and signs of hyperandrogenism. By understanding the unique symptoms of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients with hyperthyroidism.

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents with shortness of breath. The full blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:

      Hb 12.4 g/dl
      Plt 137
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l

      PT 14 secs
      APTT 46 secs

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most probable diagnosis due to the paradoxical occurrence of prolonged APTT and low platelets.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 18 - A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy. What is the correlation between a low alpha-feto protein level and this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      AFP levels are elevated in cases of neural tube defects and reduced in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is created by the fetus during its development. When the levels of AFP are higher than normal, it may indicate the presence of certain conditions such as neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly), abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis), multiple pregnancy, Down’s syndrome, trisomy 18, and maternal diabetes mellitus. On the other hand, decreased levels of AFP may also be significant and should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 19 - A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing regurgitation after feeds and becomes very distressed. The baby is fully formula-fed and has been difficult to feed. However, the baby is gaining weight well and is otherwise healthy. There is a family history of reflux, with the baby's older sibling having had reflux in infancy. Upon examination, the baby doesn't have tongue-tie, has a normal suck-reflex, and the abdominal examination is reassuring. What steps should be taken to address the suspected reflux?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of alginate added to the formula

      Explanation:

      While positional management of gastro-oesophageal reflux may seem logical, it is important to note that infants should always sleep on their backs to minimize the risk of cot death. Although there are no concerning symptoms, it is advisable to provide treatment for the child’s distress. It is not recommended to increase the volume of feeds as this may exacerbate reflux. Instead, smaller and more frequent feeds could be considered. Diluting the feeds will not improve symptoms and may actually increase the volume in the stomach.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father, who has concerns about her behaviour. For the last four years, she has been getting into trouble at school, being aggressive with other children, and has 'meltdowns' if her routine must be changed. This is frequently leading to her needing a “time-out” in school and is impacting on her education. Her behaviour is better at home, where a strict routine is maintained. She is very interested in animals and has an extraordinary amount of knowledge about them.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder in Children: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms typically developing before the age of three. Boys are more commonly affected than girls, with a ratio of 4:1. Children with ASD exhibit a range of symptoms, including a lack of social awareness, a preference for rules and strict routines, difficulty coping with change, and specific interests about which they have extraordinary knowledge.

      In school-age children, additional symptoms may include communication impairments, social impairments, and impairment of interests or behaviours. These symptoms can impact a child’s ability to function in a classroom setting and may lead to disruptive behaviour.

      ADHD is another condition that can impact a child’s behaviour in the classroom. Symptoms of ADHD include poor attention span, motor overactivity, and impulsiveness. However, ADHD is not associated with a preference for specific interests or hobbies.

      Conduct Disorder is a pattern of behaviour in which the basic rights of others or societal norms are broken. While some features of Conduct Disorder may be present in a child with ASD, the lack of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Oppositional Defiance Disorder (ODD) is a pattern of angry and defiant behaviour that impacts a child’s social, educational, or occupational functioning. While aggression with other children may be a symptom of ODD, the absence of additional symptoms makes it an unlikely diagnosis in a child with ASD.

      It is important to note that some behaviours, such as getting in trouble at school or having specific interests, can be a normal part of development. However, persistent behavioural problems and aggression that impact a child’s education and daily life warrant a specialist assessment for ASD. Early diagnosis and intervention can help maximise a child’s potential and provide support for parents and caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

      Which of the following treatments would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracyclines

      Explanation:

      Best Antibiotic Choice for Children

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for children, it’s important to consider their age and potential side effects. In this circumstance, Amoxicillin would be the best choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile. Quinolones and tetracyclines should be avoided in childhood, while co-trimoxazole has limited indications and nitrofurantoin would not be effective. It’s crucial to consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old pub owner is brought to the out of hours centre by...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old pub owner is brought to the out of hours centre by his wife. He has been unwell for the past few hours complaining of excruciating epigastric abdominal pain and vomiting.

      She tells you that he has an alcohol problem, and finishes off the bottles of beer by the glass each evening, sometimes drinking up to eight glasses and spirits each night before going to bed.

      He struggles onto the bed and you are immediately concerned. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60, and has a pulse of 95. He is pyrexial 37.8°C. He has severe epigastric pain on palpation of the abdomen and you notice purple discolouration of the left flank of the abdomen

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis with Grey Turner’s Sign

      The image depicts a case of acute pancreatitis, which is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen, vomiting, low blood pressure, and rapid heartbeat. The purple discoloration on the patient’s flank is known as Grey Turner’s sign, which is believed to be caused by bleeding in the retroperitoneal area associated with pancreatitis. This condition requires immediate hospitalization and medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who are prescribed ciclosporin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin can cause an increase in various bodily functions and conditions, including fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum swelling, and glucose levels.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and...

    Incorrect

    • What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undiagnosed coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and Fracture Risk Factors

      Undiagnosed or untreated coeliac disease can lead to malabsorption and increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. On the other hand, skimmed milk contains more calcium per pint than full fat milk, and bendroflumethiazide can improve calcium retention and bone mineral density. It is important to note that irritable bowel syndrome doesn’t cause malabsorption or increased fracture risk, unlike coeliac disease or inflammatory bowel diseases. Lastly, hyperthyroidism can increase the risk of osteoporosis, but hypothyroidism doesn’t unless it is over-replaced. By understanding these risk factors, individuals can take steps to prevent osteoporosis and fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
      Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
      During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
      What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients

      Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.

      Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.

      Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
      On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
      What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison

      There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.

      Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.

      In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man is being evaluated for his hypertension. He has been taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is being evaluated for his hypertension. He has been taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg od for the past 8 years. His current blood pressure is 152/96 mmHg. Upon clinical examination, no significant findings were noted. An echocardiogram from three months ago revealed an ejection fraction of 40% and mild left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add ramipril 1.25 mg od

      Explanation:

      The echocardiogram indicates that there is some level of left ventricular dysfunction. To manage this condition, it is crucial to initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor. This medication will not only regulate the patient’s blood pressure but also decelerate the decline in her heart’s performance. Additionally, a beta-blocker is recommended as there is evidence of heart failure.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall. He reports that he noticed it about four weeks ago and it has grown in size so he has come to get it checked. It is not causing the patient any symptoms.

      On examination there is a pigmented lesion which is 5 mm in diameter. It is two-tone with a dark brown portion and an almost black portion. The lesion has an irregular notched border and is asymmetrical.

      You are unsure of the diagnosis.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a dermatologist as a suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      The ABCDEF checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, particularly for identifying potential melanomas. The checklist includes six criteria: asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, dark or diameter greater than 6 mm, evolutionary change, and funny looking.

      Asymmetry refers to a lack of mirror image in any of the quadrants when the lesion is divided into four quadrants. Irregular border and irregular colour are self-explanatory, with irregular colour indicating at least two different colours in the lesion and lack of even pigmentation throughout the lesion being particularly suspicious. Dark or diameter greater than 6 mm refers to the size and colour of the lesion, with blue or black colour being particularly concerning. Evolutionary change refers to changes in size, colour, shape, or elevation.

      The presence of any one of these criteria should raise suspicion of melanoma and prompt urgent referral to a dermatologist. Additionally, the funny looking criterion, also known as the ugly duckling sign, should be considered. This refers to a mole that appears different from the rest, even if ABCD and E criteria are absent.

      Overall, the ABCDEF checklist is a valuable tool for identifying potentially cancerous pigmented lesions and ensuring prompt referral for specialist assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - You assess a 65-year-old man with motor neuron disease. He mentions that he...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man with motor neuron disease. He mentions that he intends to travel to Switzerland for euthanasia if his condition worsens. What would be your initial response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss his fears about the terminal phase

      Explanation:

      In recent years, the issue of assisted suicide has gained relevance as UK patients have been travelling to Switzerland ‘Dignitas’ clinic. However, aiding someone to commit suicide is currently illegal. As a healthcare professional, it is important to address the patient’s fears about the terminal phase and discuss the advancements in palliative care. It may also be helpful for the patient to speak with others who have gone through similar experiences for reassurance. If the patient still insists on travelling to Switzerland, it is necessary to inform them of the legal implications of aiding suicide by providing information about appropriate clinics. It is important to note that the ‘double-effect’ principle only applies to accepting the side-effects of pain relief and not to intentionally hastening death. Implying otherwise is inappropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old teacher presents with heavy periods. She reports using 8-10 pads daily...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents with heavy periods. She reports using 8-10 pads daily during her 10-day long periods. She has two children and doesn't want any more at this time. She experiences mild cramping but no pain. Her busy schedule makes it difficult for her to remember to take medication daily. Blood tests reveal iron deficiency and she is prescribed iron tablets. Pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirena

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menorrhagia

      Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be effectively treated with the Mirena intrauterine device. It is important to note that the Mirena also serves as a long-term contraceptive, making it a suitable option for many women. The copper coil, on the other hand, can actually increase vaginal bleeding and should be avoided in cases of menorrhagia. While the combined oral contraceptive pill is a viable option, it may not be the best choice for women with busy or unpredictable lifestyles. The progesterone-only pill is a third-line option, but there is no reason not to use the Mirena as a first-line treatment. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like mefenamic acid may be helpful for dysmenorrhoea, but are not typically used for menorrhagia. For more information on treatment options for menorrhagia, visit http://cks.nice.org.uk/menorrhagia#!scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
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