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Question 1
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A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
antiphospholipid antibody negative
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide
Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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An 18-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of painful lesions on his face, neck, and upper back. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, the GP observes multiple pustules on erythematous bases that express serosanguinous fluid and occasional pus. Based on these findings, the GP makes a tentative diagnosis and recommends daily application of topical benzoyl peroxide. What structure is most likely responsible for the development of this patient's skin condition?
Your Answer: Sebaceous glands
Explanation:The Skin and its Glands: A Brief Overview
The skin is the largest organ of the human body and is responsible for protecting the body from external factors such as bacteria, viruses, and physical trauma. It is composed of several layers, with the outermost layer being the stratum corneum, a keratinised squamous epithelial layer.
One of the most common skin conditions is acne, which is caused by the sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles secreting sebum and plugging the hair follicle. If left untreated, acne can cause scars or pock marks after the lesions heal. Treatment options include benzoyl peroxide, tetracycline antibiotics, or retinoic acid.
Apocrine glands secrete a viscous, milky substance and are found in the axillary and genital regions. They become active during puberty and are associated with a characteristic foul odor due to bacteria consuming the fluid expressed from these glands.
Eccrine glands are sweat glands and are found all over the body. They play a crucial role in regulating body temperature and eliminating waste products.
Hemidesmosomes connect basal cells to the underlying basal membrane. Antibodies to hemidesmosomes can lead to the formation of bullous pemphigoid, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes blistering of the skin and mucous membranes.
Understanding the different glands and layers of the skin can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?Your Answer: Largest diameter of 5 mm or more
Correct Answer: Irregular shape or border
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions
The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
(slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans
Explanation:Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis
Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Correct Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with generalized pruritus and excoriation marks on his skin. He has visible needle track marks in his antecubital fossae and shiny nails. His sclerae appear normal and he denies any significant medical or surgical history. He works as a truck driver and has no significant exposure to industrial chemicals or organic dust. He has no family history of atopy and smokes six cigarettes a day while only drinking alcohol socially once a week. What is the most appropriate initial test to perform?
Your Answer: Blood for HIV antibody
Explanation:Investigating Pruritus in a Male Patient
Pruritus, or itching, can be a symptom of various underlying conditions. In the case of a male patient without apparent cause of pruritus, an HIV antibody test would be the most appropriate first-line investigation, along with other tests such as blood sugar, thyroid profile, and urea and electrolytes. This is because HIV infection can present with intractable pruritus before other symptoms appear. Allergen skin tests may be used in suspected allergic reactions, but they would be inappropriate in this case as there is no indication of such a reaction. The anti-M2 antibody test is used for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is a rare possibility in this case. A chest x-ray is not a useful first-line test as there is no indication of malignancy. Kidney diseases can give rise to pruritus, but there is no mention of kidney disease here. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history, including any potential risk factors such as IV drug abuse, which may be the source of infection. Further investigations may be necessary depending on the results of initial tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man came to the clinic during the summer with complaints of itching and blistering on his hands and forehead. Upon examination, small areas of excoriation were found on the backs of his hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
Explanation:Photosensitivity and Skin Lesions: A Possible Case of PCT
The distribution of the skin lesions in this case suggests that there may be a photosensitive element involved. While both lupus erythematosus and porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) are associated with photosensitivity, it is more commonly seen in PCT. This condition is characterized by blistering of the hands and forehead, which can lead to small scars and milia formation as they heal. Excessive alcohol intake is also a known risk factor for PCT.
Overall, the presence of photosensitivity and the specific distribution of the lesions in this case point towards a possible diagnosis of PCT. Further testing and evaluation will be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?
Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.
Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
What is the definitive management for this patient?Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man on the Stroke Ward has been found to have a grade 2 pressure ulcer over his sacrum.
Which of the following options correctly describes a grade 2 pressure ulcer?Your Answer: Partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration
Explanation:Understanding the Different Grades of Pressure Ulcers
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are a common problem for people who are bedridden or have limited mobility. These ulcers can range in severity from mild to life-threatening. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers is important for proper treatment and prevention.
Grade 1 pressure ulcers are the most superficial type of ulcer. They are characterized by non-blanching erythema of intact skin and skin discoloration. The skin remains intact, but it may hurt or itch, and it may feel either warm and spongy or hard to the touch.
Grade 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and ulceration. Some of the outer surface of skin (epidermis) or the deeper layer of skin (dermis) is damaged, leading to skin loss. The ulcer looks like an open wound or a blister.
Grade 3 pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss involving damage/necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Skin loss occurs throughout the entire thickness of the skin and the underlying tissue is also damaged. The underlying muscles and bone are not damaged. The ulcer appears as a deep, cavity-like wound.
Grade 4 pressure ulcers are the most severe type of ulcer. They involve extensive destruction (with possible damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures). The skin is severely damaged and the surrounding tissue begins to die (tissue necrosis). The underlying muscles or bone may also be damaged. People with grade 4 pressure ulcers have a high risk of developing a life-threatening infection.
