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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has a temperature of 39.1°C, and there is tenderness in her abdomen during the examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole plus oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of jaw pain and...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of jaw pain and difficulty in fully closing their mouth. They explain that this issue arose while yawning. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers Danlos syndrome. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dislocated temporomandibular joint

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of atraumatic TMJ dislocation is yawning. Individuals with connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes have a higher susceptibility to atraumatic dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.

      The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.

      Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.

      If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.

      Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.

      Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.

      After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      12.6
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  • Question 3 - A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency department presents with abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient exhibits clinical signs of jaundice. The patient reveals that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B approximately 10 months ago but did not follow up on the recommended treatment. You decide to repeat his hepatitis serology.

      What findings would be anticipated in a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: Anti-HBc positive and HBsAg positive

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, the typical serology results would show positive anti-HBc and positive HBsAg. This indicates that the patient has a long-term infection with hepatitis B. The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates that the infection will persist for life, while IgM anti-HBc will only be present for about 6 months.

      If a patient has positive anti-HBs but all other serological markers are negative, it suggests that they have been previously immunized against hepatitis B. On the other hand, if a patient has positive anti-HBs along with positive anti-HBc, it indicates that they have developed immunity following a past infection.

      In the case of an acute hepatitis B infection that has been cleared more than 6 months ago, the serology results would typically show positive anti-HBc but negative HBsAg. This indicates that the infection has been successfully cleared by the immune system.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      11466.2
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  • Question 4 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. The patient is experiencing asystole, and adrenaline is given as part of the cardiac arrest protocol.
      Which ONE statement is NOT TRUE regarding the utilization of adrenaline in cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: In VF arrest it should be given before the 3rd shock

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline should be administered promptly once access to the circulatory system has been established in cases of non-shockable cardiac arrests such as PEA or asystole. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be given either as 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution or as 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution through the intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO) routes.

      In cases of shockable cardiac arrests like ventricular fibrillation (Vf) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT), adrenaline should be administered after the third shock has been delivered and chest compressions have been resumed. The same dose of 1 mg can be given using the same concentration options as mentioned earlier.

      Subsequently, adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions, without interrupting the compressions. The alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline cause constriction of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressures in the coronary and cerebral circulation.

      The beta-adrenergic effects of adrenaline have positive effects on the heart, increasing its contractility (inotropic) and heart rate (chronotropic), which may also enhance blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these benefits may be counteracted by increased oxygen consumption by the heart, the potential for abnormal heart rhythms, temporary decrease in oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow in the lungs, impaired microcirculation, and increased dysfunction of the heart after the cardiac arrest.

      While there is no evidence supporting the long-term benefits of adrenaline use in cardiac arrest cases, some studies have shown improved short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 42-year-old woman who has a background of schizophrenia. She was initiated on an atypical antipsychotic drug a few months ago and has since experienced significant weight gain.
      Which SPECIFIC atypical antipsychotic medication is most likely to be accountable for her weight gain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the atypical antipsychotic that is most likely to result in notable weight gain. Additionally, it is linked to the emergence of impaired glucose metabolism and metabolic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his asthma. You have...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his asthma. You have been asked to administer a loading dose of albuterol. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate loading dose for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 250 mg over 15 minutes

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a patient weighing 50 kg, the appropriate loading dose would be 250 mg. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What is a potential pre-renal cause of AKI in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases in the community are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These are often associated with conditions such as hypotension from sepsis or fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated in AKI.

      The table below summarizes the most common causes of AKI:

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., hemorrhage, severe vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Hypotension (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe cardiac failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, Abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular disease (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged ischemia
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular disease (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Renal stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal fibrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 9 - You are requested to evaluate a 6 year old girl. She was playing...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 6 year old girl. She was playing in the backyard when she suddenly burst into tears. Her mother suspects she stepped on a bee. Shortly after, her face began to swell and her breathing became rapid and noisy. Your diagnosis is anaphylaxis. What is the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150 micrograms by IM injection

      Explanation:

      The appropriate dose of adrenaline for treating anaphylaxis in children under 6 years old is 150 micrograms, which is equivalent to 0.15 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.

      When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.

      The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.

      In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.

      Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 10 - You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a peri-arrest arrhythmia. Laboratory results indicate that the patient has a significant deficiency of magnesium in their blood. After careful consideration, you determine that administering magnesium sulfate is necessary. What is the appropriate dosage regimen for this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2g IV given over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      To treat serious arrhythmia caused by hypomagnesaemia, it is recommended to administer 2 g of magnesium sulphate intravenously over a period of 10-15 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed