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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the femoral artery. He has a history of intravenous drug use.

      Due to poor vein quality, peripheral cannulation under ultrasound guidance is not feasible. Intraosseous access has been established, but additional access is required to administer large volume transfusions.

      To obtain access to a vessel that runs anterior to the medial malleolus, the consultant has decided to perform a venous cutdown.

      Which vessel will be accessed through this procedure?

      Your Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the long saphenous vein, which passes in front of the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown procedures. This vein is the largest vessel in the superficial venous system and is formed from the dorsal venous arch of the foot. During a venous cutdown, the skin is opened up to expose the vessel, allowing for cannulation under direct vision.

      The anterior tibial vein, fibular vein, and posterior tibial vein are all incorrect answers. The anterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system and arises from the dorsal venous arch, while the fibular vein forms from the plantar veins of the foot and drains into the posterior tibial vein. The posterior tibial vein also arises from the plantar veins of the foot but ascends posterior to the medial malleolus.

      The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins

      The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.

      Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his limbs, a 45-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is sent for blood tests. The results reveal a vitamin deficiency and the general practitioner explains he has a condition called beriberi. Which vitamin is this patient deficient in?

      Your Answer: Cobalamin (vitamin B12)

      Correct Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting...

    Correct

    • A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting of oestrogen and progesterone. What roles do these hormones play in HRT?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen is for symptomatic relief and progesterone is protective against oestrogenic adverse effects

      Explanation:

      The main cause of menopausal symptoms is low levels of oestrogen, which is why hormone replacement therapy (HRT) aims to alleviate these symptoms by supplementing oestrogen. However, oestrogen can lead to thickening of the endometrium, which increases the risk of neoplasia. To counteract this risk, progesterone is also included in HRT to prevent endometrial thickening and any associated malignancy.

      Therefore, any statement suggesting that progesterone is used for symptomatic relief, that oestrogen is protective, or that progesterone and oestrogen work together in a synergistic manner is incorrect.

      Symptoms of Menopause

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is characterized by a decrease in the levels of female hormones, particularly oestrogen, which can lead to a range of symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is a change in periods, including changes in the length of menstrual cycles and dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

      Around 80% of women experience vasomotor symptoms, which can occur daily and last for up to five years. These symptoms include hot flushes and night sweats. Urogenital changes are also common, affecting around 35% of women. These changes can include vaginal dryness and atrophy, as well as urinary frequency.

      In addition to physical symptoms, menopause can also have psychological effects. Approximately 10% of women experience anxiety and depression during this time, as well as short-term memory impairment. It is important to note that menopause can also have longer-term complications, such as an increased risk of osteoporosis and ischaemic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - To plan for the recruitment of new geriatric nurses, what data would the...

    Incorrect

    • To plan for the recruitment of new geriatric nurses, what data would the hospital need to collect to assess the period prevalence of geriatric patients?

      Your Answer: The number of patients at risk of developing diabetes at this point in time

      Correct Answer: The number of diabetes cases out of the total population during a specified period of time

      Explanation:

      The period prevalence of diabetes is calculated by dividing the number of identified cases during a specified period of time by the total number of people in that population. This provides an estimate of the proportion of individuals in the population who have diabetes during that time frame.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department due to concerns of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department due to concerns of being a close contact with someone who recently received treatment for meningococcal meningitis. He has no signs or symptoms of the disease and is not taking any regular medications, but has a severe allergy to penicillin. As a prophylactic measure, rifampicin is prescribed. What is the mechanism of action for rifampicin?

      Your Answer: Disrupts cell membranes

      Correct Answer: Inhibits RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that works by preventing the synthesis of RNA. According to NICE guidelines, individuals who have had prolonged close contact with a meningococcal meningitis case in a household-type setting during the 7 days before the onset of illness should be offered prophylactic antibiotics. The first-line options for prevention include ciprofloxacin, rifampicin, or intramuscular ceftriaxone. Daptomycin is an antibiotic that disrupts the cell membrane and is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and skin/soft tissue infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, work by inhibiting DNA synthesis and are effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. Penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation and can be used to treat a wide variety of infections caused by gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin and streptomycin, inhibit protein synthesis and are mainly active against gram-negative organisms, but can also treat some infections caused by gram-positive organisms. They are typically used in severe infections and as adjuncts alongside other antibiotics, and are administered intravenously due to poor gut absorption, except for neomycin which is used only for skin and mucous membrane infections due to its toxicity.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A febrile 5-day-old boy with surfactant deficient lung disease presents with a seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A febrile 5-day-old boy with surfactant deficient lung disease presents with a seizure. Subsequently, he exhibits variable consciousness and decreased limb tone. His blood glucose level is within normal limits. What is the most suitable initial test to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest x ray

      Correct Answer: USS cranium

      Explanation:

      Intraventricular Haemorrhage and Neonatal Seizures

      Ultrasound is the primary diagnostic tool used to investigate intraventricular haemorrhage (IVH), a common cause of neonatal seizures. IVH occurs when the blood vessels in the ventricle walls rupture, which is more likely to happen in neonates who require ventilation for lung disease. This condition can lead to hydrocephalus and damage to the surrounding neural tissue, resulting in temporary changes in tone and conscious level. The most severe complication of IVH is periventricular leukomalacia, which can progress to spastic diplegic cerebral palsy.