It is important to note that any ulcer with focal loss of skin integrity ± pus/blood is not a pressure ulcer and may require different treatment. Understanding the different grades of pressure ulcers can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus
Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.
Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.
What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Add in psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation
Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy
Explanation:Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy
When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.
Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.
Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He has no significant medical history, but is currently staying at his sister's house due to marital issues. He reports that the itching is most severe at night. Upon examination, he has several linear erythaematous lesions on the backs of his hands and between his fingers.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 h
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but is more prevalent in individuals with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.
While emollient cream can be applied regularly from the neck down, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, 5% Hydrocortisone cream applied twice daily to the hands will not address the underlying infestation. Oral antihistamines may provide relief from the symptomatic itch, but they do not treat the underlying infestation.
In cases where Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment for scabies. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off. It is important to follow the instructions carefully and consult a healthcare professional if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.
Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.
Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.
During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.
What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?Your Answer: Urticaria pigmentosa
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes
Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:
Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.
Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.
High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.
Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous café-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.
Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules, and comedones. She experienced acne during her adolescent years, and it has continued to persist. Her weight and menstrual cycle are normal, and there is no hirsutism. What is a probable cause of her condition?
Your Answer: Bacteria
Explanation:Understanding the Aetiology of Acne: Factors and Myths
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects individuals beyond their teenage years, particularly women. The presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes, a normally commensal bacteria, is a significant factor in the development of acne. Other aetiological factors include genetic predisposition, seborrhoea, sensitivity to normal levels of circulating androgen, blockage of the pilosebaceous duct, and immunological factors. Polycystic ovary syndrome is an unlikely cause of acne. P. acnes thrives in acne lesions due to elevated sebum production or follicle blockage, triggering inflammation. Diet and poor personal hygiene are not involved in the aetiology of acne. Combined oral contraceptives can be beneficial in treating acne. It is a myth that chocolate or dirt causes acne. Understanding these factors and myths can help in the effective management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Isotretinoin
Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline
Explanation:Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline
Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.
The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?
Your Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?Your Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions
Explanation:Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection
Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.
While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work lately presents with an itchy, red rash above the right corner of his mouth. The rash appeared 4 months ago, went away briefly, and then returned. He has used a topical corticosteroid to alleviate the symptoms, but had to discontinue it due to a flare-up of his facial acne. He admits to drinking excessive amounts of alcohol recently. On examination, there is a poorly defined red rash on the right side of his face, affecting the nasolabial fold. Additionally, there are fine, oily scales present.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is characterized by an ill-defined, itchy, erythematosus rash with fine, greasy scales. It typically affects the scalp, nasolabial fold, or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: Often seen in patients with coeliac disease and malabsorption, this condition presents with intensely itchy grouped vesicles/papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbow, knee, upper back, and buttocks.
Lichen Planus: This condition is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, red to violaceous polygonal papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrists.
Atopic Dermatitis: This condition involves flexural regions in adult patients and is often associated with a history of atopy. The acute form of atopic dermatitis presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.
Psoriasis: This condition is characterized by thick, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees.
Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Scabies Infection
A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.Atopic Dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.Folliculitis
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.Erythema Infectiosum Infection
Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.Keratosis Pilaris Infection
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?
Your Answer: Tinea corporis
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes
Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.
Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.
Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.
Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.
Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.
Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis
Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide
Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:
Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.
Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.
Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old teacher, has recently discovered a suspicious spot on her left arm. Worried about the potential of skin cancer, she has been researching online to learn how to identify malignant melanoma.
What are the ABCDE characteristics that Samantha should be monitoring?Your Answer: Asymmetry, border irregularity, colour variation, diameter >6mm, evolving
Explanation:Understanding the ABCDE Criteria for Skin Lesion Screening
Skin cancer, particularly malignant melanoma, is becoming increasingly common. To aid in early detection, the ABCDE criteria is a widely used tool in screening for melanoma. The criteria includes Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter greater than 6mm, and Evolving. Other screening criteria, such as the Glasgow criteria, can also be used. It is important to note that an elevated lesion does not necessarily indicate pathology, and that crusting lesions should be examined carefully for other signs of suspicion. By understanding and utilizing these criteria, healthcare professionals can aid in the early detection and treatment of skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
Which treatment plan is most appropriate?Your Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.
There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.
In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.
For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.
In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus presents with symmetrical reticulated, violaceous patches. These patches become more prominent in cold weather and involve both lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. This occurs due to the dilation of capillary blood vessels and the stagnation of blood within these vessels. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
Livedo reticularis can be idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, or it can be secondary to other conditions such as malignancy, vasculitis, SLE, or cholesterol embolization. The condition is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries, which leads to the discoloration of the skin.
In summary, livedo reticularis is a skin condition that causes a net-like pattern of blue or purple discoloration on the skin. It is caused by the accumulation of blood in the capillaries and can be idiopathic or secondary to other conditions. The condition is more pronounced in cold weather and is commonly found on the legs, arms, and trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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