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  • Question 1 - A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate acne. She has attempted using benzoyl peroxide from the drugstore. She discloses that she is presently attempting to get pregnant. Which of the subsequent acne treatments would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy poses a challenge when it comes to treating acne as many treatments can be harmful to the developing foetus. It is important to consider this issue before starting any treatment, especially in women of childbearing age who may not yet know they are pregnant.

      Retinoids, such as isotretinoin and adapalene, are not safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Dianette, a contraceptive pill, is not suitable for this patient who is trying to conceive. Antibiotics like oxytetracycline, tetracycline, lymecycline, and doxycycline can accumulate in growing bones and teeth, making them unsuitable for use during pregnancy. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is considered safe for use during pregnancy.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent 2 week wait referral to dermatology

      Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He was playing on the monkey bars at the playground and fell off, landing on his right arm. He started crying and complained that his right elbow hurt. He is now reluctant to move the elbow and holds it slightly flexed and pronated with the forearm held against the abdomen. There is no tenderness, swelling, bruising or deformity at the elbow.
      Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supracondylar fracture of the humerus

      Correct Answer: Radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Common Elbow Injuries in Children and Adults

      Radial head subluxation is a frequent injury in children under the age of 6 years. The rounded end of the radial head is still made of cartilage and can easily slip out of the encircling annular ligament when the arm is pulled. There is usually no history of trauma, but there may be a history of axial traction by a pull on the hand or wrist. Tenderness at the head of the radius may be present. Imaging is only necessary when a fracture is suspected. Manipulation can be done in the GP surgery by immobilizing the elbow with one hand and with the other hand applying axial compression while supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow. Alternatively, it can be done while pronating the forearm. A click indicates success.

      Supracondylar fracture of the humerus is most commonly seen in children and usually results from a fall on to an outstretched arm. The patient usually has elbow swelling and pain.

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic condition that peaks between 40 and 50 years of age. It is thought to be an overload tendon injury.

      Radial neck fracture occurs due to trauma such as a fall onto the outstretched arm. The median age is 9–10 years. There is pain, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral side of the elbow.

      In cases of suspected non-accidental injury, the explanation should be consistent with the injury, and in the absence of other features, non-accidental injury is unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      252.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
      Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:

      Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
      Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.

      Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
      Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.

      Myth: Systemic complications are common.
      Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.

      Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
      Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.

      Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship and has started having sexual intercourse while using condoms as contraception. She expresses her desire to switch to hormonal contraception and has chosen the combined contraceptive pill, Rigevidon, as she has no contraindications. During the consultation, you discover that she is on day 4 of her menstrual cycle. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the pill at this stage of her cycle?

      Your Answer: Start pill - there is no need for additional contraception

      Explanation:

      To avoid the need for additional barrier contraception, the woman should begin taking the pill immediately as she is currently menstruating and therefore not at risk of pregnancy. The combined contraceptive pill, except for Qlaira and Zoely, can be started within the first five days of a menstrual cycle without requiring further contraception. If started on day six or later, seven days of barrier contraception or abstinence is recommended. Waiting until day eight or the next menstrual period is unnecessary as the starting rules remain the same.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      303.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic for epileptic seizures. He has been given carbamazepine, a drug that induces cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes. Which medication would carbamazepine have the most significant interaction with?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      The Impact of CYP Inducers on Medications: A Case Study

      CYP inducers can have a significant impact on medications that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes. In the case of carbamazepine and ciclosporin, carbamazepine’s induction of the enzymes would increase the rate of metabolism of ciclosporin, potentially leading to decreased plasma levels and serious implications due to ciclosporin’s narrow therapeutic window. Paracetamol is also metabolized by CYP, and while it is not contraindicated with carbamazepine, the production of a hepatotoxic metabolite may be relevant in cases of overdose. Lithium, on the other hand, is excreted renally, so induction of P450 enzymes would not alter its excretion rate, but changes in renal function could still impact its plasma level. Penicillins have a wide therapeutic index, so the impact of CYP inducers or inhibitors is not significant. As for salicylate, there is currently no listed interaction with carbamazepine, making it unlikely to cause any issues in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test...

    Incorrect

    • A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively. What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?