      To diagnose IVH, an ultrasound scan through the anterior fontanelle is a quick and effective method of examining for blood in the ventricles or hydrocephalus. Blood cultures may also be taken to rule out sepsis, another cause of neonatal seizures. However, chest x-rays may be necessary if there are changes in ventilation pressures or hypoxia due to chest infection or pneumothorax.

      It is important to avoid CT head scans if possible due to the radiation exposure to the neonate. Instead, MRI may be a reasonable investigation at a later date to determine the extent of the damage. Overall, early detection and management of IVH is crucial in preventing long-term complications such as cerebral palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.9
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  • Question 7 - A boy born 12 hours ago is observed to have a heart rate...

    Correct

    • A boy born 12 hours ago is observed to have a heart rate of 180 beats per minute. He was delivered via normal vaginal delivery without any complications. He has no fever and responds well to supportive care after 24 hours. What advice should be given to the mother?

      Your Answer: There will be no long term consequences

      Explanation:

      Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn (TTN) and its Consequences

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a condition that does not have any long-term consequences. During a normal delivery, the baby’s lungs get squeezed, which helps to remove fluid from the airspaces. However, during a caesarean section, this process does not occur, leading to a tachypnoeic response known as TTN in some infants. Although there are no signs of serious pathology, such as cyanosis, pyrexia, hypoglycaemia, or seizures, the neonate may take a few days to recover. After this, there are no further complications of TTN.

      To protect children with chronic lung disease from respiratory syncytial virus and bronchiolitis, a viral vaccine is given before the winter. Chronic lung disease is usually caused by surfactant deficient lung disease with prolonged ventilation. It is important to note that TTN is not infectious in origin, and the neonate does not exhibit any other signs of infection. Although a collapsed lung can occur due to various reasons, it is not a part of the pathology of TTN.

      In conclusion, TTN is a temporary condition that does not have any long-term consequences. It is important to monitor the neonate for any signs of serious pathology and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Children with chronic lung disease should receive a viral vaccine to protect them from respiratory syncytial virus and bronchiolitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?

      Your Answer: Transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.

      Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.

      All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sarah, a 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her left big toe. Her first MTP joint is swollen, hot, and red. She is seen biting her nails and hitting her head against the wall. Her caregiver informs you that this is her usual behavior.

      Upon joint aspiration, negative birefringent needle-shaped crystals are found. Sarah's medical history includes a learning disability, depression, and asthma. She takes sertraline for depression and frequently uses hydrocortisone cream for eczema. Sarah does not consume red meat and prefers a vegetable-based diet.

      What factors predispose Sarah to this type of crystalline arthritis?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone cream

      Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      If an individual with learning difficulties and a history of gout exhibits self-mutilating behaviors such as head-banging or nail-biting, it may indicate the presence of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. However, risk factors for gout do not include sertraline, hydrocortisone, or asthma, but rather red meat consumption. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition caused by a deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) and is characterized by hyperuricemia, learning disability, self-mutilating behavior, gout, and renal failure.

      Predisposing Factors for Gout

      Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.

      Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.

      In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.

      It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A randomised controlled trial compares two drugs used in the initial management of...

    Correct

    • A randomised controlled trial compares two drugs used in the initial management of hypertension in elderly patients. After being assigned to the randomised groups, a number of patients drop out due to adverse effects of the medication. How should the data be analysed?

      Your Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intention to Treat Analysis

      Intention to treat analysis is a statistical method used in randomized controlled trials. It involves analyzing all patients who were randomly assigned to a particular treatment group, regardless of whether they completed or received the treatment. This approach is used to avoid the effects of crossover and drop-out, which can affect the randomization of patients to treatment groups.

      In simpler terms, intention to treat analysis is a way of analyzing data from a clinical trial that ensures all patients are included in the analysis, regardless of whether they completed the treatment or not. This approach is important because it helps to avoid bias that may arise from patients dropping out of the study or switching to a different treatment group. By analyzing all patients as originally assigned, researchers can get a more accurate picture of the effectiveness of the treatment being studied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      15.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (1/1) 100%
General Principles (1/4) 25%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/1) 0%
Passmed