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  • Question 1 - A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the...

    Correct

    • A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.
      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.
      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.
      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.
      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is the most effective therapeutic agent in controlling the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid syndrome occurs in ∼20% of cases of well-differentiated endocrine tumours of the jejunum or ileum (midgut neuroendocrine tumours (NET) and consists of (usually) dry flushing (without sweating; 70% of cases) with or without palpitations, diarrhoea (50% of cases) and intermittent abdominal pain (40% of cases); in some patients, there is also lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
      Carcinoid syndrome occurs less often with NETs of other origins and is very rare in association with rectal NETs. It is usually due to metastasis to the liver, with the release of vasoactive compounds, including biogenic amines (e.g., serotonin and tachykinins), into the systemic circulation. However, it may also occur in the absence of liver metastases if there is direct retroperitoneal involvement, with venous drainage bypassing the liver. Pain due to hepatic enlargement may also be a presenting feature, as may upper right abdominal pain (similar to that of pulmonary infarction) secondary to either haemorrhage into, or necrosis of, a hepatic secondary tumour. Wheezing and pellagra are less common presenting features. CHD is present in ∼20% of patients at presentation and usually indicates that the syndrome has been present for several years.

      The aim of treatment should be curative where possible but it is palliative in the majority of cases.
      Surgery is the only curative treatment.
      Administration of specific medications to treat symptoms should, therefore, start as soon as clinical and biochemical signs indicate the presence of hypersecretory NETs, even before the precise localisation of primary and metastatic lesions is confirmed.

      The only proven hormonal management of NETs is by the administration of somatostatin analogues.
      Somatostatin analogues bind principally to SSTR subtypes 2 (with high affinity) and 5 (with lower affinity), thus inhibiting the release of various peptide hormones in the gut, pancreas and pituitary; they also antagonise growth factor effects on tumour cells, and, at very high dosage, may induce apoptosis. The effects of somatostatin analogues are demonstrable as biochemical response rates (inhibition of hormone production) in 30–70% of patients and as symptomatic control in the majority of patients.
      There are two commercially available somatostatin analogues: octreotide and lanreotide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?

      Your Answer: Rotational skin flap

      Explanation:

      Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.

      A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The annular ligament in the forearm: ...

    Incorrect

    • The annular ligament in the forearm:

      Your Answer: Goes from the olecranon fossa to the olecranon process

      Correct Answer: Encircles the head of the radius

      Explanation:

      The annular ligament forms about four-fifths of the osseofibrous ring and is attached to the anterior and posterior margins of the radial notch. It is a strong band of fibres which encircles the head of the radius retaining it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna. When it comes to its upper border, it blends with the anterior and posterior ligament of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull,...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull, continuous pain in the right lumbar region for 6 days. On, enquiry, she recalled passing an increasing number of stools with occasional blood in last few months. Lower gastrointestinal endoscopic biopsy was taken 5 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve which showed transmural inflammation with several granulomas. Tissue section showed the absence of acid-fast bacillus. She denies any history of travel and her stool cultures were negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but is usually seen in the distal ileum and colon. It is transmural and symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia and weight loss. On examination, there is usually abdominal tenderness with a palpable mass or fullness seen occasionally. Rectal bleeding is uncommon (except in isolated colonic involvement) which manifests like ulcerative colitis. Differential diagnosis includes acute appendicitis or intestinal obstruction. 25%-33% patients also have perianal disease in the form of fissure or fistulas.
      Extra intestinal manifestations predominate in children, and include: arthritis, pyrexia, anaemia or growth retardation. Histologically, the disease shows crypt inflammation and abscesses initially, which progress to aphthoid ulcers. These eventually develop into longitudinal and transverse ulcers with interspersed mucosal oedema, leading to the characteristic ‘cobblestoned appearance’. Transmural involvement leads to lymphoedema and thickening of bowel wall and mesentery, leading to extension of mesenteric fat on the serosal surface of bowel and enlargement of mesenteric nodes. There can also be hypertrophy of the muscularis mucosae, fibrosis and stricture formation, which can cause bowel obstruction. Abscesses are common and the disease can also leas to development of fistulas with various other organs, anterior abdominal wall and adjacent muscles. Pathognomonic non-caseating granulomas are seen in 50% cases and they can occur in nodes, peritoneum, liver, and in all layers of the bowel wall. The clinical course does not depend on the presence of granulomas. There is sharp demarcation between the diseased and the normal bowel (skip areas).
      35% cases show only the ileal involvement, whereas in 45% cases, both the ileum and colon are involved with a predilection for right side of colon. 20% cases show only colonic involvement, often sparing the rectum (unlike ulcerative colitis). In occasional cases, there is jejunoileitis – involvement of the entire small bowel. The stomach, duodenum and oesophagus are rarely involved, although there has been microscopic evidence of disease involving the gastric antrum in younger patients. The affected small bowel segments show increased rick of cancer. Moreover, patients with colonic disease show a long-term risk of cancer similar to that seen in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35 year old man presents with venous varicosities which are suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man presents with venous varicosities which are suspected to have resulted due to Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome. Which of the following would not be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Port wine stains with clear borders

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein involvement

      Explanation:

      Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is a condition that affects the development of blood vessels, soft tissues (such as skin and muscles), and bones. The disorder has three characteristic features: a red birthmark called a port-wine stain, abnormal overgrowth of soft tissues and bones, and vein malformations.

      Most people with Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome are born with a port-wine stain. This type of birthmark is caused by swelling of small blood vessels near the surface of the skin. Port-wine stains are typically flat and can vary from pale pink to deep maroon in colour.

      Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is also associated with overgrowth of bones and soft tissues beginning in infancy. Usually this abnormal growth is limited to one limb, most often one leg. However, overgrowth can also affect the arms or, rarely, the torso.

      Malformations of veins are the third major feature of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome. These abnormalities include varicose veins and deep veins in the limbs. Malformations of deep veins increase the risk of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

      Other complications of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome can include cellulitis, lymphedema, and internal bleeding from abnormal blood vessels. Less commonly, this condition is also associated with fusion of certain fingers or toes (syndactyly) or the presence of extra digits (polydactyly).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer: Caseous necrosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Active transport through endothelial cell membranes

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period: Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min, Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml, Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml, Urine urea: 220 mmol/l, Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l. What is the urea clearance?

      Your Answer: 76 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 88 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old ski instructor who falls off a ski lift and sustains a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old ski instructor who falls off a ski lift and sustains a spiral fracture of the midshaft of the tibia. Attempts to achieve a satisfactory position in plaster have failed. Overlying tissues are healthy. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Intramedullary nail

      Explanation:

      Initially, all tibial shaft fractures should be stabilized with a long posterior splint with the knee in 10-15° of flexion and the ankle flexed at 90°
      Closed fractures with minimal displacement or stable reduction may be treated nonoperatively with a long leg cast, but cast application should be delayed for 3-5 days to allow early swelling to diminish. The cast should extend from the midthigh to the metatarsal heads, with the ankle at 90° of flexion and the knee extended. The cast increases tibial stability and can decrease pain and swelling.
      Despite proper casting techniques and adequate follow-up, not all nonoperatively treated tibial shaft fractures heal successfully.
      Operative fixation is required when fractures are unstable. Surgical options include plating, external fixation, intramedullary nailing, and, in some cases, amputation.
      Intramedullary nailing with locking screws (see the image below) has become the treatment of choice for most tibial shaft fractures. The prevalence of non-union and malunion is greatly decreased in comparison with the other methods of fixation. Patients are also able to return to low-impact activities much sooner than they can with the other treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric vessels. These boundaries define the hernia as being a:

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The boundaries given define the inguinal triangle which is the site for direct inguinal hernias. Indirect inguinal hernias occur lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
      Femoral hernias protrude through the femoral ring, into the femoral canal.
      Umbilical hernias protrude through a defect in the umbilical area.
      Obturator hernias, occur through the obturator foramen. These are very rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30 year old man presents with a surgical wound that is erythematous,...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man presents with a surgical wound that is erythematous, tender and discharging pus. He states that he had undergone an inguinal hernia repair eight days earlier. What is the cause of this?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Surgical site infections (SSIs) are among the most common healthcare-associated infections, and contribute significantly to patient morbidity and healthcare costs. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common microbial cause. The epidemiology of S. aureus is changing with the dissemination of newer clones and the emergence of mupirocin resistance. Pre-operative screening, using culture- or molecular-based methods, and subsequent decolonization of patients who are positive for methicillin-susceptible S. aureus and methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) reduces SSIs and hospital stay. This applies especially to major clean surgery, such as cardiothoracic and orthopaedic, involving the insertion of implanted devices. However, it requires a multi-disciplinary approach coupled with patient education. Universal decolonization pre-operatively without screening for S. aureus may compromise the capacity to monitor for the emergence of new clones of S. aureus, contribute to mupirocin resistance, and prevent the adjustment of surgical prophylaxis for MRSA (i.e. replacement of a beta-lactam agent with a glycopeptide or alternative).

      A surgical site infection is an infection that occurs after surgery in the part of the body where the surgery took place. Surgical site infections can sometimes be superficial infections involving the skin only. Other surgical site infections are more serious and can involve tissues under the skin, organs, or implanted material.

      Symptoms include:
      Redness and pain around the area where you had surgery
      Drainage of cloudy fluid from your surgical wound
      Fever

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Correct Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old firefighter is recovering from an appendicectomy where the operation was complicated by the presence of perforation. On observation, he is seen to be vomiting and his urine output is decreasing. Which intravenous fluid should be initially administered, pending analysis of his urea and electrolyte levels?

      Your Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      Compound Sodium Lactate (Hartmann’s) is used:
      • for intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement
      • as a source of bicarbonate in the treatment of mild to moderate metabolic acidosis associated with dehydration or associated with potassium deficiency
      • as a vehicle for intravenous drug delivery, if the drugs are compatible with the solutions

      The total amount of electrolytes per litre are: sodium 131 mmol, potassium 5mmol, chloride 112 mmol, calcium 2mmol, bicarbonate (as lactate) 28 mmol.
      The osmolality is approximately 255 mOsm/kg water. The solutions are isotonic, sterile, non-pyrogenic and do not contain antimicrobial agent or added buffers. The pH range is 5.0 to 7.0. Compound Sodium Lactate

      Ringer’s lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hartmann’s solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or low blood pressure.

      Hartmann’s solution is often preferred over normal saline as it contains both fluids and electrolytes. The solution is also associated with fewer adverse effects and it can be administered to both adults and children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus

      Correct Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.
      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.
      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.
      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.
      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.
      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old female is being prepared for a Whipple's procedure. A right-sided subclavian...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is being prepared for a Whipple's procedure. A right-sided subclavian line is inserted and anaesthesia is induced. Following intubation, the patient becomes progressively hypoxic and haemodynamically unstable. What is the most likely underlying explanation?

