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  • Question 1 - Which statement accurately describes modafinil? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes modafinil?

      Your Answer: It lacks the euphoric effects of amphetamines

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What brain structures are responsible for regulating breathing and heart rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What brain structures are responsible for regulating breathing and heart rate?

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Correct Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The medulla governs the rhythm of the heart and respiration. The amygdala regulates emotional reactions and the ability to perceive the emotions of others. The midbrain is linked to vision, hearing, motor coordination, sleep patterns, alertness, and temperature regulation. The cerebellum manages voluntary movement and balance. The thalamus transmits sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In which areas are the Hayling and Brixton tests utilized to identify deficiencies?...

    Correct

    • In which areas are the Hayling and Brixton tests utilized to identify deficiencies?

      Your Answer: Executive function

      Explanation:

      Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests

      The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.

      The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a common target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with...

    Correct

    • What is a common target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Globus pallidus interna

      Explanation:

      DBS is primarily used to treat Parkinson’s disease by targeting the Globus pallidus interna and subthalamic nucleus. However, for treatment-resistant depression (TRD), the subcallosal cingulate was the first area investigated for DBS, while vagal nerve stimulation has also been used. Psychosurgical treatment for refractory OCD and TRD involves targeting the anterior limb of the internal capsule. Although the caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia and associated with Parkinson’s disease, it is not a primary target for DBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which compound was created through the synthesis of chlorpromazine? ...

    Correct

    • Which compound was created through the synthesis of chlorpromazine?

      Your Answer: Charpentier

      Explanation:

      In 1951, Charpentier in France synthesised Chlorpromazine with the aim of creating a centrally acting antihistamine to assist with general anaesthesia. Later, studies conducted by Delay and Deniker provided evidence for its effectiveness in treating schizophrenia.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In 1848, an accident caused a severe brain injury to Phineas Gage in...

    Correct

    • In 1848, an accident caused a severe brain injury to Phineas Gage in the USA. Despite the injury, he managed to survive and became a renowned case in the history of psychiatry. Can you identify the primary brain region that was affected by his injury?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The tamping rod caused a severe injury by piercing through his skull, damaging a significant portion of his left frontal lobe and leading to a drastic alteration in his personality. Sadly, he passed away at the age of 36, 12 years after the incident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the term used to describe the disconnection between belief, feeling, and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the disconnection between belief, feeling, and behavior that can occur in individuals with severe mental illness?

      Your Answer: Loosening of associations

      Correct Answer: Double orientation

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Terminology

      Double orientation refers to the separation of belief from feeling and behavior, which is commonly observed in chronic schizophrenics. This condition is characterized by a person holding a grandiose delusion, such as believing they are the King of England, while still living a normal life in a council house and attending a day center. Loosening of associations is a type of thought disorder, while an overvalued idea is a preoccupying belief that is arrived at through normal mental processes. Partial delusion is a delusion that is becoming less fixed of is on its way to becoming a full delusion. Vorbeireden, also known as talking past the point, is another term used in psychiatric terminology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not an accepted approach to parenting? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an accepted approach to parenting?

      Your Answer: Dictatorial

      Explanation:

      Parenting Styles

      In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.

      Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.

      Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.

      Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.

      Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      8.9
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  • Question 9 - What is located within Brodmann area 22? ...

    Correct

    • What is located within Brodmann area 22?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following is a principle underlying the Children's Act 1989?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a principle underlying the Children's Act 1989?

      Your Answer: Capacity is decision-specific but not time-specific

      Correct Answer: A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision merely because it is unwise

      Explanation:

      The Mental Capacity Act 2005’s fourth principle emphasizes that making an unwise decision does not automatically mean that a person is incapable of making decisions. Capacity is dependent on the specific decision and time. Therefore, it is presumed that a person has capacity unless it is proven otherwise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'hebephrenia'?

      Your Answer: Kraepelin

      Correct Answer: Hecker

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What area of the brain is affected in bilateral dysfunction that leads to...

    Correct

    • What area of the brain is affected in bilateral dysfunction that leads to Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

      Your Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer?

      Your Answer: Prizes

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which disorder is not included in the list of dissociative disorders in the...

    Correct

    • Which disorder is not included in the list of dissociative disorders in the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Body integrity dysphoria

      Explanation:

      The classification of body integrity dysphoria falls under the group of conditions known as ‘disorders of bodily distress of bodily experience’, which was previously referred to as somatoform disorder.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.7
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Made affect

      Correct Answer: Gustatory hallucinations

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement about Williams syndrome is not true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Williams syndrome is not true?

      Your Answer: It results from a microdeletion in chromosome 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Williams Syndrome

      Williams syndrome is a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinct physical and behavioral traits. Individuals with this syndrome have a unique facial appearance, including a low nasal bridge and a cheerful demeanor. They also tend to have mild to moderate mental retardation and are highly sociable and verbal.

      Children with Williams syndrome are particularly sensitive to sound and may overreact to loud of high-pitched noises. The syndrome is caused by a deletion in the q11.23 region of chromosome 7, which codes for more than 20 genes. This deletion typically occurs during the recombination phase of meiosis and can be detected using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).

      Although Williams syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases are not inherited and occur sporadically in individuals with no family history of the disorder. With a prevalence of around 1 in 20,000, Williams syndrome is a rare condition that requires specialized care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      74.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the condition that is linked to self-harm and is caused by...

    Correct

    • What is the condition that is linked to self-harm and is caused by an abnormality in purine metabolism?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.

      People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.

      The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.

      Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is a true statement about depot antipsychotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about depot antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a contraindication for subsequent depot use

      Correct Answer: The risk of tardive dyskinesia is equal for depot and oral formulation of same drug

      Explanation:

      Contrary to popular belief, the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is not higher with depot antipsychotics compared to oral drugs. Additionally, there is no evidence to suggest that a prior history of NMS should prevent the use of depot antipsychotics. While caution may be warranted, a history of NMS is not a complete contraindication for depot antipsychotic use. These findings were reported by Patel in a 2005 article titled Why aren’t depot antipsychotics prescribed more often and what can be done about it? published in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment.

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - From which region is the largest amount of norepinephrine released? ...

    Correct

    • From which region is the largest amount of norepinephrine released?

      Your Answer: Locus coeruleus

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine: Synthesis, Release, and Breakdown

      Norepinephrine is synthesized from tyrosine through a series of enzymatic reactions. The first step involves the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase. Dopamine is further converted to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase. Finally, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.

      The primary site of norepinephrine release is the locus coeruleus, also known as the blue spot, which is located in the pons. Once released, norepinephrine is broken down by two enzymes: catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO). These enzymes play a crucial role in regulating the levels of norepinephrine in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (2/4) 50%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Classification And Assessment (2/3) 67%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (2/2) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (0/2) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Passmed