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  • Question 1 - A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old female presented with pain in her calves during walking which settled after resting. On examination there were orange colour deposits in the her palmar creases. Her fasting lipid profile showed a total cholesterol of 9.2 mmol/l (<5) and triglycerides of 7.0 mmol/l (<2). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipidaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia. Her total cholesterol level and triglyceride level support the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity. Which of the following is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Magnesium deficiency

      Correct Answer: Zinc deficiency

      Explanation:

      Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old painter presents with a burning pain in both feet, which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old painter presents with a burning pain in both feet, which has deteriorated over the last six months. He drinks 60 units of alcohol weekly and has a family history of pernicious anaemia. On examination he has impairment of all modalities of sensation in both feet but particularly pain, temperature and absent ankle jerks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of excessive alcohol consumption, there is a strong suspicion of alcoholic peripheral neuropathy. In the UK, alcohol abuse and diabetes are the most common causes of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Correct

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid

      Explanation:

      Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Incorrect

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Western blot

      Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Myelodysplasia + chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5–15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Correct Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin....

    Correct

    • A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer: Raised LDH

      Correct Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water: ...

    Correct

    • Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water:

      Your Answer: The ascending limb of loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are not permeable to water. The tubular fluid thus becomes increasingly dilute as it ascends toward the cortex, whereas the interstitial fluid around the loops of Henle in the medulla becomes increasingly more concentrated.

      The ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for advice. He is about to start fasting for Ramadan and he is not sure how to modify the administration of his diabetes medications. He is currently on metformin 500mg tds. What is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      Biguanides (Metformin):
      People who take metformin alone should be able to fast safely given that the possibility of hypoglycaemia is minimal. However, patients should modify its dose and administration timing to provide two-thirds of the total daily dose, which should be taken immediately with the sunset meal, while the other third is taken before the predawn meal.

      Thiazolidinediones: No change needed.

      Sulfonylurea:
      Once-daily sulfonylurea (such as glimepiride or gliclazide MR): the total daily dose should be taken with the sunset meal.
      Shorter-acting sulfonylurea (such as gliclazide twice daily): the same daily dose remains unchanged, and one dose should be taken at the sunset meal and the other at the predawn meal.
      Long-acting sulfonylurea (such as glibenclamide): these agents should be avoided.

      It is important that diabetic patients to eat a healthy balanced diet and choose foods with a low glycaemic index (such as complex carbohydrates), which can help to maintain blood glucose levels during fasting. Moreover, it is crucial to consume adequate fluids to prevent dehydration. Physical activity is encouraged, especially during non-fasting periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heart beat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a short-acting anticholinergic agent

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
      It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
      The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
      Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
      Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?

      Your Answer: Eye is deviated 'down and out'

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes

      1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
      OR
      2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
      OR
      3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
      OR
      4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
      *In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals: Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180) Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45) Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4) White cell count 60 per ml (<5) Lymphocytes 90% Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Active absorption in the terminal ileum

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is mostly used in the body for the development of red blood cells and maintenance of the nervous system. It is actively absorbed in the terminal ileum after binding to the intrinsic factor (IF) which is secreted from the parietal cells of stomach. Moreover, a small amount is also passively absorbed without being bound to IF.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency is characterised by sore tongue and mouth, mood disturbances, ataxia, and macrocytic anaemia. Its causes include poor diet, impaired absorption (due to disorders of terminal ileum), pernicious anaemia, and post-gastrectomy. While managing this condition, if the person is also deficient in folic acid, then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first in order to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents to the Accident and Emergency (A&E) department with fever, tachypnoea, and rib pain. On examination, he has a low-grade fever of 37.9°C, oxygen saturation of 95% on air, and bilateral vesicular breath sounds on chest auscultation. CXR shows opacification in the right middle zone. Which of these statements most accurately describes the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Bronchodilators are indicated

      Correct Answer: Incentive spirometry is indicated

      Explanation:

      This is a typical picture of acute chest syndrome (ACS). According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH), ACS is defined as ‘an acute illness characterised by fever and/or respiratory symptoms, accompanied by a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray’. ACS occurs in sequestration crisis, which is one of the four main types of crises occurring in sickle cell disease.

      The fundamentals of initial management are as follows:
      1. Oxygen therapy to maintain saturation >95%
      2. Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolemia
      3. Adequate pain relief
      4. Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
      5. Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
      6. Bronchodilators if asthma co-exists with acute chest syndrome, or if there is an evidence of acute bronchospasm on auscultation
      7. Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology department

      A senior haematologist then makes a decision as to whether a simple or exchange transfusion is necessary in order to achieve a target Hb of 10.0–11.0g/dL in either instance.

      Sickle Cell Crises:
      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises:
      1. Sequestration crisis: acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates)

      2. Thrombotic (painful or vaso-occlusive) crisis: precipitated by infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation

      3. Aplastic crisis: sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis, usually occurring secondary to parvovirus infection

      4. Haemolytic crisis: fall in haemoglobin secondary to haemolysis, rare type of sickle cell crises

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin, is awaiting tooth extraction. His latest INR 2 weeks ago was 2.7 and his target INR is 2.0-3.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Check INR 72 hours before procedure, proceed if INR < 4

      Correct Answer: Check INR 72 hours before procedure, proceed if INR < 3.5

      Explanation:

      The latest research recommends that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Correct

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following responses is the least likely to be associated...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following responses is the least likely to be associated with primary pulmonary hypertension?

      Your Answer: Recurrent pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Connective-tissue diseases, liver cirrhosis, exposure to anorexigens and likely other alpha-adrenergic stimulants [e.g., cocaine, amphetamines] and HIV infection are associated with primary pulmonary hypertension. Recurrent pulmonary emboli, chronic lung diseases, left heart diseases are causes for secondary pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary vascular hypertension after use of fenfluramine is rarely reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old woman presents with 18 month history of gait ataxia, dysarthria, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with 18 month history of gait ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. On examination there is down beating nystagmus and slurred speech. There is past pointing in both upper limbs and a wide-based ataxic gait. Reflexes and sensation are normal. There is no wasting or fasciculations. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syringomyelia

      Correct Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation

      Explanation:

      Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Arnold-Chiari malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brainstem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction such as DBN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      104.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Correct

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with homocystinuria?

      Your Answer: Niacin

      Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      In general, the aim is to keep the homocysteine (Hcy) concentration as close to normal as possible. In patients who are fully-responsive to pyridoxine, standard doses can lead to tHcy levels below 50 μmol/L (and sometimes within the normal range). Some patients who are partially-responsive to pyridoxine may be able to achieve a tHcy level below 50 μmol/L if they are also on a low-Met diet; for others it is not a realistic goal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days after undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bile acid diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly. This woman would have received antibiotics prophylactically before her surgery, predisposing her to a possible c difficile infection. This is a much better answer choice than pseudo obstruction, abdominal sepsis, bile acid diarrhoea, and campylobacter gastroenteritis simply based on history of present illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/6) 17%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Rheumatology (2/2) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/3) 33%
Haematology & Oncology (1/4) 25%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed