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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is worried about the appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but without success. What is the best course of treatment for her condition?
Your Answer: Topical terbinafine
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
Fungal nail infection is a common condition that affects many adults. If self-care measures and topical treatments are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line treatment recommended is Terbinafine, which is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. It is important to seek medical advice and follow the recommended treatment plan to effectively manage fungal nail infection. For further information, resources such as CKS Fungal nail infections, GP Notebook, and Patient.info can be consulted. The British Association of Dermatologists also provides guidelines for the treatment of onychomycosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.
In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her hands and face. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders
Vitiligo, Pityriasis alba, Albinism, Melasma, and Melanoma are all skin pigmentation disorders that affect people of different ages and ethnicities. Vitiligo is a rare autoimmune condition that destroys melanocytes, causing white patches on the skin. Pityriasis alba is a scaly, white patch that usually affects children’s facial skin. Albinism is a genetic disorder that reduces tyrosinase activity in melanocytes, resulting in a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises. Melasma is a condition of increased pigmentation, usually occurring underneath the eyes, and is common in pregnant women and oral contraceptive users. Melanoma is a malignant skin cancer that develops from melanocytes and is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles. Understanding these disorders can help individuals identify and manage their skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Oral antihistamines
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on her forearms. She has recently noticed a white lacy intra-oral lesion.
What is the most likely cause of this?Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Tinea Versicolour, Psoriasis, and Ringworm
Lichen planus is an inflammatory skin condition that affects both cutaneous and mucosal surfaces. It is characterized by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. Topical steroids and immunomodulators are used to treat it, as it can increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that presents with targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions such as sarcoidosis and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Tinea versicolour, also known as pityriasis versicolor, is a fungal skin infection that causes pale or dark patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.
Psoriasis is an autoimmune chronic skin condition that presents with erythematous plaques with overlying grey scale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.
Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal skin infection that causes erythematosus, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It is not usually seen on the scalp, groin, palms, and soles. The patches progressively enlarge and worsen, and can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles. Following central resolution, the lesions can remain annular.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a medical history, the doctor informs the mother that the skin lesions are likely caused by a viral infection.
What is the most probable condition that could be caused by a virus in this case?Your Answer: Impetigo
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that spreads through direct contact and causes pink papules with a central umbilicus. The lesions contain cheese-like material and can be treated with cryotherapy or imiquimod.
Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that affects the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, causing red, swollen, and painful skin. It is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by staphylococcal infections.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection that results in pustules and honey-colored, crusted erosions. It is commonly caused by S. aureus.
Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe bacterial infection that affects soft tissue and fascia. The bacteria release toxins and enzymes that lead to thrombosis and destruction of soft tissue and fascia. Bacterial causes include S. aureus and Clostridium perfringens, among others.
Overview of Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
What rash does the patient have?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome
Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.
Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.
Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.
Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.
In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the general practice surgery. Despite using aqueous cream regularly, Oliver has not seen much improvement. The general practitioner suggests trying a topical steroid cream. Which topical steroid would be the most suitable option to try next?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:Understanding Topical Steroid Creams for Atopic Eczema Treatment
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can be managed with the use of topical steroid creams. These creams come in different potencies, and it is important to use the least potent effective cream for children to avoid side effects. The first step in treatment is emollients such as aqueous cream, followed by mild potency hydrocortisone 1-2.5%. If there is no response, a moderately potent cream like Eumovate may be used. Potent creams like Betnovate and very potent creams like Dermovate are not appropriate next steps in management. Trimovate is a moderate steroid cream with antimicrobial effect. The goal is to achieve control of eczema and step down the ladder of potency until maintenance is achieved on the least potent agent. Understanding the different types of topical steroid creams can help in the effective management of atopic eczema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Emollients
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis
Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.
Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.
Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.
Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.
In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis
Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?
Your Answer: Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:
Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.
Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.
Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.
Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.
Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.
Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Topical 1% hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man came to the clinic during the summer with complaints of itching and blistering on his hands and forehead. Upon examination, small areas of excoriation were found on the backs of his hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
Explanation:Photosensitivity and Skin Lesions: A Possible Case of PCT
The distribution of the skin lesions in this case suggests that there may be a photosensitive element involved. While both lupus erythematosus and porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) are associated with photosensitivity, it is more commonly seen in PCT. This condition is characterized by blistering of the hands and forehead, which can lead to small scars and milia formation as they heal. Excessive alcohol intake is also a known risk factor for PCT.
Overall, the presence of photosensitivity and the specific distribution of the lesions in this case point towards a possible diagnosis of PCT. Further testing and evaluation will be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.
What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Add in psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation
Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy
Explanation:Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy
When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.
Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.
Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed patches of hair loss for the past three months without any associated itching. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive and has regular withdrawal bleeds. On physical examination, the patient appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region. What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?
Your Answer: Drug induced
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
Hair loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including autoimmune conditions and thyroid disease. In the case of alopecia areata, which is a type of hair loss characterized by discrete patches of hair loss, about 1% of cases are associated with thyroid disease. However, this type of hair loss is not typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which often presents with scarring alopecia. Androgenic alopecia, which is the most common type of hair loss in both men and women, typically causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas rather than discrete patches of hair loss. Over-treatment with thyroxine to cause hyperthyroidism or the use of oral contraceptives can also lead to general hair loss. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hair loss in order to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because she is concerned about patches of depigmentation on her skin. There are patches on the back of her hands and her elbows, but she is particularly concerned about depigmentation around her mouth and affecting her breasts. Her only other past history of note is a tendency to gain weight over the past few months. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Depigmented skin areas fluoresce bright blue-white on Wood’s lamp inspection.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Vitiligo, Lichen Planus, Leprosy, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Idiopathic Hypomelanosis
Vitiligo: This condition is characterized by depigmentation and is often associated with autoimmune diseases such as hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, and alopecia. It is caused by the destruction of melanocytes in the interfollicular dermis and can be treated with phototherapy, corticosteroids, and tacrolimus ointment.
Lichen Planus: This condition presents as a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape, often with a fine scale.
Leprosy: This infectious disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae and is most commonly found in South East Asia, Africa, and South America. Diagnosis requires the presence of reddish patches or hypopigmented areas of skin with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the presence of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies.
Pityriasis Versicolor: This common skin complaint is caused by the proliferation of the yeast Malassezia furfur and presents as flaky, discolored patches mainly on the chest and back.
Idiopathic Hypomelanosis: This condition is characterized by flat, white spots on the shins and forearms, typically appearing as part of the aging process and possibly due to sun damage. However, the age and distribution of the patient make this diagnosis doubtful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?Your Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions
There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.
Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.
Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.
Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.
Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Impetigo and its Causes
Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome
Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.
In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.
In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.
Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.
Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
(slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans
Explanation:Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis
Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.
What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?Your Answer: Inflammation of the epidermis
Correct Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation
Explanation:Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation
Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?
Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Correct Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Head Lice
Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:
Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.
Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.
Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.
Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.
Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.
In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Telangiectasia
Explanation:Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs
Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.
It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?
Your Answer: Blood for HIV antibody
Explanation:Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient
Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, with some areas appearing red and weeping. The dermatologist performed a skin biopsy, which revealed a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Skin Disorders: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Pemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis, Epidermolysis Bullosa, and Tuberous Sclerosis
Skin disorders can manifest in various ways, including blistering and erosions on the skin and/or mucous membranes. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with IgG autoantibodies to desmoglein 3 being a key characteristic. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic blisters on specific areas of the body, often associated with coeliac disease. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes fragile skin, while tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering. Diagnosis and treatment vary depending on the specific disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?
Your Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
What is the definitive management for this patient?Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Correct
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An 18-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of painful lesions on his face, neck, and upper back. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, the GP observes multiple pustules on erythematous bases that express serosanguinous fluid and occasional pus. Based on these findings, the GP makes a tentative diagnosis and recommends daily application of topical benzoyl peroxide. What structure is most likely responsible for the development of this patient's skin condition?
Your Answer: Sebaceous glands
Explanation:The Skin and its Glands: A Brief Overview
The skin is the largest organ of the human body and is responsible for protecting the body from external factors such as bacteria, viruses, and physical trauma. It is composed of several layers, with the outermost layer being the stratum corneum, a keratinised squamous epithelial layer.
One of the most common skin conditions is acne, which is caused by the sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles secreting sebum and plugging the hair follicle. If left untreated, acne can cause scars or pock marks after the lesions heal. Treatment options include benzoyl peroxide, tetracycline antibiotics, or retinoic acid.
Apocrine glands secrete a viscous, milky substance and are found in the axillary and genital regions. They become active during puberty and are associated with a characteristic foul odor due to bacteria consuming the fluid expressed from these glands.
Eccrine glands are sweat glands and are found all over the body. They play a crucial role in regulating body temperature and eliminating waste products.
Hemidesmosomes connect basal cells to the underlying basal membrane. Antibodies to hemidesmosomes can lead to the formation of bullous pemphigoid, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes blistering of the skin and mucous membranes.
Understanding the different glands and layers of the skin can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lupus pernio
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms
When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a growth on the left side of his cheek. The growth has been present for around six months, and it is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, it is a raised pearly papule with central telangiectasia and a rolled edge. The GP suspects it to be a basal cell carcinoma, measuring approximately 8 mm in diameter.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream
Correct Answer: Refer the patient routinely to Dermatology
Explanation:Management of Basal Cell Carcinoma: Referral and Treatment Options
Basal cell carcinomas (BCCs) are slow-growing skin cancers that require prompt referral to a dermatologist for assessment and management. While not urgent, referral should be routine to ensure timely treatment and prevent further growth and potential complications. Treatment options may include surgical excision, curettage and cautery, radiotherapy, or cryotherapy, depending on the size and location of the lesion.
5-fluorouracil cream and diclofenac topical gel are not recommended for the treatment of BCCs but may be used for pre-malignant lesions such as solar keratoses. Referral to oncology for radiotherapy may be considered, but dermatology should be consulted first to explore less invasive treatment options.
A watch-and-wait approach is not recommended for suspected BCCs, as delaying referral can lead to more extensive treatments and potential complications. All lesions suspected of malignancy should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
antiphospholipid antibody negative
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide
Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Correct
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An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asteatotic eczema
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration
Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.
Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.
Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces on his arms, attends a routine GP clinic with his mother. Despite regular liberal use of emollient cream, the symptoms have not improved significantly. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the child's eczema?
Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Referral Considerations
When a child presents with eczema, the first step is often to use emollient cream to manage the symptoms. However, if the eczema persists or worsens, a topical corticosteroid cream may be necessary. It is important to use this sparingly and in conjunction with emollients. While oral corticosteroids may be considered in severe cases, they should be used with caution and ideally under the guidance of a dermatologist. Emollient ointments may also be helpful, but a short course of topical corticosteroids is often more effective for managing flare-ups. If symptoms continue to worsen despite treatment, referral to a dermatology clinic may be necessary. Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone
Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Nodulocystic acne
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne
Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:
Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.
Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.
Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.
Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Should be given a course of oral steroids
Correct Answer: Might benefit from a diet free of cow's milk
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Infants
Eczema is a common skin condition in infants that can cause discomfort and distress. Cow’s milk allergy may trigger severe eczema, but switching to a soy-based formula may help alleviate symptoms. While complete cure may not be possible, appropriate preventative measures and topical preparations can minimize the condition’s impact. Most infants outgrow eczema by the age of 2-3 years.
There is no evidence to suggest that infants with eczema should not receive measles or pertussis immunization, but they should avoid immunization if they have a concurrent skin infection. Oral steroids are a last resort and are rarely used in infants with severe eczema. By following these guidelines, parents and caregivers can help manage eczema in infants and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Correct
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A General Practitioner is summoned to the nursing home to examine a 70-year-old man with dementia and severe pruritus. During the examination, the doctor observes excoriations on the patient's trunk and limbs. The patient also has scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scabies infestation
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is commonly transmitted through close contact and is prevalent in nursing homes and other institutions. The primary symptom of scabies is severe itching, and if present, burrows (linear crusted lesions) and penile papules are highly suggestive. The condition typically affects the web-spaces and around the nipples, with scalp involvement only occurring in young babies and debilitated adults. Excoriations are also common.
The treatment for scabies usually involves the use of permethrin, and close contacts should be treated simultaneously. Atopic eczema is unlikely to present at this age, and chronic kidney disease and diabetes are associated with several skin conditions but do not typically cause pruritus. Iron-deficiency anaemia may cause pruritus, but it is rarely as severe as scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Tinea corporis
Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes
Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:
Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.
Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.
Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.
Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide
Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:
Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.
Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.
Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?Your Answer: erythematosus nodule with lichenification
Correct Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation
Explanation:Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions
Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:
– Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
– Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
– Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
– Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
– Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
– Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
– Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
– Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
– Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
– Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
– Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
– Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
– Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
– Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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