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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions
Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old male presents to the hospital with a chief complaint of central chest pain, accompanied by nausea and sweating that has been ongoing for two hours. After eight hours of the onset of the pain, the following result is obtained:
Troponin T 30.8 ug/L (<10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Elevated Troponin T as a Marker of Cardiac Injury
This patient’s troponin T concentration is significantly elevated, indicating cardiac injury. Troponin T is a component of the cardiac myocyte and is normally undetectable. Elevated levels of troponin T are highly specific to cardiac injury and are more reliable than creatinine kinase, which is less specific. Troponin T levels increase in acute coronary syndromes, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction.
In this patient’s case, the elevated troponin T suggests a myocardial infarction (MI) due to the symptoms presented. Troponin T can be detected within a few hours of an MI and peaks at 14 hours after the onset of pain. It may peak again several days later and remain elevated for up to 10 days. Therefore, it is a good test for acute MI but not as reliable for recurrent MI in the first week. CK-MB may be useful in this case as it starts to rise 10-24 hours after an MI and disappears after three to four days.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include aortic dissection, which causes tearing chest pain that often radiates to the back with hypotension. ECG changes are not always present. Myocarditis causes chest pain that improves with steroids or NSAIDs and a rise in troponin levels, with similar ECG changes to a STEMI. There may also be reciprocal lead ST depression and PR depression. Pulmonary embolism presents with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, hypoxia, and hemoptysis. Pericardial effusion presents with similar symptoms to pericarditis, with Kussmaul’s sign typically present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old competitive swimmer visits the paediatric clinic after experiencing palpitations during races or intense training. She has never had shortness of breath or chest pain, but one persistent episode led her to the emergency department where an ECG was taken. Based on the shortening of one of the ECG intervals, a provisional diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome was made. What does this abnormal section of the ECG represent in terms of electrical activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The time between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation
Explanation:The PR interval on an ECG represents the duration between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation. In Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, an accessory pathway called the Bundle of Kent exists between the atrium and ventricle, allowing electrical signals to bypass the atrioventricular node and potentially leading to tachyarrhythmias. This results in a shorter PR interval on the ECG. Atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG, while the depolarisation of the sinoatrial node is represented by the p wave. The QT interval on the ECG represents the time between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation, not the PR interval.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of palpitations and shortness of breath for the past 6 weeks. She has a medical history of rheumatic fever and eczema.
During the physical examination, the patient exhibits a malar flush and a loud S1 with an opening snap is heard upon auscultation. Her heart rhythm is irregularly irregular. A chest x-ray is ordered and reveals a double heart border.
What other symptom is this patient likely to encounter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Difficulty swallowing
Explanation:The statement about left atrial enlargement compressing the esophagus in mitral stenosis is correct. This can lead to difficulty swallowing. The patient’s medical history of rheumatic fever, along with clinical signs such as malar flush, a loud S1 with opening snap, and an irregularly irregular heart rhythm (likely atrial fibrillation), suggest a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. This condition obstructs the outflow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle, causing the left atrium to enlarge and compress surrounding structures. Left atrial enlargement can also increase the risk of developing arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation.
The statements about arm and facial swelling, constipation, and neck pain are incorrect. Arm and facial swelling occur due to compression of the superior vena cava, which is not caused by left atrial enlargement. Constipation is not a symptom of mitral stenosis, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort due to right-sided heart failure. Neck pain is not associated with mitral stenosis, but neck vein distention may be observed.
Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation:The left coronary artery typically gives rise to the circumflex artery.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is currently receiving antibiotics for bacterial endocarditis and is worried about her future health. She asks about the common complications associated with her condition.
Which of the following is a typical complication of bacterial endocarditis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke
Explanation:The risk of emboli is heightened by infective endocarditis. This is due to the formation of thrombus at the site of the lesion, which can result in the release of septic emboli. Other complications mentioned in the options are not typically associated with infective endocarditis.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.
Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As a young medical trainee participating in the ward round for diabetic foot, your consultant requests you to evaluate the existence of the posterior tibial pulse. Can you identify its location?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle
Explanation:The lower limb has 4 primary pulse points, which include the femoral pulse located 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point, the popliteal pulse that can be accessed by partially flexing the knee to loosen the popliteal fascia, the posterior tibial pulse located behind and below the medial ankle, and the dorsal pedis pulse found on the dorsum of the foot.
Lower Limb Pulse Points
The lower limb has four main pulse points that are important to check for proper circulation. These pulse points include the femoral pulse, which can be found 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point. The popliteal pulse can be found with a partially flexed knee to lose the popliteal fascia. The posterior tibial pulse can be found behind and below the medial ankle, while the dorsal pedis pulse can be found on the dorsum of the foot. It is important to check these pulse points regularly to ensure proper blood flow to the lower limb. By doing so, any potential circulation issues can be detected early on and treated accordingly. Proper circulation is essential for maintaining healthy lower limbs and overall physical well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Where is the highest percentage of musculi pectinati located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The irregular anterior walls of the right atrium are due to the presence of musculi pectinati, which are located in the atria. These internal muscular ridges are found on the anterolateral surface of the chambers and are limited to the area that originates from the embryological true atrium.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of angina, hypertension, and hypercholesterolaemia has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). He was already taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril before his NSTEMI. As part of his post-discharge instructions, he has been advised to take ticagrelor for the next 12 months. What is the mechanism of action of this newly prescribed medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P2Y12 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Ticagrelor functions similarly to clopidogrel by hindering the binding of ADP to platelet receptors. It is prescribed to prevent atherothrombotic events in individuals with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and is typically administered in conjunction with aspirin. Additionally, it is a specific and reversible inhibitor.
ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath over the past 5 days. Last night she woke up suddenly because she couldn't catch her breath and developed a dry cough. Her breathing improved when she sat upright on the edge of her bed. She denies any chest pain, leg pain or fainting spells.
Her past medical history includes a myocardial infarction 5 years ago for which she underwent a coronary artery bypass graft, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She has been smoking for 30 years and doesn't drink any alcohol.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided heart failure
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is left-sided heart failure. This symptom, which involves sudden waking at night due to shortness of breath, is a common feature of heart failure, particularly on the left side. Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms. Right-sided heart failure is also an unlikely diagnosis as it presents with different features such as raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly.
Features of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.
Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.
In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