      Your Answer: 3.25

      Correct Answer: 0.235

      Explanation:
      • Sensitivity (Sens): The probability that the test is positive given that the disease is present. In this case, it is 80% or 0.80.
      • Specificity (Spec): The probability that the test is negative given that the disease is not present. In this case, it is 85% or 0.85.
      • Likelihood Ratio for a Negative Test Result (LR): The ratio of the probability of a negative test result in patients with the disease to the probability of a negative test result in patients without the disease. It is calculated as:

        LR−=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      Calculation

      Using the provided sensitivity and specificity:

      • Sensitivity = 0.80
      • Specificity = 0.85

      Substitute these values into the formula for the negative likelihood ratio:

      LR=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      LR=(1−0.80)/0.85

      LR=0.20/0.85

       

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of repeated episodes of collapsing....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of repeated episodes of collapsing. She reports that these episodes happen suddenly while she is playing sports. The patient has no significant medical history or family history. During the physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Her blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and her pulse is 78 beats per minute. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is a more frequent cause of sudden death or unexpected collapse in young individuals compared to aortic stenosis.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that she underwent female genital mutilation (FGM) at the age of 16 and is still struggling with the trauma. She mentions that her three sisters also went through the same procedure but don't appear to be affected mentally. She feels embarrassed that she is the only one struggling while her sisters seem to be doing fine.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Suggest she arranges private counselling

      Correct Answer: Refer to local safeguarding procedures and refer to mental health services

      Explanation:

      If a female under 18 discloses that she has undergone genital mutilation, the mandatory reporting duty applies. However, in this case, the individual is over 18, so the duty doesn’t apply, and there is no need to involve the police.

      Instead, it is important to follow local safeguarding procedures and refer the individual to mental health services. It is recommended to refer her to mental health services rather than suggesting she self-refer or seek private counseling, as she may be hesitant to do so on her own. It is crucial to provide support and resources to help her cope with her feelings and experiences.

      If the individual chooses to involve the police, it is her decision to make.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      300
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who has been experiencing a painful erection for the past 6 hours. The patient had taken sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor, the previous night. The patient was diagnosed with myeloma 4 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment under the haematology team.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to the haematology team

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to the surgical team

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences priapism, urgent assessment in a hospital is necessary. While priapism is a rare side effect of taking PDE-5 inhibitors, patients with blood disorders such as sickle cell disease, multiple myeloma, or leukemia are at an increased risk.

      Priapism is considered a surgical emergency, and if it lasts for more than two hours, immediate referral to a hospital’s surgical team is required for treatment.

      If the priapism has been present for less than two hours, some measures may help resolve it. These include attempting to pass urine, taking a warm bath or shower, drinking plenty of water, going for a gentle walk, doing exercises like squats or running on the spot, and taking painkillers like paracetamol if necessary.

      Priapism is a condition where a man experiences a prolonged erection that lasts for more than 4 hours and is not related to sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic. Ischaemic priapism is caused by reduced blood flow to the penis, while non-ischaemic priapism is caused by increased blood flow. Priapism can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication, trauma, and underlying medical conditions such as sickle cell disease. Symptoms include pain and a persistent erection. Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and tests such as blood gas analysis and ultrasonography. Treatment for ischaemic priapism involves aspiration of blood from the penis, injection of a saline flush, and vasoconstrictive agents. Non-ischaemic priapism is typically observed. It is important to seek medical attention promptly as untreated priapism can lead to permanent tissue damage and long-term erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      29.4
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.

      You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.

      Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment

      A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      147.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 78-year-old woman is confused. She has become gradually more so over a...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is confused. She has become gradually more so over a period of some months. Which of the following features suggest a diagnosis of early Alzheimer's disease as opposed to delirium?

      Your Answer: Disorganised thought

      Correct Answer: Chronic course

      Explanation:

      Identifying Alzheimer’s Disease and Delirium

      Alzheimer’s disease and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive function. Alzheimer’s disease is a slow and chronic condition that leads to gradual deterioration, while delirium is a sudden onset of confusion and disorientation.

      Early signs of Alzheimer’s disease include a slow and chronic course with gradual deterioration. On the other hand, delirium is suggested by disorganised thought, poor attention, frequent fluctuations, and dysarthria.

      To learn more about delirium, the British Geriatrics Society offers a great education resource on their Delirium hub. For information on managing and preventing cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease, check out the BMJ Clinical Review. Additionally, the BMJ Practice provides resources for suspected early dementia.

      By understanding the differences between Alzheimer’s disease and delirium, individuals can seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?

      Your Answer: Open colpo-suspension operation

      Correct Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Urge Incontinence

      Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      344.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
      Select from the list the single most correct option.

      Your Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      8.8
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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with thrombolysis but no angioplasty. What guidance should he receive regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following a heart attack – refrain from driving for a period of 4 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and nausea. She has been experiencing these attacks several times a month for the past half-year. The patient has no comorbidities, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral triptan and propranolol prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of migraine, this patient should be prescribed an oral triptan along with either an NSAID or paracetamol for acute attacks. Additionally, prophylaxis should be considered as the patient experiences two or more attacks per month. Propranolol would be the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient, as she is of childbearing age and topiramate may not be suitable. Pizotifen is no longer recommended for migraine prophylaxis due to its common side effects, while verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 18 - You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a urinary tract infection and showed improvement after receiving antibiotics within 48 hours. She was discharged after 2 days. As per NICE guidelines, what follow-up (if any) should be scheduled?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan within 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a child under 6 months old has a UTI that responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours, an ultrasound scan should be done within 6 weeks. However, if the UTI is atypical or recurrent, additional tests such as ultrasound during the acute infection, DMSA 4-6 months after the acute infection, and MCUG are recommended.

      An atypical UTI may present with symptoms such as being seriously ill, poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, elevated creatinine, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or non-E. coli organisms. Recurrent UTI is defined as having two or more episodes of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection, one episode of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection plus one or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection, or three or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

      Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives...

    Incorrect

    • As an orthopaedic SHO in a paediatric orthopaedic outpatient clinic, Rina often receives GP referrals regarding limb development in children. What is a common normal variant in a child's limb development that can be managed with expectant care and referred back to the GP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flat feet aged 2 years old

      Explanation:

      Many referrals for orthopaedic outpatient care from general practitioners are actually normal variants. The defining characteristics of normal variants are that they are always symmetrical, painless, and improve with age.

      Genu varum, or bow legs, is a normal variant from birth until about 2 years of age. Referral should be considered if genu varum is asymmetrical or persists beyond 3 years of age. Severe cases may be indicative of vitamin D deficiency. Genu valgus, or knock knees, is a normal variant between 3-6 years of age. Again, referral should be considered if the valgus is severe or persists, and vitamin D deficiency may be a factor. Flat feet are a normal variant until age 3, and most cases resolve by age 8 as the foot arch develops. Arches should appear when the infant stands on their tip toes, and the foot should be flexible and painless. Painful rigid flat feet should always be referred and may suggest tarsal coalition.

      In-toeing has three main causes: metatarsus adductus (a congenital foot deformity), internal tibial torsion (feet internally rotated), and femoral anteversion (feet and knees internally rotated). The vast majority of cases resolve by around 8 years of age.

      Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.

      Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is taking the 20 microgram ethinyloestrodiol combined pill contacts the clinic to report that she has missed a dose. She is currently on day 10 of her pack and it has been 24 hours since she was supposed to take her previous day's pill. What is the most suitable guidance to give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take the missed pill with today's and carry on with the pack

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When it comes to missed birth control pills, most of the advice and evidence is based on studies of the 35 mcg oestrogen combined pill. However, it’s important to note that the risk of pregnancy with a missed 20 mcg pill may be higher than with a larger dose pill. Despite this, the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommends that women take the missed pill and continue with the pack. Additional contraception is not required in this case.

      If two or more pills are missed, it’s recommended to use barrier contraception for around seven days. It’s important to follow the instructions provided with your specific type of birth control pill and to speak with your healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 21 - A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He has developed a significant deterioration in his breathlessness over the last few days. He also complains of headache and dizziness.

      On examination he has a soft stridor and you notice some dilated veins on his chest wall.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide orally

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, with lung cancer and lymphoma being the most frequent culprits. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      Typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause dizziness and even syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

      Treatment for SVCO typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases. Although dexamethasone may be given as an acute treatment, it is not the best answer for this patient, who needs to be referred immediately for inpatient treatment and monitoring.

      In summary, SVCO is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and referral for specialist assessment. Treatment options include steroids, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and stent insertion, depending on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised by one week of catarrhal illness, followed by a dry hacking cough, which is now paroxysmal, and she has vomited twice after coughing.

      On examination, she is afebrile, and her chest sounds clear. She was previously well, but she is unsure of her vaccination history as she lived abroad as a child.

      She lives with her husband and two children, aged 18 months and 8. The children have not been immunised against pertussis. You suspect she may have pertussis.

      While awaiting confirmation, who should be offered antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nobody

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Pertussis

      When managing a suspected or confirmed case of pertussis, it is important to offer prophylactic antibiotics to reduce transmission if the case presents within 21 days of onset and a vulnerable contact is present in the household. All household contacts, regardless of age or immunisation status, should be offered antibiotics. Antibiotics may not alter the clinical course of the illness, but they can eliminate the organism from the respiratory tract, reducing person-to-person transmission. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to 10 years, pregnant women, healthcare workers, immunocompromised individuals, and those with chronic illnesses. The maternal pertussis vaccine programme has been highly effective in preventing disease for infants less than 2 months of age. Therefore, the definition of vulnerable infants has been amended to include unimmunised infants born ≤32 weeks, unimmunised infants born >32 weeks whose mothers did not receive maternal pertussis vaccine after 16 weeks and at least 2 weeks before delivery, and infants aged 2 months or over who are unimmunised or partially immunised. It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, including the management of pertussis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease is admitted to the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease is admitted to the Emergency Department with gastroenteritis. As she is being admitted to the medical ward, what steps should be taken regarding her steroid replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone dose, same fludrocortisone dose

      Explanation:

      When a patient with Addison’s disease experiences an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase their glucocorticoid dosage by two-fold. However, the dose of fludrocortisone should remain the same as usual, as it is not as crucial during times of illness. This is because individuals with Addison’s have limited or no natural steroid production, and the body typically responds to stress by increasing cortisol production.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.

      During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following features is least consistent with Trichomonas vaginalis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least consistent with Trichomonas vaginalis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      A pH level greater than 4.5 is linked to Trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis.

      Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis

      Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis are two common sexually transmitted infections that affect women. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while Trichomonas vaginalis is caused by a protozoan parasite. Both infections can cause vaginal discharge and vulvovaginitis, but Trichomonas vaginalis may also cause urethritis in men.

      The vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis is typically thin and grayish-white, with a fishy odor. The pH of the vagina is usually higher than 4.5. In contrast, the discharge in Trichomonas vaginalis is offensive, yellow/green, and frothy. The cervix may also appear like a strawberry. The pH of the vagina is also higher than 4.5.

      To diagnose bacterial vaginosis, a doctor may perform a pelvic exam and take a sample of the vaginal discharge for testing. The presence of clue cells, which are vaginal cells covered in bacteria, is a hallmark of bacterial vaginosis. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by examining a wet mount under a microscope. The motile trophozoites of the parasite can be seen in the sample.

      Both bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with antibiotics. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for both infections. For bacterial vaginosis, a course of oral metronidazole for 5-7 days is recommended. For Trichomonas vaginalis, a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
      Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
      During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
      What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients

      Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.

      Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.

      Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 26 - What is the likelihood of a first degree relative of someone with coeliac...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likelihood of a first degree relative of someone with coeliac disease also having the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 50

      Explanation:

      Importance of Testing First Degree Relatives for Coeliac Disease

      The prevalence of coeliac disease is high in individuals who have a first degree relative with the condition, with a rate of 1 in 10. This highlights the significance of offering testing to first degree relatives, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. This recommendation is supported by NICE, as untreated coeliac disease can lead to an increased risk of various diseases, such as lymphoma and gut malignancy. Therefore, early detection and treatment of coeliac disease in first degree relatives can help prevent the development of these serious health complications. It is crucial to raise awareness about the importance of testing for coeliac disease in families with a history of the condition to ensure that individuals receive appropriate care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no high-risk signs to suggest that admission to hospital is necessary and it is decided that the child should be looked after at home.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give to the parents regarding antipyretic interventions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs are only needed if the child appears distressed or unwell

      Explanation:

      Antipyretic Interventions for Children with Fever

      Antipyretic drugs, such as paracetamol and ibuprofen, are recommended for children with fever if they appear distressed or unwell. However, these drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature or prevent febrile convulsions. Over-wrapping or underdressing a child with fever should also be avoided.

      Either paracetamol or ibuprofen can be given, but ibuprofen should be avoided if the child is dehydrated. Both drugs are equally effective and well tolerated, but they should not be given at the same time. If one drug is not effective, the other drug may be added with caution over dosing intervals.

      Aspirin should not be given to children under 16 years old due to safety concerns about the risk of developing Reye syndrome. Ibuprofen and/or paracetamol are appropriate for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant according to her last menstrual period and has been feeling fine until 5 days ago when she started experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort that has been gradually intensifying. What should be avoided during her evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination for an adnexal mass

      Explanation:

      NICE advises against examining an adnexal mass as it may lead to rupture.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Women with ectopic pregnancy typically experience lower abdominal pain, which is often the first symptom. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen. Vaginal bleeding is another common symptom, which is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Women with ectopic pregnancy may also experience dizziness, fainting, or syncope.

      During a physical examination, doctors may find abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation, also known as cervical motion tenderness. However, they are advised not to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels above 1,500 suggest an ectopic pregnancy.

      In summary, ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Women who experience lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding should seek medical help immediately. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a flare-up of ulcerative colitis. What is the most commonly associated side effect of extended use of corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insomnia

      Explanation:

      Long-term steroid use often leads to psychiatric issues.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Passmed