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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of blurred vision in his left eye for the past week. Upon examination, his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 and his left eye has a visual acuity of 6/18. No pupillary defect is observed. Dilated fundal examination shows extensive retinal haemorrhages in all quadrants of the left retina, along with dilated tortuous retinal veins. The right fundus appears normal. The patient has not seen his doctor in the last ten years. He describes himself as healthy and is not taking any regular medication. However, his blood pressure is 185/100 and his random blood sugar is 12 mmol/l. What is the most probable ocular diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a common type of retinal vascular disorder that can lead to vision loss. It occurs when the vein that carries blood away from the retina becomes blocked, usually due to thickening of the adjacent arteriole. Risk factors for CRVO include arteriosclerosis and hyperviscosity.
Symptoms of CRVO include painless and unilateral visual loss, with more severe cases presenting with widespread retinal haemorrhages, engorged veins, retinal oedema, and a swollen optic disc. However, less severe cases may also occur.
It is important to differentiate CRVO from other retinal disorders, such as diabetic retinopathy, branch retinal vein occlusion, hypertensive retinopathy, and ocular ischaemic syndrome. Diabetic retinopathy is associated with retinal haemorrhages, but these are unlikely to be unilateral. Branch retinal vein occlusion affects only part of the retina, while hypertensive retinopathy should be bilateral and accompanied by other changes. Ocular ischaemic syndrome is a rare condition associated with severe carotid artery occlusive disease, causing dot-and-blot haemorrhages within the mid-periphery and dilated retinal veins.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and risk factors of CRVO can help with early detection and treatment, preventing further vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the suggested amount of prednisolone for kids aged 3-17 years who experience a worsening of their asthma symptoms?
Your Answer: 1-2 mg/kg od for 3-5 days
Explanation:For the treatment of asthma in children, the recommended dose of prednisolone is 1-2 mg/kg once daily for a period of 3-5 days.
The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.
What is a potential adverse effect associated with denosumab therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atypical femoral fractures
Explanation:Although denosumab is usually well tolerated, it has the potential to cause atypical femoral fractures.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired glucose tolerance. By the time she visits you she has succeeded in losing 3 kg in weight. You decide to give her a trial of orlistat and behavioural therapy.
What is the mode of action of orlistat?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orlistat is a pancreatic and gastric lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat: A Weight Loss Medication
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits the breakdown and absorption of dietary fat by blocking pancreatic lipase. This means that the fat ingested by a person taking orlistat continues to pass through their gut. However, if the patient doesn’t maintain a low-fat diet, they may experience oily diarrhoea.
Orlistat is typically used in combination with a low-fat diet for individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or higher, or for those with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or higher who have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, or hypercholesterolaemia. It is important to note that orlistat should be used in conjunction with other lifestyle measures to manage obesity.
If a person taking orlistat has lost at least 5% of their initial body weight since starting the medication, it may be continued beyond three months. However, treatment should only be continued beyond 12 months, usually to maintain weight loss, after discussing potential benefits and limitations with the patient. It is also important to note that weight loss may gradually reverse upon stopping orlistat.
In conclusion, orlistat is a weight loss medication that can be effective when used in combination with a low-fat diet and other lifestyle measures. However, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and limitations with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies has been developed known as the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). The test is hoped to be an improvement on the previous stool tests as the FIT targets human haemoglobin.
The researchers would like to determine the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in a study involving 3000 participants aged 50 and above. All participants undergo a FIT and are subsequently evaluated with colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard test.
Out of the 1200 participants who tested positive on the FIT, 800 were later confirmed to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.
On the other hand, out of the 1800 participants who tested negative on the FIT, 100 were later found to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.
What is the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 95%
Explanation:The specificity of the test is 0.95 or 95%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her carer. She lives in sheltered accommodation and has carers twice a day to help with washing, dressing and meal preparation. Typically, she enjoys crosswords and is able to mobilise around the house with the help of a walking stick. Over the past two days, she has become restless and agitated. When the carer arrived that morning, she had been very combative and refused to get dressed.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital for assessment, monitoring and treatment
Explanation:Managing Delirium in Hospitalized Patients
When a patient presents with delirium, it is important to take immediate action to ensure their safety and well-being. Admission to the hospital for assessment, monitoring, and treatment is typically necessary. The decision to admit should take into account the patient’s clinical and social situation, as well as the input of family members or caregivers. If the patient lacks capacity, decisions should be made in their best interests using the Mental Capacity Act 2005.
