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Question 1
Correct
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You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have a bradyarrhythmia evident on their ECG, and you determine to administer a dose of atropine.
Which ONE statement about the use of atropine is accurate?Your Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes
Explanation:Atropine acts as an antagonist to the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA node and the AV node, resulting in increased sinus automaticity and improved AV node conduction.
The side effects of atropine are dependent on the dosage and may include dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, urinary retention, and tachyarrhythmias. Elderly patients may also experience acute confusion and hallucinations.
Atropine is recommended for use in cases of sinus, atrial, or nodal bradycardia or AV block when the patient’s hemodynamic condition is unstable due to the bradycardia. According to the ALS bradycardia algorithm, an initial dose of 500 mcg IV is suggested if any adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure are present. If this initial dose is unsuccessful, additional 500 mcg doses can be administered at 3-5 minute intervals, with a maximum dose of 3 mg. It is important to avoid doses exceeding 3 mg as they can paradoxically slow the heart rate.
Asystole during cardiac arrest is typically caused by primary myocardial pathology rather than excessive vagal tone. Therefore, there is no evidence supporting the routine use of atropine in the treatment of asystole or PEA. Consequently, atropine is no longer included in the non-shockable part of the ALS algorithm.
Aside from its use in cardiac conditions, atropine also has other applications. It can be used topically in the eyes as a cycloplegic and mydriatic, to reduce secretions during anesthesia, and in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 56-year-old individual who arrives at the ER complaining of chest discomfort and increasing swelling. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that they underwent an echocardiogram a year ago, which revealed moderate-severe tricuspid regurgitation. Which of the following heart murmurs is commonly associated with tricuspid regurgitation?
Your Answer: High-frequency early systolic murmur
Correct Answer: Low-frequency pansystolic murmur
Explanation:Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur that spans the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best audible at the lower left sternal edge and has a low frequency. Interestingly, the intensity of the murmur increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, a phenomenon referred to as Carvallo’s sign.
Further Reading:
Tricuspid regurgitation (TR) is a condition where blood flows backwards through the tricuspid valve in the heart. It is classified as either primary or secondary, with primary TR being caused by abnormalities in the tricuspid valve itself and secondary TR being the result of other conditions outside of the valve. Mild TR is common, especially in young adults, and often does not cause symptoms. However, severe TR can lead to right-sided heart failure and the development of symptoms such as ascites, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.
The causes of TR can vary. Primary TR can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease, myxomatous valve disease, or Ebstein anomaly. Secondary TR is often the result of right ventricular dilatation due to left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension. Other causes include endocarditis, traumatic chest injury, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, myocardial disease, left to right shunts, and carcinoid heart disease. In some cases, TR can occur as a result of infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers.
Clinical features of TR can include a pansystolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge, Carvallo’s sign (murmur increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), an S3 heart sound, and the presence of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation. Other signs can include giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often pulsatile), and edema with lung crepitations or pleural effusions.
The management of TR depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. In severe cases, valve repair or replacement surgery may be necessary. Treatment may also involve addressing the underlying conditions contributing to TR, such as managing left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm. The patient is sweating profusely and appears pale. The pain began 4 hours ago. ECG reveals 2-3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. 300 mg aspirin has been administered. Transporting the patient to the nearest coronary catheter lab for primary PCI will take 2 hours 45 minutes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:Fibrinolysis is a treatment option for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) if they are unable to receive primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 120 minutes, but fibrinolysis can be administered within that time frame. Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset. However, if primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given, fibrinolysis should be considered. Along with fibrinolysis, an antithrombin medication such as unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux, or bivalirudin is typically administered.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with recurring episodes of intense chest pain. These attacks have been happening in clusters during the past few weeks and consistently occur at night. An exercise tolerance test has been scheduled, and the results came back completely normal.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Decubitus angina
Correct Answer: Prinzmetal angina
Explanation:Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs during periods of rest, specifically between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. This condition is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, even though patients may have normal arteries. The main treatment options for controlling these spasms are calcium-channel blockers and nitrates. The spasms often follow a cyclical pattern and may disappear after a few months, only to reappear later on.
Unstable angina may present similarly to Prinzmetal angina, but it does not exclusively occur at night and the exercise tolerance test results are typically abnormal.
Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It is often a result of cardiac failure caused by increased intravascular volume, which puts extra strain on the heart.
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, also known as acute stress cardiomyopathy, can present in a manner similar to an acute myocardial infarction. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it tends to occur in individuals who have recently experienced significant emotional or physical stress. The term Takotsubo refers to the shape the left ventricle takes on, resembling an octopus pot with a narrow neck and round bottom. ECGs often show characteristic changes, such as ST-elevation, but subsequent angiograms reveal normal coronary arteries. The diagnosis is confirmed when the angiogram shows the distinctive octopus pot shape of the left ventricle.
There is no indication of a psychogenic cause in this particular case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You conduct an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer: QRS complex predominantly negative in leads V1 and V2
Correct Answer: Dominant R wave in V1
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, difficulty breathing, and heart palpitations. The patient reports that these symptoms began six hours ago. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are as follows:
- Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
- Pulse rate: 86 bpm
- Respiration rate: 15 bpm
- Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, confirming the presence of atrial fibrillation. As part of the treatment plan, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case is 2.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt tearing chest pain that extends to the throat and back. The possibility of aortic dissection is being considered. What is the primary location for dissection?
Your Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The primary location for aortic dissection, which is being considered in this case, is the ascending aorta.
Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.
The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.
Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.
Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?Your Answer: 12 hours
Correct Answer: 1.5 hours
Explanation:The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with central heavy chest pain that began 10 hours ago while the patient was sitting down watching television. The patient has previously refused treatment for high cholesterol and stage 1 hypertension. Physical examination reveals a mildly elevated blood pressure of 156/94 mmHg, but is otherwise unremarkable. The ECG shows ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V1-V3. Initial troponin results are negative, and a second high sensitivity troponin assay performed 3 hours later also returns negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Unstable angina
Explanation:Distinguishing between unstable angina and other acute coronary syndromes can be done by looking at normal troponin results. If serial troponin tests come back negative, it can rule out a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Unstable angina is characterized by myocardial ischemia occurring at rest or with minimal exertion, without any acute damage or death of heart muscle cells. The patient in question shows ECG and biochemical features that align with this definition. Vincent’s angina, on the other hand, refers to an infection in the throat accompanied by ulcerative gingivitis.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Stable angina
Explanation:Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.
On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.
Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.
It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.
Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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