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Question 1
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well to 5 mg prednisolone daily. As she has not had any fractures previously, she underwent a DXA scan which shows a lumbar spine T score of −2.5 and hip T score of −2.6.
She visits your clinic to discuss the scan results and seek advice on treatment options. What would be your recommended management plan?Your Answer: She should be commenced on alendronate or risedronate as she fits the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis
Correct Answer: As her steroid dose is now less than 7.5 mg she doesn't need bone-sparing therapy
Explanation:Management of Osteoporosis in Patients with T Score Criteria
Patients who fit the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis based on T score should be managed with a generic bisphosphonate as the first line of treatment. This is regardless of whether they have suffered an osteoporotic fracture or not. If a patient doesn’t tolerate a weekly preparation, there are monthly and intermittent IV preparations available. It is important to note that early intervention is key in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures. Therefore, prompt management of osteoporosis is crucial in maintaining bone health and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.Your Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease
Explanation:Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis
The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.
The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.
In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you clerk her in she admits to you that she has not felt herself for the past few weeks with polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
Blood tests show:
Estimated glomerular filtration rate >60 ml/min
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l)
Parathyroid hormone 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, the PTH level may appear normal despite the presence of high serum calcium and low phosphate levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by chronic hypocalcemia, resulting in high PTH levels and either low or normal serum calcium levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is a result of autonomous parathyroid production, is commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease who previously had secondary hyperparathyroidism. While hypercalcemia can also be caused by sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis, these conditions are relatively rare.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation complaining of itchiness. Upon examination, there is no rash present. After being referred to an obstetrician, she is diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid. During her visit, the patient mentions that her obstetrician mentioned something about her labor, but she is unsure.
What plans need to be made for this patient's labor?Your Answer: Normal labour
Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks gestation
Explanation:Due to the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, induction of labour is typically recommended at 37-38 weeks gestation. Therefore, a normal labour is not appropriate for this patient. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to treat the intense pruritus associated with this condition. While a caesarean section may be necessary on an emergency basis, it is not currently indicated at 37-38 weeks. Similarly, a caesarean section at 40 weeks is not currently necessary. Induction of labour at 40 weeks is later than the recommended timeline and may increase the risk of stillbirth.
Understanding Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are assessing a senior gentleman with prostate cancer. Regrettably, his pain is presently uncontrolled with co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets qds and diclofenac 50 mg tds. Your plan is to transition him to oral morphine. Can you provide the conversion factor between oral codeine and oral morphine?
Your Answer: Divide by 4
Correct Answer: Divide by 10
Explanation:Codeine can be converted to morphine by dividing its dosage by 10.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice
Explanation:GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices
Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.
The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.
Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man who was active all his life develops sudden severe anterior chest pain that radiates to his back. Within minutes, he is unconscious.
He has a history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test had revealed no evidence for cardiac disease.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tear in the aortic intima
Explanation:Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain
The patient’s history is indicative of aortic dissection, which is a probable cause of sudden collapse accompanied by acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with these symptoms in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possibility, it is not the most likely explanation. For further information on the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection, please refer to the following references: BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?Your Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and duodenal biopsy
Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma for which she takes salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler and salbutamol PRN. Most recently she was started on allopurinol tablets for gout. You also increased her hypertension medication at her last appointment.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a heart rate of around 110.
Investigations show:
Hb 110 g/L (120 - 160)
WCC 6.2 ×109/L (4 - 11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
Na 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cr 140 µmol/L (60 - 110)
ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute changes.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Theophylline Toxicity and Drug Interactions
The scenario presented here is typical of theophylline toxicity, with symptoms such as headaches, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, and hypokalaemia. However, the cause of this toxicity is due to an increase in theophylline levels caused by allopurinol. Other drugs that can increase theophylline levels include carbimazole, cimetidine, erythromycin, and many others. It is important to note that calcium channel blockers may also increase theophylline levels, but not as much as allopurinol. Therefore, it is crucial to reduce theophylline dose when starting allopurinol. Questions about drug safety and significant interactions are common in the AKT exam, so it is essential to stay updated on important drug safety notifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation after seeing your colleague 4 weeks ago due to right knee pain. He plays basketball and had a fall during a game 6 weeks ago. Despite the initial consultation, his pain has not subsided and he experiences discomfort at night, which affects his sleep. During the examination, you detect a solid, immovable lump on his distal femur. What would be the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Urgent XR of right knee (within 48 hours)
Explanation:When an adolescent experiences persistent night time pain and has a palpable bony mass, it is important to consider the possibility of a bone tumour until proven otherwise. The NICE guidelines for childhood cancer recommend obtaining an urgent X-ray within 48 hours for suspected sarcoma. Referring the patient to physiotherapy or providing reassurance is not appropriate as it doesn’t address the concerning symptoms. Ultrasound is not the most suitable imaging modality for bone pain and swelling. Urgent outpatient orthopaedic referral is also not the correct answer as it may cause delays in further investigation and management.
Types of Bone Tumours
Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting him to take over the prescribing of donepezil for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. If the patient's repeat prescription includes which medication, it may pose the most significant potential contraindication to donepezil?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) can cause bradycardia, SA block or AV block, which are important potential side effects. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing these medications to patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications such as beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers or digoxin. Other possible side effects include gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea), agitation, hallucinations, syncope, and less commonly gastrointestinal ulcers, seizures, conduction disorders, urinary retention and extrapyramidal symptoms. The BNF also lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Currently, only specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as Psychiatrists, Elderly Care specialists, Neurologists) are authorized to initiate their use. However, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring of these medications under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of the potential prescribing issues.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Reassure and prescribe carbocisteine
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline
Explanation:For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.
Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.
Understanding Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.
Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.
Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine check-up. He reports having noticed some irregularity in his pulse for a few weeks. What is the appropriate management for him?
Your Answer: ß-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment
Explanation:Rate Control vs Rhythm Control in Atrial Fibrillation: Recent Trials and Treatment Guidelines
Recent trials have confirmed that for most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is superior to rhythm control in terms of survival benefit. However, DC cardioversion may be considered for new onset and younger patients. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend first-line therapy with ß-blockers or rate-limiting calcium antagonists, or digoxin if these are not tolerated. Verapamil should not be used in combination with a ß-blocker. These guidelines provide a framework for the management of atrial fibrillation and can help clinicians make informed treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She was born at 39/40 without any complications and is growing along the 50th centile. The mother is concerned as the baby frequently spits up small amounts of milk after being fed, which is accompanied by crying and discomfort. However, the baby settles down after a few minutes. The baby is having wet and full nappies, and the vomit is milk-colored. The baby is formula-fed approximately 4 ounces, 7 times a day.
What is the recommended first-line advice or treatment for this situation?Your Answer: Advise the mum that his symptoms should settle without treatment over the next 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Reduce his feeds to 150ml/kg per day (in total) and give them more frequently and review in 1-2 weeks
Explanation:The recommended treatment for formula-fed infants with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is to reduce their daily milk intake to 150ml/kg and offer more frequent, smaller feeds. This should be tried for 2 weeks, and if the baby is still experiencing discomfort, milk thickeners can be offered for 1-2 weeks. If this is not successful, a trial of alginate therapy should be attempted for 1-2 weeks. If this also fails, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor antagonist can be prescribed. Breastfed infants should first try a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Admissions to a pediatric admissions unit were audited for a period of one week. For 225 admissions, the mean length of time to see a doctor was 2.5 hours and the median time to see a doctor was 1.5 hours.
Which of the following correctly describes the distribution of the time to see a doctor?Your Answer: Negatively skewed
Correct Answer: Positively skewed
Explanation:Understanding Skewed Distributions
Skewed distributions are a common occurrence in data analysis. A positively skewed distribution is one where the tail on the right side is longer than the left side, caused by a small number of extremely large values. This can cause the mean to be pulled towards the right tail, with most values being less than the mean. An approximately normal distribution is symmetric, with the median and mean being equal. A left-skewed distribution has a long left tail caused by a small number of extremely low values, with the mean usually being less than the median. A negatively skewed distribution is synonymous with left-skewed, with the median usually being higher than the mean. A symmetric distribution, such as the normal distribution, has no skew and the mean and median are equal. Understanding the type of distribution can help in making accurate interpretations and decisions based on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the right cheek. The pain may last up to a minute before subsiding. He thinks that sometimes shaving or washing his face has precipitated attacks. He had similar trouble 6 months ago but it subsided after a week. It has been going on for over 2 weeks now and he has had up to four attacks per day. There are no other associated symptoms and he has no sensory or motor deficit of his face.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: A Debilitating Condition Resulting in Intense Pain
Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic condition that causes extreme episodes of pain in the cheek and lower jaw. These episodes are sudden and sporadic, often described as electric shocks that can last from a few seconds to several minutes. While the episodes themselves are intermittent, they can recur for days, weeks, or even months before disappearing for extended periods. Some patients may experience bilateral pains. Triggers for these episodes include brushing teeth, eating and drinking, exposure to wind, skin contact (such as shaving or washing), and vibration.
Diagnosis is typically clinical, and no investigations are necessary unless there is uncertainty. Carbamazepine is the most effective treatment and should be tried initially, with the dose titrated up to achieve pain control, usually to about 200 mg three or four times a day (maximum 1600mg per day). Once in remission, the dose should be gradually reduced and discontinued until further attacks occur.
If carbamazepine is ineffective, the patient should be referred to a specialist. Normal analgesics are ineffective, and while gabapentin, clonazepam, baclofen, lamotrigine, and amitriptyline have been used, adequate evidence supporting their use is lacking. Abnormal clinical features, such as burning pain between paroxysms, loss of sensation, or any abnormal neurological signs, should also prompt referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?
Your Answer: One arterial blood gas measurement with pO2 < 8.0 kPa
Correct Answer:
Explanation:If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?Your Answer: Quantitative faecal immunochemical testing
Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray
Explanation:Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.
According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst. His ESR is 95 mm/hour and he has normocytic normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Elevated ESR
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells and is more common in Afro-Caribbeans. It can cause bone pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia, leading to lethargy and thirst. An elevated ESR and normochromic normocytic anemia are typical features of multiple myeloma.
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy (CPA), also known as chondrocalcinosis, primarily affects the knee joint and doesn’t typically cause anemia. Osteoarthritis may cause back pain but doesn’t typically present with systemic symptoms such as lethargy and thirst. Osteoporosis is rare in men at this age and doesn’t cause anemia or elevated ESR. Paget’s disease of bone may cause bone pain, deformity, and fractures, but the patient in this scenario doesn’t have classical features of the disease.
Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Elevated ESR
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the single conclusion that can be drawn from the findings of the Veterans Affairs Laryngeal Study Group in 1991, which compared two treatments for advanced laryngeal cancer - laryngectomy followed by radiotherapy versus chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy? The study randomly assigned 332 patients with advanced laryngeal cancer to one of the groups, and those in the chemotherapy group who did not respond to treatment underwent salvage laryngectomy. The results showed that both groups had a 2-year survival rate of 68%, but a higher percentage of chemotherapy patients (64%) were able to retain their larynx. Additionally, more local recurrences occurred in the chemotherapy group, while fewer distant metastases occurred in the same group.
Your Answer: Chemotherapy is a viable alternative to surgery for advanced laryngeal cancer
Explanation:New Treatment Options for Advanced Laryngeal Cancer Patients
Advanced laryngeal cancer patients no longer have to rely solely on surgery as a treatment option, thanks to recent research. Early laryngeal cancer patients are typically treated with laser excision or radiotherapy alone, but this study did not include them. For those who have failed chemotherapy and radiotherapy, salvage laryngectomy is still an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, complaining of profound fatigue. This has developed during and since he completed adjuvant chemotherapy for prostate cancer. He finds that he is low in energy despite getting around seven hours of sleep a day.
Recent blood tests including a full blood count, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), thyroid function tests, vitamin D, iron studies and renal function are all normal. He requests advice on how he can address his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?Your Answer: She should maintain a good level of physical activity
Explanation:Managing Cancer-Related Fatigue: Practical Advice and Guidance
Cancer-related fatigue is a common symptom experienced by many patients undergoing treatment. While the causes are not fully understood, there are practical steps that can be taken to manage this debilitating condition.
One important factor is maintaining a good level of physical activity. This can help reduce symptoms of fatigue, boost appetite, provide more energy, and improve sleep quality. However, it’s important to strike a healthy balance between activity and rest.
While support groups can be helpful for some patients, it’s important to note that speaking to others about fatigue may worsen symptoms for some. It’s important to find what works best for each individual.
Short-term sedative sleeping tablets are not recommended for managing fatigue. Instead, establishing a sleep routine and practicing good sleep hygiene can be more effective.
Psychological support can also be beneficial for some patients. Many hospitals offer access to counsellors or staff specially trained to provide emotional support to people affected by cancer. Oncologists or specialist nurses can provide information about available services.
Overall, managing cancer-related fatigue requires a multifaceted approach that takes into account individual needs and preferences. By following practical advice and guidance, patients can improve their quality of life and better cope with the challenges of cancer treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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Karen is a 56-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension and previous bladder cancer. She currently takes metformin at maximum dose and amlodipine.
Routine blood test results have returned showing a HbA1c of 59 mmol/mol. The previous HbA1c result 6 months ago was 51 mmol/mol. Urea and electrolytes are within normal limits.
Karen's body mass index is 36kg/m². What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Commence empagliflozin
Explanation:Jeffrey’s HbA1c level of 59 mmol/mol indicates that his treatment needs to be intensified. According to NICE guidelines, if initial treatment for type 2 diabetes is ineffective, second-line treatment options should be considered as dual therapy with metformin. These options include metformin plus a gliptin, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2i.
When selecting the most appropriate management for Jeffrey, his BMI should be taken into account. SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are the most suitable option as they have the added benefit of weight loss in patients with T2DM. This is particularly relevant for Jeffrey.
GLP-1 mimetics, like liraglutide, also promote weight loss, but they are only considered when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral antidiabetic drugs is not effective. Since Jeffrey is currently on monotherapy and about to start dual therapy, liraglutide is not an option at this stage.
Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea that can be used in dual therapy with metformin. However, it can cause weight gain, making it less suitable for Jeffrey.
Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that can also be used in dual therapy with metformin. However, it is contraindicated for Jeffrey due to his history of bladder cancer and can cause weight gain, making it a less appropriate option.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As part of the review, you assess his 10 year cardiovascular disease risk and this is significant at 32%.
This prompts discussion about the role of lipid lowering treatment in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Following discussion, you both agree to start him on atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You can see his recent blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs and fasting glucose) are all normal.
In terms of follow up blood testing, which of the following should be performed after starting the atorvastatin?Your Answer: Creatine kinase measurement within three months of initiation
Correct Answer: Full blood count every three months for the first 12 months after initiation
Explanation:Monitoring Liver Function in Statin Therapy
Before starting statin therapy, it is important to measure liver function. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can still be used.
Once statin therapy is initiated, liver function tests should be repeated within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months. Additionally, liver function tests should be measured if a dose increase is made or if signs or symptoms of liver toxicity occur.
It is crucial to monitor liver function in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure their safety and prevent potential liver damage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of liver toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-month-old baby boy to your clinic with concerns about a possible squint. During the examination, you perform the Hirschberg test and suspect a squint. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer to optician for corrective glasses
Correct Answer: Refer to local paediatric eye service
Explanation:Squinting is a common occurrence in children, and the Hirschberg test is a useful tool for determining if their eyes are properly aligned. This test involves shining a light at the eyes and observing where the light reflex is located in relation to the pupil. In a person with normal ocular alignment, the light reflex will be slightly nasal from the center of the cornea. By comparing the light reflexes of both eyes, an examiner can detect if there is an abnormality such as exotropia, esotropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia.
