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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old lady, who has a history of hay fever, visited your clinic...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady, who has a history of hay fever, visited your clinic complaining of bilateral itchy, watery, and red eyes that have been bothering her for the past three days. She reported no discharge and no changes in her vision. You prescribed topical ocular mast cell stabilizers, but she returned two days later, stating that her symptoms have not improved. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Continue with the same treatment

      Explanation:

      Vernal Conjunctivitis and Treatment Options

      A patient with a history of hay fever who presents with itchy, red, and watery eyes may be suffering from vernal conjunctivitis, which is often associated with hay fever or atopy. In such cases, topical mast cell stabilizers are a good option for treatment. However, it is important to inform the patient that the drops may not take immediate effect and may take a few days to work. Ocular topical antibiotics would not be appropriate for vernal conjunctivitis. If the condition worsens despite treatment, ophthalmology referral should be considered. It is important to note that vernal conjunctivitis is a chronic condition that requires long-term management, and patients should be advised accordingly. By providing appropriate treatment and advice, clinicians can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for...

    Incorrect

    • During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.

      In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Children under 1 year of age

      Correct Answer: Pregnant women

      Explanation:

      Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?

      There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.

      Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.

      On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.

      The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      146.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). He is found to be in ventricular tachycardia and is successfully cardioverted. Further investigations reveal an underlying long QT syndrome, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is inserted. The man works as an HGV driver. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive HGV vehicles?

      Your Answer: Permanent bar

      Explanation:

      Regardless of the circumstances, the loss of HGV licence is indicated by ICD.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      302.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of stabbing pains on...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of stabbing pains on the right side of his face for the past two days. He also reports a new rash on the tip and right side of his nose.

      Upon examination, you notice a vesicular rash on the right side of his nose. However, his right eye appears normal, and he is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs. Based on these findings, you suspect a diagnosis of shingles.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is characterized by the presence of vesicles that extend to the tip of the nose and is strongly linked to shingles affecting the eyes. This sign indicates the possibility of eye inflammation, which can lead to permanent corneal denervation. Therefore, NICE recommends that patients showing this sign should be referred for immediate specialist assessment. Truncal shingles can be treated with antiviral medication, and oral steroids may be added to manage associated pain. However, steroid creams and antibiotics are not effective in treating shingles.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.

      The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.

      Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 8 - As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a 65-year-old who is in good health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Vaccines

      There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above.

      Moreover, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor treatment).

      Getting vaccinated against pneumococcal disease is important in preventing serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate vaccine and schedule for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe chest pain, radiating to the back and left shoulder. On examination, he is hemiplegic, with pallor and sweating. His heart rate is 120 bpm and his blood pressure is 174/89 mmHg, but 153/72 mmHg when measured on the opposite arm.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the thoracic aorta

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hemiplegia in a patient with chest pain

      Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, intracranial haemorrhage, ruptured thoracic aneurysm, and ruptured ventricular aneurysm are among the possible causes of chest pain and hemiplegia in a patient with a history of hypertension. Aortic dissection is the most likely diagnosis, given the abrupt onset and maximal severity of chest pain at onset, as well as the potential for carotid involvement and limb blood pressure differences. Myocardial infarction may also cause chest pain but is less likely to present with hemiplegia. Intracranial haemorrhage may cause hemiplegia but is more likely to present with a headache. Ruptured thoracic aneurysm may cause acute chest, back, or neck pain, but is unlikely to cause hemiplegia. Ruptured ventricular aneurysm is a complication of myocardial infarction but typically doesn’t rupture. A careful differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management and prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 10 month old daughter who has been experiencing a persistent nappy rash despite his best efforts to care for her skin. The baby seems uncomfortable but is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the nappy area shows patches of red, oozing skin with a few scattered pustules. The baby doesn't have a fever.

      What could be the reason for this skin reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Nappy rash is a common condition that affects infants who wear nappies. It is most prevalent between the ages of 9 and 12 months, but can also affect older children and adults who are incontinent.

      The rash typically appears as red patches and bumps in the nappy area, with the skin folds being spared. Infants may appear uncomfortable and distressed. It is important to look out for signs of secondary infection, especially if the rash persists despite initial treatment. Secondary bacterial infections can cause marked redness, exudate, pustules, papules or blisters. If a bacterial infection is suspected or confirmed, NICE recommends a seven-day course of flucloxacillin (or clarithromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin).

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and livedo reticularis. Additionally, thrombocytopenia is a common feature of this syndrome.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old male with a history of insulin dependent diabetes presents with persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with a history of insulin dependent diabetes presents with persistent abdominal bloating and vomiting. The gastroenterologist suspects gastroparesis. What would be the best initial course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Gastroparesis can cause persistent vomiting in a poorly controlled diabetic, and cyclizine is not a recommended treatment for this condition. Instead, prokinetic drugs such as metoclopramide or domperidone can be used. Amoxicillin is not useful in managing gastroparesis, but erythromycin can be used off-label as a prokinetic. While metformin is helpful in controlling diabetes, it is not involved in the acute management of gastroparesis.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance on managing his diabetes medications during Ramadan. He is currently taking metformin 500mg three times a day. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, it is recommended to take one-third of the usual metformin dose before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds after sunset. For further information, please refer to the Diabetes Care source.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.

      The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence and Incidence

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 17 - You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology...

    Incorrect

    • You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology test result is positive.

      What would be the next step in your management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intervention

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      Patients who are suspected of having coeliac disease and have positive serology test results should be referred to a gastroenterologist for further investigation. The gastroenterologist will perform an endoscopy and intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating gluten-containing foods until the biopsy is performed to ensure accurate results.

      While dietary advice may be helpful if coeliac disease is confirmed, it is more appropriate to first seek a referral to a gastroenterologist. There is no need to repeat the serology test if it is positive. For more information on how to interpret coeliac serology results, refer to the link provided below. Proper diagnosis and management of coeliac disease can greatly improve a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks for cervical screening due to a family friend's recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. She is currently on her third day of her period and has regular menstrual cycles. She has noticed more vaginal discharge and occasional bleeding after sex in the past two weeks. There is no significant family history. What is the best course of action to take at this point in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination + STI Screening

      Explanation:

      Women under the age of 25 years cannot receive cervical screening. Before considering referral to colposcopy, other possible causes should be ruled out first.

      As she is currently on day 2 of her menstrual period, pregnancy is unlikely. Given her new boyfriend and symptoms of increased vaginal discharge and occasional post-coital bleeding, a speculum examination and STI screening would be the most appropriate course of action.

      While cervical screening is not typically offered to women under 25, if the patient’s history strongly suggests cervical cancer and other possibilities have been eliminated, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.

      Although cervical cancer is rare in young women, it is still important to investigate the cause of her symptoms.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 19 - In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the...

    Incorrect

    • In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the United Kingdom from India with bowed legs, muscle spasms and a pigeon chest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Childhood disintegration disorder

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
    Which treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
      Which treatment option should the patient be offered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine before detoxification is attempted

      Explanation:

      Detoxification from Opioid Addiction: Best Practices and Considerations

      Detoxification from opioid addiction is a complex process that requires careful planning and monitoring. Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine is recommended before attempting detoxification. Both drugs are approved by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for substitute prescribing, for both detoxification and maintenance to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Patients may prefer a faster reduction at the start of a detoxification regimen, but a slower reduction over months or even years is also possible. It is important for patients to stay on their optimal dose of methadone until they have stopped using heroin completely and then reduce the dose at their own pace.

      Alcohol detoxification can occur simultaneously with heroin detoxification, but careful monitoring and support are crucial. Patients should be aware of the loss of opioid tolerance during and following detoxification, which increases the risk of overdose and death from any illicit drug use, especially when combined with alcohol or benzodiazepines.

      Detoxification with buprenorphine is also an option, and if the patient has been on methadone or buprenorphine for maintenance, detoxification should usually be undertaken using the same drug.

      There are no set time limits for a detoxification regimen, but a common regime is to come off methadone over 12 weeks with a reduction of around 5 mg every 1-2 weeks. Detoxification can be done as an inpatient or outpatient, depending on the patient’s needs and preferences. Community-based organisations often administer these types of substance abuse programmes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old patient passes away in a nursing home. You were familiar with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient passes away in a nursing home. You were familiar with her and are requested to fill out the death certificate. She has been experiencing a gradual decline over the past few weeks and died peacefully in her sleep. What could be a possible cause of death under certain conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Old age

      Explanation:

      Old age or frailty due to old age can only be listed as the cause of death if specific criteria are fulfilled. These include personally caring for the deceased over a long period, observing a gradual decline in their health and functioning, not being aware of any identifiable disease or injury contributing to the death, being certain that there is no other reason to report the death to the procurator fiscal, and the patient being 80 years or older. Other options such as terminal events or vague phrases like cardiovascular event are not appropriate as they do not identify a specific disease or pathological process.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
      She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
      Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
      Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities

      Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.

      Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.

      Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.

      Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 24 - A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy. What is the correlation between a low alpha-feto protein level and this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      AFP levels are elevated in cases of neural tube defects and reduced in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is created by the fetus during its development. When the levels of AFP are higher than normal, it may indicate the presence of certain conditions such as neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly), abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis), multiple pregnancy, Down’s syndrome, trisomy 18, and maternal diabetes mellitus. On the other hand, decreased levels of AFP may also be significant and should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right ankle. She also reports experiencing dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever. She returned from a trip to South America 4 weeks ago where she had unprotected sex. She has developed hard tender papules, scaly plaques, and pustules on her hands.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Arthritis Types: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis can present in various forms, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key features to look out for:

      Reactive Arthritis: This type is characterized by a triad of nonspecific urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. It may follow bacterial dysentery or exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Patients may also have Achilles tendonitis or plantar fasciitis, as well as circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagica, and skin lesions on the hands and feet.

      Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a rare type of arthritis caused by disseminated gonococcal infection. It presents with asymmetric migratory arthralgia, which tends to involve the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Symptoms may resolve spontaneously or evolve into septic arthritis.

      HIV-Associated Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with HIV may experience more severe symptoms of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis than non-HIV-infected patients. Reactive arthritis can also be severe in HIV-infected patients.

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with psoriatic arthritis share many features with those with reactive arthritis, including histologically identical skin lesions. However, patients with psoriasis have fewer constitutional symptoms but may have an asymmetric pattern, sausage digits, and distal interphalangeal joint involvement.

      Syphilitic Arthritis: This is a rare late feature of syphilis and presents as monoarthritis.

      By understanding the unique features of each type of arthritis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions

      Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The infant was born at home in the presence of a midwife. The midwife is concerned about the appearance of the feet of the infant. Both feet are involved and appear turned inwards and downwards.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Talipes equinovarus

      Explanation:

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as clubfoot, is a common birth defect that affects about 1 in every 1000 live births. It is characterized by a foot that points downwards at the ankle, with the midfoot deviating towards the midline and the first metatarsal pointing downwards. In most cases, it is a positional deformity that can be corrected with gentle passive dorsiflexion of the foot. However, in some cases, it is a fixed congenital deformity that may be associated with neuromuscular abnormalities such as cerebral palsy, spina bifida, or arthrogryposis. Treatment options depend on the degree of rigidity, associated abnormalities, and secondary muscular changes, and may involve conservative measures such as immobilization and manipulation or surgical correction.

      Genu valgum, or knock-knee, is a condition in which the knees angle in and touch each other when the legs are straightened. It is commonly seen in children between the ages of 2 and 5 and often resolves naturally as the child grows.

      Cerebral palsy is a neuromuscular abnormality that is only rarely associated with the presentation of talipes equinovarus.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hips is a condition that affects the hips and should not affect the appearance of the feet. While there have been reports of an association between idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus and developmental dysplasia of the hip, this link remains uncertain.

      Metatarsus adductus, or pigeon-toed, is a congenital foot deformity in which the forefoot points inwards, forming a C shape. It has a similar incidence rate to clubfoot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father. He is worried that she is not speaking as much as her peers, though she can say more than 60 words and uses them in short sentences. She prefers to play on her own and gets upset by changes in her daily routine.
      On examination, she reacts to quiet speech, but is shy and avoids eye contact.
      What is the most probable reason for her speech delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Austism spectrum disorder (ASD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Delayed Speech and Social Interaction in a 3-Year-Old Child

      Delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is autism spectrum disorder (ASD), which affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms developing before three years of age. Children with ASD may have absent or delayed speech, a lack of collaborative or imaginative play, or an impairment of non-verbal or social interactions. Another possible cause is deafness, which affects 1-2 per 1,000 newborns in the UK. Symptoms of hearing loss include speech impediments, delayed speech, or behavioural problems. However, deafness is not the most likely cause if the child reacts to quiet speech and exhibits other typical behaviours associated with autism. Learning disability is another possible cause, but with the classic additional features of autism in this case, it is not the most likely cause. Neglect and normal development can also be ruled out as possible causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child to provide appropriate interventions and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
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