Once the patient has recovered from delirium, it is important to review them to ensure there are no underlying memory concerns that would warrant a referral to the Memory Clinic. Physical restraints, such as cot sides, should be avoided in patients with delirium. Instead, strategies to maintain safe mobility should be employed, such as encouraging walking or active range of motion exercises.
A computed tomography head may be indicated if there has been a recent head injury or a subdural hematoma is suspected, or if the patient may have underlying dementia. However, if an acute cause is suspected, the patient needs admission to the hospital. If dementia is suspected, then referral to the Memory Clinic once the patient has recovered from delirium is recommended.
Pharmacological measures are a last resort for severe agitation or psychosis that may be recommended by specialists. Short-term, low-dose haloperidol may be suggested, but benzodiazepines are not usually recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage delirium in hospitalized patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes (drug B). A recently published paper appears to show very favourable results for this drug. A brief extract is given below.
‘Patients were recruited from outpatient clinics to receive drug B. A questionnaire developed by the trial coordinator was filled out by the clinician if they felt a patient might be suitable for the trial and these were collated by the trial coordinator. Baseline blood tests were taken at this time. Suitable patients were then selected by the coordinator and invited to join the trial. The group had the following characteristics: 32% female, 96% white, 2% black, 2% Asian. They were given drug B to take for a 12-month period. At the end of the trial questionnaires were given out to patients who were still taking the drug to evaluate side-effects and repeat blood tests were taken.’
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the trial described above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The study design is prone to inclusion bias
Explanation:Limitations of a Diabetes Study
The Limitations of a Diabetes Study are evident in the inclusion of patients based on the clinician and coordinator’s discretion, leading to inclusion bias. This bias may result in a higher representation of English-speaking white patients, while Asians and black patients are under-represented. Additionally, the study only followed patients who completed the trial, excluding those who dropped out due to side-effects, resulting in a lack of intention-to-treat analysis. Furthermore, there is no information on whether the study was placebo-controlled. These limitations suggest that the study’s findings may not be representative of the broader diabetic population in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which drug, prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, has been cautioned by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency for its potential to cause severe pancreatitis and renal impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exenatide
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her optician. She has had no visual problems prior to the assessment. The assessment revealed early nuclear sclerotic cataracts bilaterally. Her corrected visual acuity today is 6/5 in the right eye and 6/5 in the left eye.
What is the most appropriate action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:Understanding Cataracts and Driving Requirements
It is common for individuals to develop nuclear sclerotic cataracts as they age. However, there is no need for referral unless there is a visual impairment that affects the patient’s lifestyle. If a person has a visual acuity of 6/5, it means they can read at a distance of six meters what a person with normal vision can read at five meters. Therefore, if a patient has excellent vision, they are unlikely to benefit from new glasses.
There is no indication for a person to stop driving if they meet the minimum eyesight standard for driving, which is a visual acuity of at least 6/12 measured on the Snellen scale. To drive legally, a person must also be able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from a distance of 20 meters, with glasses or contact lenses if necessary.
It is important to note that YAG laser capsulotomy is a procedure carried out for posterior capsular opacification, which can develop after cataract extraction. This procedure is not necessary for a patient with nuclear sclerotic cataracts and would not benefit them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What is a concerning sign to look out for in one of her charges?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarah aged 10 months preferentially uses her right hand to pick up toys
Explanation:Red flags in child development serve as warning signs that can indicate a possible developmental delay. The following table outlines some common red flags to look out for:
Age Red Flags
Birth-3 months Consistent clenching of fists before 3 months of age, rolling over before 3 months
4-6 months Lack of smiling by 10 weeks, failure to reach for objects by 5 months
6-12 months Persistence of primitive reflexes after 6 months
12-24 months Demonstrating hand dominance before 12 months may be a red flag for hemiparesis, inability to walk independently by 18 months, and difficulty using a spoon, which typically develops between 12-15 months.Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a fall a few months ago resulting in a Colles' fracture of her right wrist. A DEXA scan has confirmed that she has osteoporosis. She mentions that she has lost over a stone in weight in the past year despite having a good appetite and wonders if her weight loss could be contributing to her 'thin bones'. She also reports a change in bowel habit with looser stools, but no rectal bleeding or alternating bowel habit. She experiences frequent hot flashes and sweating episodes, and her periods have become less frequent. On examination, her blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and she is apyrexial. Palpating her radial pulse reveals palmar erythema, warm peripheries, and a slight tremor. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses, and per rectal examination is normal.
What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Osteoporosis
There are various secondary causes that should be considered when diagnosing osteoporosis. While primary osteoporosis occurs naturally with age and menopause, certain risk factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, family history, and low body mass index can exacerbate bone density loss. However, secondary causes can be treated specifically, making it important to identify them.
Endocrine causes such as hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism, Cushing’s syndrome, and premature menopause can lead to osteoporosis. Inflammatory causes like rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease, iatrogenic causes such as the use of steroids, anticonvulsants, and heparin, malignant causes like myeloma and leukaemias, and gastrointestinal causes like malabsorption problems can also contribute to osteoporosis.
For instance, a woman of menopausal age with osteoporosis confirmed on DEXA scanning following a Colles’ fracture reports weight loss, looser stools, sweating episodes, and oligomenorrhoea. Clinical examination reveals a modest tachycardia, warm peripheries, palmar erythema, and a tremor. In this case, hyperthyroidism is suspected as the cause of osteoporosis at a relatively young age and the signs and symptoms elicited. Therefore, thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has been going on for 6 months. She reports experiencing episodes that last from a few minutes to several hours, accompanied by tinnitus and decreased hearing in her left ear. She denies any identifiable triggers that worsen her symptoms. She has no significant medical history. Her ear and cranial nerve examinations are normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ménière's disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours, accompanied by unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. This clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which should be confirmed by referral to an ENT specialist and formal audiometry. The cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it may be associated with raised endolymph pressure in the inner ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, labyrinthitis, and vestibular neuronitis are not likely diagnoses, as they present with different symptoms and characteristics.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that her pants are now frequently soiled with loose, smelly stools and this is why she has brought her in. She is otherwise well and has a normal development history.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyethylene glycol '3350' + electrolytes (Movicol©)
Explanation:Treatment options for idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence
Idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of macrogols (polyethylene glycol ‘3350’ + electrolytes; Movicol©) with an escalating dose regimen, adjusting the dose according to the response. Adequate fluid and fibre are necessary but should not be used alone as the only treatment. Rectal suppositories and sodium citrate enemas are suggested as options only if oral treatment fails. If this fails, phosphate enemas in hospital are recommended. A stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the macrogols if the latter do not lead to disimpaction after two weeks. A stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative or a stool softener should be used if macrogols are not tolerated. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s condition and response to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents for annual review.
She developed diabetes mellitus at the age of 20 and currently is treated with human mixed insulin twice daily. Over the last one year she has been aware of episodes of dysuria and has received treatment with trimethoprim on four separate occasions for cystitis.
Examination reveals no specific abnormality except for two dot haemorrhages bilaterally on fundal examination. Her blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg.
Investigations show:
HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-46)
9% (3.8-6.4)
Fasting plasma glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 90 µmol/L (60-110)
Urinalysis Glucose +
24 hour urine protein 220 mg/24 hrs (<200)
What would be the best therapeutic option to prevent progression of renal disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Improve glycaemic control with insulin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Diabetic Nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of diabetes, affecting up to 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 5-40% of patients with type 2 diabetes. Without intervention, it can lead to end-stage renal disease. In the case of a patient with microalbuminuria and poor glycaemic control but normal blood pressure, the recommended treatment options include ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control.
While good glycaemic control has not shown clear benefits in treating microalbuminuria in patients with type 1 diabetes, meta-analyses have shown that ACE inhibitors can reduce albumin excretion rates by 50% in treated patients compared to untreated patients. Low protein diets have been proven effective for overt proteinuria but not for microalbuminuria.
It is important to note that the absence of urinary tract infection is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan. In addition to the recommended interventions, any infections that may arise should also be treated promptly. Overall, a combination of ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control can help prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy and improve renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy
Explanation:1. Having First Child at a Young Age
Decreases Risk: Having the first child at a young age is actually associated with a lower risk of breast cancer. Women who have their first child before age 30, especially before age 20, tend to have a reduced risk compared to those who have children later in life or not at all.
Explanation: Early pregnancy reduces the total number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, reducing exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which are associated with breast cancer development.
2. Early Menopause
Decreases Risk: Experiencing menopause at an earlier age is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.
Explanation: Early menopause means fewer menstrual cycles and reduced lifetime exposure to estrogen, which is linked to the development of breast cancer.
3. Multiparity (Having Multiple Pregnancies)
Decreases Risk: Having multiple pregnancies generally reduces the risk of breast cancer.
Explanation: Similar to having a first child at a young age, multiple pregnancies lower the total number of menstrual cycles and thereby reduce lifetime hormone exposure, decreasing breast cancer risk.
4. A Mother Who Has Breast-Fed Her Baby
Decreases Risk: Breastfeeding is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.
Explanation: Breastfeeding reduces the number of menstrual cycles, which reduces hormone exposure. Additionally, lactation may lead to changes in breast cells that make them more resistant to cancer.
5. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)
Increases Risk: Hormone replacement therapy, particularly combined estrogen-progesterone therapy, is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.
Explanation: HRT increases the exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which can promote the development and growth of hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells. The risk is higher with longer duration of use and decreases after stopping the therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are working an out-of-hours session one evening when a mother brings her 9-month-old child in for assessment.
The child has been well up until two days ago and has no significant past medical history. She tells you that the child has had a 'cold' and has been sounding wheezy. The mother has brought the child this evening because a cough has developed and the child's feeding has been reduced because of breathlessness.
On examination, the child has a sharp cough and is tachypnoeic. Auscultation of the chest reveals widespread high pitched wheezes and diffuse fine crackles.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiolitis in Infants
Bronchiolitis is a common chest condition that affects infants, particularly those aged one to six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus in about 80% of cases. The condition typically starts with a coryzal illness and progresses to a dry cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing. Infants may be admitted to the hospital due to respiratory distress and difficulty feeding.
During examination, doctors may observe a dry cough, shortness of breath, respiratory distress, fine end-inspiratory crackles, wheezing, tachycardia, and cyanosis or pallor. However, not all infants with bronchiolitis require hospital admission. GPs should assess the child’s respiratory distress and feeding/hydration status to determine if they can be managed in the community with advice on when to seek review.
In summary, bronchiolitis is a potentially serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding its symptoms and severity can help parents and healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.
In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.
If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.
Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.
Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.
Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.
Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.
References:
1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three days of his holiday he was very tired and reluctant to play with his sister and had a temperature without any obvious cause.
Which of the following other features would prompt you to order a full blood count to investigate further?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs that Require Investigation in Children
Leukaemia can present with symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, unexplained irritability, fever, recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, and unexplained bruising. If any of these symptoms are present, a full blood count and blood film should be conducted to investigate the possibility of leukaemia. If the results indicate leukaemia, an urgent referral should be made.
Generalised lymphadenopathy with the above symptoms also requires further investigation. On the other hand, a healthy 3-year-old may experience two fevers a month due to exposure to new pathogens, especially if they have older siblings or attend nursery. A fever of 39°C makes a bacterial infection more likely, and a thorough history and examination should be carried out to identify the source of the fever.
If a child has a vesicular rash, it is often caused by Chickenpox, which is associated with a prodromal period of being non-specifically unwell. If the rash looks like Chickenpox, no further investigations are required. Erythema in the throat and ears is usually caused by a viral illness, and no further investigations are necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye that has been gradually worsening for the past three months. His vision was unaffected. Upon examination, it was found that he had a left lower eyelid entropion that was not corrected on blinking.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer this patient to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Importance of Ophthalmologist Referral for Entropion
This patient is experiencing symptoms due to entropion, which is the inward turning of the eyelid. If left untreated, this condition can lead to scarring of the cornea and a reduction in vision. Therefore, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for proper management.
While waiting for the ophthalmology review, ocular lubrication can be used to provide symptomatic relief. However, this alone is not sufficient for the appropriate management of entropion. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the condition to prevent further complications and preserve the patient’s vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral eye irritation, foreign body sensation, itching and erythema of the lids and partial loss of eyelashes. He also has scalp itching and flaking.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Understanding Blepharitis: Inflammation of the Eyelids
Blepharitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the eyelids. It can be categorized into two types: anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the eyelashes and follicles, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian gland orifices. Staphylococcal and seborrhoeic variants are the two subtypes of anterior blepharitis, which often overlap. Blepharitis is commonly associated with other ocular diseases such as dry eye syndromes, chalazion, conjunctivitis, and keratitis, as well as skin conditions like rosacea and seborrhoeic dermatitis.
While contact dermatitis is a common cause of eyelid inflammation, it is not usually confined to the eyelid margins. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by acute onset of conjunctival erythema, a gritty or foreign body sensation, and eye discharge that may produce crusts on the lids. Dry eye syndrome may also develop in people with blepharitis. Trichiasis, a condition where the eyelashes are misdirected towards the globe, is often associated with blepharitis.
Understanding blepharitis and its subtypes is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of rapidly progressive paraesthesia and weakness in both of her arms. She denies any fever or any difficulties with her bladder or bowel function. She has been in good health except for a recent bout of the flu.
During the examination, you notice symmetrical, global weakness in her upper limbs with hypotonia. You are unable to elicit any reflexes in her upper limbs. There is no sensory level demarcation. Her cranial nerve examination and lower limbs examination are unremarkable.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by the presence of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This syndrome typically presents as a symmetrical polyneuropathy that develops rapidly and is often preceded by an infection. It initially causes paraesthesia and lower limb weakness, which can quickly spread to involve the upper limb, cranial nerves, autonomic function, and respiratory function. As it is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system, it presents with lower motor neurone signs such as hyporeflexia.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, on the other hand, is a disorder of the motor neurones and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance such as paraesthesia. It often has a slower onset.
Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system and therefore presents with upper motor neurone signs such as hyperreflexia.
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular junction disorder that is characterized by fatiguability and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance.
Although the features of transverse myelitis and Guillain-Barre can overlap and coexist, the absence of a sensory level on examination makes transverse myelitis less likely in this case.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents with behaviour issues. Her father is concerned that she may have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Which of the following would most support this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Challenging behaviour present at home and school
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention. These symptoms should be present in multiple settings, such as both at home and in school, and in multiple domains of social or personal functioning. ADHD is typically diagnosed in 3-7% of school-age children.
It is important to note that a carefree attitude to danger alone is not enough to make a diagnosis of ADHD. Evidence of impairment in other domains is necessary. Additionally, while environmental factors may play a role, genetics are also believed to be involved in the development of ADHD. Therefore, it is possible for a sibling or other family member to also have the disorder.
According to NICE guidelines, symptoms must be present for at least six months for a diagnosis of ADHD. Poor academic achievement alone is not enough to indicate ADHD, as it is commonly seen in children without the disorder. It is important to consider a range of symptoms and domains of functioning when evaluating for ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral otosclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rinne negative both sides with central Weber
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and its Effects on Hearing
Otosclerosis is a condition that leads to conductive deafness, which means that bone conduction is better than air conduction. When testing for this condition, you would expect to see bilateral negative Rinne with central Weber. However, if the disease is in its early stages, the Rinne test may be equivocal. It is important to note that the second and third options do not make sense in the context of otosclerosis. Understanding the effects of otosclerosis on hearing can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following sets of findings is the most likely to be noted on tuning fork testing?