It is normal for babies to occasionally cross their eyes, especially when tired, but any child with a suspected or confirmed squint should be referred to a local pediatric eye service. This will allow for proper assessment of the type and severity of the squint, accurate determination of visual acuity, and diagnosis of any underlying causes. Early treatment is important to prevent or stop the progression of amblyopia.
Treatment options for a squint may include corrective glasses, occlusion with an eye patch, and eye exercises. These treatments are typically initiated in secondary care by an orthoptist in conjunction with an ophthalmologist.
Understanding Squint (Strabismus)
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squint: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squint is more common and is caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles, while paralytic squint is rare and is caused by paralysis of the extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squint early as it may lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to fully process inputs from one eye and over time favours the other eye.
To detect squint, the corneal light reflection test can be used. This involves holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. The child is asked to focus on an object, one eye is covered, and the movement of the uncovered eye is observed. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
Management of squint involves referral to secondary care and eye patches may be used to prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are asked to complete a DS1500 form for a patient with advanced cancer who is in their 80s.
Which of the following applies to completion of the DS1500 form?Your Answer: You can complete a DS1500 form for terminally ill patients with 12 months or less to live
Correct Answer: MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists and practice nurses can complete the DS1500
Explanation:DS1500 Form for Terminally Ill Patients
A DS1500 form can be requested by a patient or their representative if the patient is deemed to be terminally ill. This form is specifically designed for patients who have six months or less to live, allowing them to apply for DWP benefits under special rules. In some cases, a representative may request the form if the patient is unaware of their diagnosis and/or prognosis.
The completed DS1500 can either be given to the patient or their representative or can be sent directly to the DWP. MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists, and practice nurses can complete the form, but only GPs and GMC registered consultants may claim a fee. The fee for completing the DS1500 can be claimed by a GP or GMC registered consultant using the DS1500 fee form.
Overall, the DS1500 form is an important tool for terminally ill patients and their families to access the necessary benefits and support during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic for diabetic assessment. Despite taking the highest dose of metformin and gliclazide, his HBA1c is 68 mmol/mol. You discuss his condition with the diabetic nurse and decide to initiate a new medication, dapagliflozin.
What is the primary adverse effect of dapagliflozin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infections
Explanation:Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin or dapagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to their mechanism of inhibiting renal reabsorption of glucose. This leads to increased excretion of glucose in the urine, causing common side effects like urinary frequency and infections. Unlike metformin, diarrhea is not a common side effect of these drugs. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, should be avoided in patients with left ventricular dysfunction as they can cause or worsen heart failure. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) medications, also known as incretin mimetics, such as sitagliptin and exenatide, work by suppressing glucagon release and increasing insulin release from the pancreas. However, they can trigger inflammation and have an increased risk of causing pancreatitis. SGLT2 inhibitors are associated with weight loss, while sulphonylureas, such as gliclazide, are associated with weight gain.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old multiparous woman underwent an ultrasound pelvis to investigate menorrhagia. The report revealed a 2 cm fibroid with no distortion of the uterine cavity. What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
Explanation:First-Line Treatment for Menorrhagia
When it comes to treating menorrhagia, the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is considered the first-line option by NICE. This is especially true for women with no identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis. While the combined oral contraceptive pill is also an option, it is not the preferred choice.
It is important to note that a repeat ultrasound may not be the next step in management, as the history of menorrhagia is the crucial point to consider. If menorrhagia is not present, the treatment plan may differ. Ulipristal acetate may be used for larger fibroids, but it is typically started in secondary care. Referral for surgical treatment should not be the first-line option, as more conservative measures should be tried initially.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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