      Your Answer: Simple pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      The complications of central vein catheterization (CVC) include infection, thrombosis, occlusion, and, in particular, mechanical complications which usually occur during insertion and are closely related to the anatomic location of the central veins. Infectious complications are reported to occur in 5% to 26% of patients, mechanical complications in 5% to 19%, and thrombotic complications in 2% to 26%. Mechanical complications associated with the insertion of central lines include arterial puncture, hematoma, haemothorax, pneumothorax, arterial-venous fistula, venous air embolism, nerve injury, thoracic duct injury (left side only), intraluminal dissection, and puncture of the aorta
      Pneumothorax is one of the most common CVC insertion complications, reportedly representing up to 30% of all mechanical adverse events of CVC insertion.
      Clinician-performed bedside US allows the diagnosis of pneumothorax to be made immediately, with a high degree of sensitivity and with better accuracy than supine chest films and equal to that of CT scan.
      Tension pneumothorax is classically characterized by hypotension and hypoxia. On examination, breath sounds are absent on the affected haemothorax and the trachea deviates away from the affected side. The thorax may also be hyper resonant; jugular venous distention and tachycardia may be present.
      If a pneumothorax is diagnosed the treatment strategy should be determined by the following factors: (I) size; (II) symptoms; (III) spontaneous breathing or use of mechanical ventilation; (IV) clinical diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax.

      Treatment consisted of: (I) observation; (II) outpatient insertion of a Heimlich valve; (III) inpatient tube thoracostomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On examination, a small pneumothorax is found. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Thoracocentesis

      Correct Answer: Insertion of chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a rib fracture to cause pneumothorax, there must also be laceration to the underlying lung parenchyma. This has the risk of developing into a tension pneumothorax. Therefore, a chest drain should be inserted and the patient admitted.

      Pneumothorax is a collection of free air in the chest cavity that causes the lung to collapse. The most common cause of pneumothorax is lung laceration with air leakage. In some instances, the lung continues to leak air into the chest cavity and results in compression of the chest structures, including vessels that return blood to the heart. This is known as a tension pneumothorax and can be fatal if not treated immediately. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 46-year old female patient experienced a stroke that affected her glossopharyngeal nerve....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year old female patient experienced a stroke that affected her glossopharyngeal nerve. Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would most likely:

      Your Answer: Affect taste of the anterior 2 thirds of the tongue

      Correct Answer: Result in general sensory deficit to the pharynx

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) has many functions which include:
      – Contributes to the pharyngeal plexus
      – Receiving general somatic sensory fibres from the tonsils, pharynx, the middle ear and the posterior third of the tongue.
      – supplies motor fibres to only one muscle; the stylopharyngeus muscle.
      – provides parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.
      – Receives visceral sensory fibres from the carotid bodies & carotid sinus.
      – Receives special visceral sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue.
      The above functions will directly be affected by the damage of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and...

    Incorrect

    • A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and is rushed to the A&E department. On arrival, he opens his eyes in response to pain, his only verbal responses are in the form of groans and grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli when it is applied. Calculate his Glasgow coma score.

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Answer: 8

      Eye Opening Response
      Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
      Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
      Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
      None – 1 point

      Verbal Response
      Oriented – 5 points
      Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
      Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
      Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      Motor Response
      Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
      Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
      Withdraws from pain – 4 points
      Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
      Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli This gives him a Glasgow score of 8: eye opening response of 2, verbal response 2 and motor response 4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man sustains a severe facial fracture, and reconstruction is planned. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man sustains a severe facial fracture, and reconstruction is planned. Which of the following investigations will facilitate preoperative planning?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance scan of face

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography of the head

      Explanation:

      Significant facial fractures may have an intracranial effect. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head allows delineation of the injury extent, and a 3D reconstruction of images can be done. An Orthopantomogram (OPT) provides good images of mandible and surrounding bony structures but cannot give intracranial details. X-ray of the skull lacks the details important in modern practice.

      Craniomaxillofacial (CMF) injuries in the UK are due to:
      1. Interpersonal violence (52%)
      2. Motor vehicle accidents (16%)
      3. Sporting injuries (19%)
      4. Falls (11%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer: T lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were: Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min, Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml, Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml, Urine urea: 260 mmol/l, Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l. What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male is found to have a 5cm carcinoid tumour of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is found to have a 5cm carcinoid tumour of the appendix. Imaging and diagnostic workup show no distant diseases. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Appendicectomy