Rinne left ear Rinne right ear Weber
Patient A Air conduction better than bone conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Central
Patient B Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the left
Patient C Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient D Air conduction better than bone conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient E Bone conduction better than air conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction CentralYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Hearing Tests and Their Interpretation
Hearing tests are essential in diagnosing hearing problems. Two common tests are Rinne’s test and Weber’s test. Rinne’s test uses tuning forks of 512 Hz, but those of 256 Hz may be more accurate. A heavy tuning fork is preferable because a light fork produces a sound that fades too rapidly. To test air conduction, hold the tuning fork directly in line with the external auditory canal. When testing bone conduction, place the flat end of the stem of the tuning fork against bone immediately superior and posterior to the external canal. When air conduction is louder than bone conduction, it is reported as Rinne-positive.
In interpreting the results, normal findings are expected in patient A, while patient C has anomalous findings that suggest a non-organic problem. Patient D suggests a right conductive loss, and patient E suggests a bilateral conductive loss, although in this case, the Weber test can lateralize to one side or the other.
Weber’s test involves placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead. If the sound is louder on one side than the other, the patient may have either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. These tests are crucial in diagnosing hearing problems and should be conducted accurately to ensure proper interpretation of the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In palliative care, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for treating opioid-induced constipation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Managing Opioid-Induced Constipation in Palliative Care
Opioid-induced constipation is a common problem in palliative care. The main treatment involves the use of oral laxatives, with senna being the recommended initial choice due to its ability to stimulate peristalsis. The dosage should be titrated up to achieve comfortable defecation without colic, and higher doses may be necessary in palliative care. If colic is a problem, a reduction in senna dosage and the addition of an osmotic or surface-wetting laxative may be necessary. Increasing fluid and dietary fiber intake can also help, but it is more important to ensure that patients have food and drink they enjoy. Bulk-forming laxatives like ispaghula may be unpalatable and cause intestinal obstruction if not taken with enough water. If laxatives are insufficient, a pro-kinetic agent like metoclopramide may be added, but should not be used if the patient has colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.
His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.
What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer
Explanation:Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia
There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.
While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.
What medication should she avoid in the future?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is six weeks pregnant. She has had some vaginal bleeding and RIF pain.
On examination she is pyrexial 37.6°C and tender in the RIF, her urine contains blood ++ and protein +. Her past history includes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a miscarriage and two terminations. Her urine pregnancy test is still positive.
What is the most suitable next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an emergency admission
Explanation:Possible Ectopic Pregnancy: A Gynaecological Emergency
If you have a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), previous terminations, and a positive pregnancy test, you should be aware of the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate admission to a hospital. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications, such as internal bleeding and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started a new relationship and would like to discuss contraception with you. She is particularly interested in the progesterone-only implant (IMP).
Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The IMP has not been shown to affect bone mineral density
Explanation:The use of Nexplanon® IMP is not limited by age and is licensed for contraception for a period of 3 years. It contains 68 mg etonogestrel and doesn’t pose an increased risk of VTE, stroke, or MI. Additionally, it has not been found to have a significant impact on bone mineral density (BMD). While the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive may initially decrease BMD, this effect is not exacerbated by menopause.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood tests. She schedules an appointment with you to discuss the results. She denies any sensory loss, weakness, headache, palpitations, or visual disturbance. She reports having a well-balanced diet. Upon examination, including neurological examination, everything appears normal. Her BMI is within the normal range. The following are the results:
- Hb 104 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- MCV 109 fl (80-100)
- Ferritin 76 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12 130 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate 12.3 nmol/L (> 3.0)
- Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular (IM) hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:The usual management for Vitamin B12 deficiency involves intramuscular B12 replacement, with a loading regime followed by injections every 2-3 months. In the case of a woman with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels, the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies (IFAB) suggests pernicious anaemia, which requires lifelong hydroxocobalamin injections at 2-3 monthly intervals. While most patients with B12 deficiency are treated with IM replacement, NICE guidelines during the COVID pandemic recommend oral cyanocobalamin where possible, but this is not appropriate for this patient. Ferrous sulphate is a suitable treatment for iron deficiency anaemia. A haematology referral may be necessary if initial treatment is unsuccessful.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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