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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Croup

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itching. He reports experiencing these symptoms at this time of year for the past few years, but this year they are worse and are interfering with his college attendance. He has no trouble breathing, no other medical issues, and takes no regular medications. His mother suggested he try putting vaseline around his nose, and he has taken some cetirizine, but it has not been effective thus far.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Change cetirizine to loratadine

      Correct Answer: Intranasal fluticasone furoate and continue regular antihistamine

      Explanation:

      For individuals with moderate-to-severe or persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, intranasal steroids are the recommended first-line treatment. They have been found to be more effective than oral antihistamines. Combining intranasal steroids with oral antihistamines can provide even better results.

      If a person experiences persistent watery rhinorrhea despite using both intranasal steroids and oral antihistamines, an intranasal anticholinergic like ipratropium bromide can be added to the treatment plan.

      In cases where symptoms are severe and significantly impacting quality of life despite optimal treatment, a short course of oral steroids may be considered. However, this should only be used for important life events.

      If symptoms remain uncontrolled despite optimal management, immunotherapy may be considered as a future option.

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump...

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    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump in her right breast. The patient reports that she first noticed the lump approximately two months ago and it has remained persistent without any noticeable increase in size. Upon examination, the GP observes a smooth, mobile 2 cm lump in the infero-lateral quadrant with no associated skin or nipple changes. The patient denies any family history of breast cancer and has no lumps in her axilla.

      What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's breast lump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine breast clinic referral

      Explanation:

      A woman under 30 years old who presents with an unexplained breast lump, with or without pain, may not meet the 2-week-wait referral criteria but can still be referred for further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is a fibroadenoma, which is a common benign breast lump that often occurs in younger women. These lumps are typically firm, smooth, and highly mobile, and can be described as a breast mouse due to their tendency to move away from the examiner’s hand. While a referral to a breast clinic is necessary, routine referral is appropriate given the low likelihood of cancer. There is no need to arrange mammograms or ultrasounds as these will be done by the breast clinic. Reviewing the patient in one month is unnecessary as the lump has persisted for two months and is not cyclical. Urgent referral to a breast clinic is not necessary given the patient’s age and low likelihood of breast cancer. According to NICE CKS, a 2-week-wait referral is recommended for those over 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump, or over 50 years old with unilateral nipple changes. Consideration of a 2-week-wait referral is also recommended for those over 30 years old with an unexplained lump in the axilla or skin changes suggestive of breast cancer.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. Similarly, if a person is 50 years or older and experiences discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should also be referred using this pathway. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, a non-urgent referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father. He is worried that she is not speaking as much as her peers, though she can say more than 60 words and uses them in short sentences. She prefers to play on her own and gets upset by changes in her daily routine.
      On examination, she reacts to quiet speech, but is shy and avoids eye contact.
      What is the most probable reason for her speech delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Austism spectrum disorder (ASD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Delayed Speech and Social Interaction in a 3-Year-Old Child

      Delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is autism spectrum disorder (ASD), which affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms developing before three years of age. Children with ASD may have absent or delayed speech, a lack of collaborative or imaginative play, or an impairment of non-verbal or social interactions. Another possible cause is deafness, which affects 1-2 per 1,000 newborns in the UK. Symptoms of hearing loss include speech impediments, delayed speech, or behavioural problems. However, deafness is not the most likely cause if the child reacts to quiet speech and exhibits other typical behaviours associated with autism. Learning disability is another possible cause, but with the classic additional features of autism in this case, it is not the most likely cause. Neglect and normal development can also be ruled out as possible causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child to provide appropriate interventions and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride level of 22 mmol/L. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and all other blood tests, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function, are within normal limits. There is no clear explanation for the elevated triglyceride level, and there are no prior lipid profiles available for comparison. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He reports no symptoms or feelings of illness.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer routinely for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that increases the risk of pancreatitis, making prompt management crucial. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided specific guidance on how to manage this condition.

      If the triglyceride level is above 20 mmol/L and not due to alcohol excess or poor glycaemic control, urgent referral to a lipid clinic is necessary. For levels between 10 mmol/L and 20 mmol/L, a fasting sample should be repeated no sooner than 5 days and no longer than 2 weeks later. If the level remains above 10 mmol/L, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridaemia should be considered, and specialist advice should be sought.

      For those with a triglyceride level between 4.5 and 9.9 mmol/L, clinicians should consider that cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk may be underestimated using risk assessment tools such as QRISK. They should optimize the management of other CVD risk factors, and specialist advice should be sought if the non-HDL cholesterol level is above 7.5 mmol/L.

      In summary, the management of hypertriglyceridaemia requires careful consideration of the triglyceride level and other risk factors. Early referral to a lipid clinic and specialist advice can help prevent complications such as pancreatitis and reduce the risk of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:

      Temperature 38.5 degrees
      Heart rate 160 bpm
      Respiratory rate 40 / min
      Oxygen saturation 95%

      The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.

      According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough,...

    Incorrect

    • Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak

      Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.

      Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.

      It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.

      Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance

      Explanation:

      If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.

      The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.

      While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.

      The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever, urinary frequency, and dysuria. A urine dipstick test is done on a fresh urine sample which shows positive for nitrites and negative for leucocytes. She has no signs of systemic illness and no abdominal or loin symptoms. The child has been healthy in the past and has never had a urinary tract infection. What is the best initial management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat as a UTI with antibiotic but do not send urine for culture

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common issue in children, but managing them can be challenging. To effectively manage UTIs in children, it is important to know when to use urine dipstick testing and when to send urine for culture.

      In infants and children over 3 months old with suspected UTIs, a urine dipstick test should be performed on a fresh urine sample. If the test is positive for nitrites and negative for leukocytes, antibiotics should be started, and a fresh urine sample should be sent for culture to confirm the diagnosis. The results should be reassessed.

      If the dipstick test is positive for nitrites and leukocytes, antibiotics should be started for a UTI. Urine should only be sent for culture if the child is under 3 years old, there is suspected pyelonephritis, there is a risk of serious illness, there is a past history of UTI, or there is no response to treatment and a urine sample has not already been sent.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage UTIs in children and ensure appropriate use of urine dipstick testing and urine culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus

      Explanation:

      There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.

      Understanding Zika Virus

      Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT)....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has a history of cardiac failure and is currently taking ramipril 5 mg BD, bisoprolol 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg OD and furosemide 40 mg OD.
      Upon examination, his right calf measures 2 cm larger than the left (when measured 10cm below the tibial tuberosity) and there is mild erythema of the skin on the right lower leg. Palpation of the back of the right calf elicits some tenderness. He also has mild bilateral pitting oedema of the feet that is symmetrical when comparing both feet.
      Which of the following would earn one point when calculating his two-level DVT Wells score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The size difference of the calves

      Explanation:

      Two-Level DVT Wells Score

      A Two-Level DVT Wells score is a tool used to determine the likelihood of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient. The score is calculated based on several factors, including cancer, recent immobilization, major surgery, tenderness along the deep venous system, leg swelling, pitting edema, non-varicose collateral superficial veins, and past medical history of DVT.

      A score of one point is given for each of these factors, except for past medical history of DVT, which automatically scores one point. Two points are subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely. If the score is two points or more, the probability of a DVT is likely, while a score of one point or less indicates an unlikely probability.

      It is important to note that in this case, the swelling is not greater than 3 cm and the minimal pitting is equal on both sides, which may affect the overall score and probability of a DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 12 - How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intradermally

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.

      The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.

      There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old patient has recently started to take an ACE inhibitor for heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient has recently started to take an ACE inhibitor for heart failure. You are reviewing his urea and electrolyte results and you notice that there has been a drop in his eGFR.

      What percentage reduction in eGFR is the threshold for further action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Monitoring U&Es when taking ACE inhibitors

      Regular checks on U&Es are recommended for patients taking or initiating ACE inhibitors. As a GP, it is important to review your own results and those of your colleagues to identify abnormal results and take appropriate action.

      If the eGFR drops by 25% or more or there is a rise in creatinine of 30% or more, intervention is recommended. This could be due to concomitant use of diuretics or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. If other possible causes are eradicated and the problem persists, it may be necessary to reduce the dose of ACE inhibitor or stop it altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 14 - For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to...

    Incorrect

    • For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan

      Explanation:

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small scaly pink growths on his forehead and two on his forearms. He reports having had these growths before and they were typically treated with cryotherapy. No other notable growths are observed.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for this patient’s likely actinic keratoses is topical diclofenac. Other options include topical imiquimod and topical 5-fluorouracil, but they may cause skin irritation. Punch biopsies are not necessary in this case, as the lesions are typical for actinic keratosis and have been treated before. Referral to a dermatologist is not needed at this stage, but it should be considered if squamous cell carcinomas are suspected. Shave biopsies are not required either. Topical corticosteroids are not appropriate for Premalignant skin lesions.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - What are the indications for tonsillectomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the indications for tonsillectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parental pressure

      Explanation:

      Indications for Tonsillectomy

      The SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy have been updated to suggest seven acute attacks of proven tonsillitis in one year or five in each of two successive years as an indication for the procedure. Weight loss alone is not a sufficient indication, but complications such as nephritis and rheumatic fever, as well as peritonsillar abscess, are. Children with obstructive sleep apnoea have also been shown to benefit from tonsillectomy. Malignancy is an absolute indication. However, three attacks in two years and two attacks in two months are considered too short a period to warrant tonsillectomy. It is important to note that while children may experience an improvement in general health post-tonsillectomy, weight loss alone is not a valid indication for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the surgery seeking advice on contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the surgery seeking advice on contraception. She has started a new relationship and has only relied on condoms before. Her BMI is 34 kg/m² and she has no significant medical history. What is the accurate statement about her contraceptive choices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desogestrel 75 mcg od would be a suitable choice

      Explanation:

      While the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) may be restricted for obese patients, all other contraceptive options are considered safe with a UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) rating of 1. It has been established that Depo-Provera may lead to weight gain, but there is no indication that the dosage of progestogen-only pills or other forms of contraception needs to be altered for obese patients.

      Contraception for Obese Patients

      Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.

      It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.

      In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a prescription for orlistat. What is the most probable comorbid condition that would prevent the prescription of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it can cause loose stool or diarrhea if a low-fat diet is not followed strictly. It is crucial to consider the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics or the contraceptive pill. Orlistat can increase gut transit time, leading to reduced absorption and efficacy of critical medications. The BNF lists the combination of antiepileptics and orlistat as a red interaction.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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