      Correct Answer: Right hemicolectomy

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix.
      Signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumours vary greatly. Carcinoid tumours can be non-functioning presenting as a tumour mass or functioning. The sign and symptoms of a non-functioning tumour depend on the tumour location and size as well as on the presence of metastases. Therefore, findings range from no tumour-related symptoms (most carcinoid tumours) to full symptoms of carcinoid syndrome (primarily in adults).
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%)
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%)
      – Pellagra
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of carcinoid tumours and can be life-threatening. It can occur suddenly, after stress, or following chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

      Two surgical procedures can be applied to treat appendiceal Neuroendocrine Neoplasm (NEN): simple appendicectomy and oncological right-sided hemicolectomy.
      – For T1 (ENETS) or T1a (UICC/AJCC) NEN (i.e. <1 cm), generally simple appendicectomy is curative and sufficient.
      – For NEN >2 cm with a T3 stage (ENETS) or higher and T2 (UICC/AJCC) or higher respectively, a right-sided hemicolectomy is advised due to the increased risk of lymph node metastasis and long-term tumour recurrence and/or distant metastasis. The right-sided hemico- lectomy should be performed either as the initial surgical intervention should the problem be overt at that time, or during a second intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He develops profuse and watery diarrhoea. Several other patients have been suffering from similar symptoms. Infection with which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile) colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation and damage. Antibiotic therapy is the key factor that alters the colonic flora. C difficile infection (CDI) occurs primarily in hospitalized patients.
      The diagnosis of C difficile colitis should be suspected in any patient with diarrhoea who has received antibiotics within the previous 3 months, has been recently hospitalized, and/or has an occurrence of diarrhoea within 48 hours or more after hospitalization. In addition, C difficile can be a cause of diarrhoea in community dwellers without previous hospitalization or antibiotic exposure

      The following recommendations on Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) were released on February 2018 by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (ISDA) and Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA).
      Diagnosis (adults)
      Patients with unexplained and new-onset ≥3 unformed stools in 24 hours are the preferred target population for testing for CDI.
      Use a stool toxin test as part of a multistep algorithm (i.e., glutamate dehydrogenase [GDH] plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by nucleic acid amplification test [NAAT]; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than NAAT alone for all specimens when there are no pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
      Use NAAT alone or a multistep algorithm for testing (i.e., GDH plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by NAAT; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than a toxin test alone when there are pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
      Do not perform repeat testing (within 7 days) during the same episode of diarrhoea and do not test stool from asymptomatic patients, except for epidemiologic studies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A significantly elevated white cell count of 50 x 109/l with 5% blasts...

    Incorrect

    • A significantly elevated white cell count of 50 x 109/l with 5% blasts and raised leucocyte alkaline phosphatase is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Leukaemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Non-neoplastic proliferation of leucocytes causes an increase in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP). This is referred to as ‘leukemoid reaction’ because of the similarity to leukaemia with an increased white cell count (>50 × 109/l) with immature forms. Causes of leukemoid reaction includes haemorrhage, drugs (glucocorticoids, all-trans retinoic acid etc), infections such as tuberculosis and pertussis, and as a paraneoplastic phenomenon. Leukemoid reaction can also be seen in infancy as a feature of trisomy 21. This is usually a benign condition, but can be a response to a disease state. Differential diagnosis include chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of a boil located on the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The perineum, external genitalia, the labia majora and scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. In a man, the testes do not drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes but rather travel in the spermatic cord and drain into the lumbar nodes. The lumbar nodes drain the internal pelvic organs. The sacral nodes drain the prostrate gland, uterus, vagina, rectum and posterior pelvic wall and the external iliac nodes in turn drain the lower limb. The internal iliac nodes drain the pelvis and gluteal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/9) 33%
Basic Sciences (4/18) 22%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (4/9) 44%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/4) 25%
Pathology (0/4) 0%
Generic Surgical Topics (1/3) 33%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/5) 20%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Peri-operative Care (0/1) 0%
Colorectal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed