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  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old girl presents with a 6-month history of fatigue, joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with a 6-month history of fatigue, joint pain and a recurring macular rash. Prior to this, she was healthy. She has no previous medical history or recent illnesses and has not traveled recently.

      On examination, her temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and pulse is 90 bpm. A non-blanching macular rash is seen on her arms and legs. There is swelling and tenderness in her wrists and ankles. Lymph nodes are palpable in her neck and groin.

      Investigations reveal the following:
      - Hb: 130 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l)
      - WCC: 12.0 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      - PLT: 350 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Na+: 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - K+: 4.5 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Cr: 80 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l)
      - RF: Negative
      - ANA: Negative
      - Anti-dsDNA: Negative
      - ASO titre: Not detected
      - ECG: Normal sinus rhythm

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis from the choices listed below?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still's disease

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Systemic Still’s disease is a type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis that typically presents before the age of 16. It is characterized by systemic features such as high fever, rashes, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly, with minor arthritis symptoms. In contrast, pauciarticular Still’s disease affects large joints and often leads to seronegative spondyloarthritis. Antinuclear antibodies are present in this type of JRA. Acute rheumatic fever is another possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with carditis and a positive ASO titre, which is not the case here. Juvenile systemic lupus erythematosus is also a consideration, but the absence of antinuclear antibodies and the presence of significant systemic features make it less likely. Reactive arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of an infective precipitant and the atypical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. In summary, a child presenting with systemic features and arthritis may have Systemic Still’s disease or pauciarticular Still’s disease, and other diagnoses such as acute rheumatic fever, juvenile systemic lupus erythematosus, and reactive arthritis should be ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old Caucasian man presents with an acutely painful right knee. He is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old Caucasian man presents with an acutely painful right knee. He is unable to move due to the pain and swelling. Prior to this episode, the patient states that he is generally active, often enjoying a round of golf every Sunday. Last month he had a minor fall onto both knees whilst gardening. He puts his current symptoms down to general aches and pain of 'getting older'.

      The patient has also noticed that he is waking up more often in the night to urinate. His wife has noticed that he is looking more 'bronzed' despite them not going abroad on vacation this year. On further questioning, he admits to drinking 4-5 pints of beer per week. He is a non-smoker.

      On examination on the Medical Assessment Unit you note significant right-sided knee swelling. The joint is hot and tender to touch. There is no evidence of any surrounding skin changes.

      His random glucose is measured at 16 mmol/L.

      Further blood tests are shown below:

      Hb 140 g/l
      Platelets 115 * 109/l
      WBC 6.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 5.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      CRP 68 mg/L

      What is the most probable cause of his acutely swollen knee?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      This male patient is experiencing joint pain, excessive urination, and alterations in skin color. Based on his age and ethnicity, these symptoms are indicative of hereditary hemochromatosis. Additionally, his high random blood glucose levels and increased urination suggest the presence of diabetes. It is common for individuals with hemochromatosis to develop pseudogout due to the accumulation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in their larger joints.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      27.3
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with a known diagnosis of localised squamous cell lung carcinoma...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a known diagnosis of localised squamous cell lung carcinoma of the right upper lobe presents to the medical assessment unit (MAU) with a three-day history of headache. He describes the headache as a tight band across his forehead that worsens when he sits forward. The patient has also noticed increasing shortness of breath during the past three days but denies any haemoptysis or sputum production. He is not currently undergoing any treatment with chemotherapy or radiotherapy.

      During examination, the patient is apyrexial with a regular pulse of 100 BPM and a blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg. Oxygen saturations are 96% on air, and respiratory rate is 12 bpm. Moderate facial swelling with some dilation of the veins of his neck is noted, but chest examination is unremarkable.

      What is the appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for urgent radiotherapy to the superior vena cava (SVC)

      Correct Answer: High dose dexamethasone prescription

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment for Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      This patient is highly probable to have superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) caused by lung cancer, which requires immediate treatment. The best initial approach is to administer high dose steroids. While a CT scan of the chest is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, treatment should not be delayed to accommodate this. Although a clot in the SVC is possible, it is more common with indwelling catheters. The patient will likely require stenting or radiotherapy to the SVC, but starting with steroids will reduce the surrounding oedema and enhance venous return from the head and neck, improving symptoms and providing additional time to ensure the correct diagnosis and subsequent treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches on the left side of her head. She also reports intermittent jaw pain while chewing. Her daughter reports that her mother has been increasingly fatigued over the past few weeks. Laboratory testing shows an ESR of 95 mm/h. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Start 20 mg prednisolone per day

      Correct Answer: Start 60 mg prednisolone per day

      Explanation:

      Management of Giant Cell Arteritis: Starting Prednisone and Urgent Treatment

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a serious condition that can lead to sudden unilateral visual loss if left untreated. The definitive diagnostic test is a temporal artery biopsy, but treatment with high-dose prednisolone should not be delayed while awaiting biopsy. The histological features on biopsy include intimal hypertrophy, inflammation of the intima and sub-intima, breaking up of the internal elastic lamina, and giant cell infiltration of the internal elastic lamina. Treatment with prednisolone is both diagnostic and dramatic, with a symptom response that confirms the diagnosis. Around three-quarters of patients require between 1 and 3 years of steroid therapy, while the remaining quarter may require continued steroids for some years. Urgent treatment is necessary to prevent potential visual impairment, and investigations such as immunoglobulin testing and CT scan of the head should not delay treatment. A temporal artery biopsy can be booked for surgical list in 5 days’ time to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11.8
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old self-employed carpenter who specializes in building custom furniture is referred to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old self-employed carpenter who specializes in building custom furniture is referred to the Haematology Clinic due to complaints of fatigue and exhaustion. His General Practitioner has conducted a blood test and found that he is anaemic, with a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 99 g/l (normal value 135–175 g/l) and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 68 (normal value 70–90 fl). The blood film report notes red cell dimorphism with polychromatophilic, stippled red blood cells. What is the most common diagnosis associated with these blood film findings?

      Your Answer: Myelodysplasia

      Explanation:

      The patient in question has sideroblastic anaemia, which can be either inherited or acquired. Myelodysplasia is the most common acquired cause, while thalassaemia, ethanol abuse, copper deficiency, and lead poisoning are other possible causes. Thalassaemia results in microcytic anaemia, but the blood film will show hypochromic and nucleated red cells, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and target cells. Ethanol abuse can lead to sideroblastic anaemia, but it is less common. Copper deficiency, which may be caused by zinc ingestion, is also a less common cause. Lead poisoning, characterized by microcytosis, polychromatic, stippled red blood cells, and ring sideroblasts, is a cause of sideroblastic anaemia. The patient’s presentation is likely due to lead exposure during the renovation of old houses. However, myelodysplasia is the most common cause of sideroblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18.3
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman, who has been diagnosed with hepatitis C, visits your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, who has been diagnosed with hepatitis C, visits your clinic. She is concerned about the risk of transmitting the virus to her children. She is not HIV-positive.
      What is the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: The risk of transmission to the baby is approximately 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C and Pregnancy: Risks and Recommendations

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to baby during pregnancy or childbirth. Testing of the offspring for hepatitis C should not happen before 2 months of age, as serological testing is not reliable for up to the first 12 months of life. It is recommended that infants are tested for HCV RNA between 2 and 6 months of life, and for hepatitis C antibodies after 15 months. Elective caesarean is not recommended unless there are other reasons for retaining it as an option, as mode of delivery does not impact the risk of vertical transmission. The risk of vertical transmission is thought to be between 1.5 and 5%, although the risk is much higher in patients who are co-infected with HIV. Ribavirin is teratogenic and is therefore not used in pregnancy. If possible, patients with hepatitis C should undergo eradication anti-viral therapy before trying for a family. Although HCV has been detected in maternal colostrum, transmission of HCV via breastfeeding has not been documented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      39.8
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man has a history of severe aortic stenosis and experiences syncope...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has a history of severe aortic stenosis and experiences syncope during physical activity. What should be the next course of action in his treatment?

      Your Answer: Aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Surgery for Exertional Syncope in Aortic Stenosis Patients

      Exertional syncope, or fainting during physical activity, is a sign that surgery may be necessary for patients with severe aortic stenosis. This is true even if the patient does not experience exertional dyspnea, or difficulty breathing during physical activity. Aortic valvuloplasty, a procedure to widen the aortic valve, is not as effective as aortic valve replacement in the medium and long term for treating aortic stenosis. It is important for patients with aortic stenosis to seek medical attention if they experience exertional syncope, as surgery may be necessary to improve their condition. Proper treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.5
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man, who spent 4 months on a construction project in India,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man, who spent 4 months on a construction project in India, comes to the clinic for follow-up. He experienced a severe bout of diarrhea with blood during his time in the country and now reports intermittent sweats and pain in his lower right chest. Upon examination, he has hepatic tenderness and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Further investigations reveal abnormal results, including a low hemoglobin level and elevated liver enzymes. A CT scan shows a single abscess in the right liver lobe measuring 6 cm in diameter. You consult with an interventional radiologist for their opinion. What is the most appropriate initial medical treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Amoebic Liver Abscess

      Amoebic liver abscess is a condition caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which travels to the liver via the portal circulation. Diagnosis can be made based on imaging and positive serology. Unlike bacterial abscess management, this condition does not require drainage. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for liver trophozoites, followed by a luminal amoebicide such as paromomycin. Chloroquine can be used second line to treat amoebic liver abscess, but there is a better option. Doxycycline would not be appropriate treatment for this condition. Cefotaxime can be used to cover for both pyogenic infection and amoeba until the diagnosis is serologically confirmed. Quinine is not a treatment for amoebic infection. It is important to consider the appropriate treatment options for amoebic liver abscess to ensure effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.8
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of genital pruritus and painful...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of genital pruritus and painful intercourse with his partner. Upon examination, a white plaque is observed on his phimotic foreskin, along with a whitish scarred meatus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Erythema and discharge on the meatus are common symptoms of candidiasis, while painful intercourse and phimosis are not typically associated with vitiligo. Penile lichen planus is characterized by purple papules in a ring around the glans, while lichen sclerosus usually affects the glans and foreskin, resulting in white papules or plaques and can lead to phimosis.

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.9
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man receiving treatment for acute leukaemia presents at the haematology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man receiving treatment for acute leukaemia presents at the haematology clinic with symptoms of cough, wheezing, occasional haemoptysis, and fever. A chest x-ray reveals the air crescent sign, and a galactomannan test confirms the diagnosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Aspergillosis

      Aspergillosis is a type of fungal infection that typically affects individuals with weakened immune systems. This condition is particularly dangerous for those with acute leukaemia and haemopoietic stem cell transplantation, as it can lead to death. Symptoms of aspergillosis include coughing, chest pain, fever, and shock. Medical professionals often use chest x-rays and CT scans to diagnose the condition, as well as microscopy and the galactomannan test.

      While other conditions like pneumocystis pneumonia and tuberculosis can also affect immunocompromised individuals, the symptoms described are more indicative of aspergillosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man presents to the renal outpatient department with complaints of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the renal outpatient department with complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of end-stage renal failure due to hypertension and is currently undergoing dialysis. His medication regimen includes ramipril, amlodipine, and doxazosin. On examination, an arterio-venous fistula is noted at his right forearm.

      The patient's blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 84 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), MCV of 85 fL (80-96), platelets of 189 * 109/L (150-400), WBC of 4.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Na+ of 138 mmol/L (135-145), K+ of 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea of 28.1 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), ferritin of 88 µg/L (24-336), and transferrin saturation (TSAT) of 12% (20-50).

      What would be the appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV iron supplementation followed by consideration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent

      Explanation:

      In cases of anaemia in CKD, it is recommended to consider IV iron supplementation followed by the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents once the patient is iron-replete. This is because patients with end-stage renal failure on dialysis often require intravenous iron replacement due to elevated serum levels of hepcidin, which prevents intestinal absorption of iron. Once iron levels are restored, an ESA can be used to maintain haemoglobin levels between 100-120g/L. It is important to correct anaemia in CKD as it can lead to cardiomyopathy and left ventricular hypertrophy, and the use of ESA has been shown to reduce mortality. It should be noted that ESA is less effective in patients who are iron deficient, and oral iron supplementation is not recommended for these patients.

      Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.

      There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.

      To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      23.7
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman with a 20-year history of type 1 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a 20-year history of type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent falls. She has fainted twice and hit her head, requiring emergency department visits, and experiences dizziness at other times. She has a history of peripheral neuropathy and sexual dysfunction. Her medication regimen includes insulin glargine and mealtime Novorapid™, as well as ramipril 5 mg/day for renoprotection and indapamide 2.5 mg. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg with a postural drop of 30 mmHg systolic. She exhibits signs consistent with peripheral sensory neuropathy to the mid-shin.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      HbA1c 48 mmol/ml (6.51%) < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Elastic stockings

      Correct Answer: Stop indapamide

      Explanation:

      Management of Postural Hypotension in a Patient with Peripheral Neuropathy

      The management of postural hypotension in a patient with peripheral neuropathy involves several steps. The first step is to stop the use of indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, and monitor the patient’s blood pressure over the next few weeks. If the patient still experiences significant postural hypotension, elastic stockings can be added as a conservative measure. Fludrocortisone may also be considered if the patient does not respond to elastic stockings.

      It is important to note that the patient’s history of pre-syncope is more suggestive of changes in blood pressure rather than changes in blood glucose. Therefore, reducing prandial insulin or background insulin is not necessary in this case. By following these steps, healthcare providers can effectively manage postural hypotension in patients with peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of increasing thirst, fatigue, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of increasing thirst, fatigue, and weight loss. She had breast cancer ten years ago and underwent a mastectomy, and has been taking tamoxifen since then. She also has a three-year history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/90 mmHg, but no other abnormalities are found. She takes a large number of vitamins every day. Her general practitioner orders a series of biochemical tests, which reveal hypercalcemia. What is the most likely cause of her elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D toxicity

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      This patient is diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism due to hypercalcemia and elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. The history of breast cancer is not relevant to this diagnosis. Although bendroflumethiazide can cause hypercalcemia, it would not result in elevated PTH levels. On the other hand, vitamin D toxicity would lead to suppressed PTH levels, which is not the case in this patient.

      In summary, the patient’s hypercalcemia and elevated PTH levels indicate primary hyperparathyroidism, which is not related to their history of breast cancer or medication use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      41.6
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of abdominal pains and bloody diarrhoea. She had returned from Kenya one week ago. During her 5 weeks stay in Kenya, she was asymptomatic.

      On examination, her temperature was 37.8°C. Her abdomen was generally tender to touch but no masses could be felt, and she had active bowel sounds.

      Investigations:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal values: 135 - 175 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC) - 11.5 × 109/l (normal values: 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT) - 320 × 109/l (normal values: 150 - 400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 138 mmol/l (normal values: 135 - 145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 5.2 mmol/l (normal values: 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/l (normal values: 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) - 75 µmol/l (normal values: 50 - 120 µmol/l)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amoebic dysentery

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Causes of Diarrhoea in a Returning Traveller

      When a patient presents with diarrhoea after returning from travel, it is important to consider the different possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and travel history suggest amoebic dysentery as the most likely cause. Ischaemic colitis is unlikely due to the patient’s age and lack of risk factors. Campylobacter enterocolitis typically causes high fever and constitutional upset, which this patient does not have. Giardiasis does not cause bloody diarrhoea, and pseudomembranous colitis is associated with institutionalisation or antibiotic use, neither of which apply to this patient. Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and travel history, amoebic dysentery is the most probable diagnosis. Diagnosis can be confirmed through microscopic examination of stool samples or PCR testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.6
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old right-handed man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old right-handed man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided facial weakness and numbness, along with a headache. He has a history of hypertension and is taking bendroflumethiazide. On examination, there is evidence of left facial asymmetry and pyramidal weakness of the left arm. The CT scan of the brain is normal, but the electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation. How should this patient be managed?

      Your Answer: Commence on intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

      Explanation:

      Thrombolysis Consideration for Anterior Circulation Stroke Patient

      This gentleman, who was previously fit, has been diagnosed with an anterior circulation stroke. Although he has hypertension, he has no history of cerebrovascular accident or diabetes. Upon clinical examination, he has pyramidal weakness, but his CT scan shows no abnormalities. Since he is within the 4.5-hour time frame, thrombolysis should be considered. Fortunately, he has no other contraindications, as his INR is less than 1.3, and his full blood count and biochemistry profile are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He has a medical history of orthotopic bladder reconstruction due to bladder carcinoma. After 48 hours in the High Dependency Unit, he becomes confused and refuses to consume oral fluids. His vital signs are stable, but his serum biochemistry and blood gas analysis reveal abnormalities. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Rehydration with 0.9% sodium chloride and correction of blood glucose

      Correct Answer: Intravenous infusion of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate and potassium replacement

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis in Patients with Neobladders

      Patients who undergo neobladder formation following radical cystectomy or cystoprostatectomy may experience hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is a documented complication. This condition is usually mild and improves over time, but severe and persistent metabolic acidosis may occur when patients undergo further surgery for other reasons. Medical staff treating patients with neobladders should be aware of this complication and treat it with intravenous fluids and bicarbonate. Hypokalemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesaemia may also be present as associated electrolyte abnormalities.

      In a patient with hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, there is also a mild hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Lactate concentrations are normal, indicating that the acidosis is not due to organ hypoperfusion. Potassium depletion can be exacerbated by the correction of acidosis, and potassium supplementation alone via a central venous catheter is not sufficient treatment. Rehydration with 0.9% N. saline may worsen the hyperchloraemic state. Breathing into a paper bag is not appropriate treatment for this patient, as they have hyperglycaemia secondary to the metabolic stress response and not ketoacidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 31-year-old male presents with his 4th episode of worst ever headache in...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old male presents with his 4th episode of worst ever headache in one week. He describes the headache to always be of sudden onset on the left side of his head, of 10 out of 10 severity and that he finds bright lights extremely distressing during these periods. The episodes last for around 30 minutes, typically after dinner. He also describes redness and swelling of his left eye and a blocked left nostril during the headaches, associated with tearing of his left eye.

      He has no past medical history and family history of migraines. He denies illicit drug use, is a non-smoker and drinks two glasses of wine with dinner every night. Over the past 7 days, he has been self-medicating with paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, you notice no focal neurology, no meningism and fundoscopy is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: SUNCT (short lasting unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection or tearing)

      Correct Answer: Cluster headaches

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches and SUNCT are two headache syndromes that cause severe pain and autonomic symptoms. Migraines typically do not present with autonomic symptoms such as conjunctival injection, lacrimation, and rhinorrhea. Subarachnoid hemorrhage headaches are rare and typically do not recur without serious consequences, focal neurology, and reduced GCS. Medication overuse headaches are usually chronic and occur after prolonged analgesia use, without autonomic symptoms.

      To differentiate between cluster headaches and SUNCT, it is important to note that cluster headaches are more common in younger males under the age of 40, while SUNCT is more prevalent in older patients over the age of 40.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her primary care physician, reporting symptoms of dry...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her primary care physician, reporting symptoms of dry eyes, dry mouth, and discomfort during sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The patient has no notable medical history, including no history of rheumatoid arthritis or connective tissue disorders. What is a possible clinical manifestation in this scenario?

      Your Answer: 4 mm wetting per 5 minutes on Schirmer’s testing

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sjögren Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, leading to dry mouth and dry eyes. Other mucosal surfaces may also be affected. The condition can be primary or secondary, and is often characterized by plasma cell infiltration of the affected glands and positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies. A definitive diagnosis is made through a positive Schirmer’s test, which is defined as <5 mm wetting per 5 minutes. Treatment for Sjögren syndrome involves the use of artificial tears and screening for ophthalmic and dental complications. Complications may include corneal dryness and ulceration, as well as dental caries. Patients with Sjögren syndrome may also have positive ANA and anti-Ro antibodies. It is important to note that Sjögren syndrome is not associated with hypersalivation, but rather decreased parotid salivary gland flow. Additionally, dyspareunia in patients with Sjögren syndrome is related to exocrinopathy and not low estrogen levels. Hormone replacement therapy may be an option for patients with low estrogen levels due to other causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old woman with a history of type two diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypothyroidism,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with a history of type two diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, and dementia is being reviewed by the medical team prior to discharge. She was admitted to the hospital due to a lower respiratory tract infection and now feels well enough to be discharged. During her admission, her metformin was stopped for the first two days, but her other medications remained the same as in the community.

      Despite being confirmed as taking ramipril, the patient's blood pressure remains persistently high. What is the most appropriate course of action to control her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add on amlodipine at a low dose

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of ramipril and check U&Es within 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      To address the patient’s hypertension, the recommended course of action is to raise the dosage of ramipril and conduct U&Es testing within 1-2 weeks. Rather than adding a second anti-hypertensive, the first step should be to increase the low dose of ramipril. It is crucial to monitor renal function after starting or increasing the dosage of an ACE inhibitor, as any decline in renal function would require immediate investigation. If the patient did not have diabetes, amlodipine would have been a more suitable choice for an anti-hypertensive medication.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      63.7
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female presents with complaints of sleepiness, weakness, and vivid dreams that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with complaints of sleepiness, weakness, and vivid dreams that have been occurring for the past two months. She has a history of type 1 diabetes for six years and has been using basal bolus insulin for the last six months. She adheres to a good diet and regularly monitors her blood sugar levels. She lives with two other female student colleagues and binge drinks often on Saturday nights.

      On examination, she appears well with a BMI of 23 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 bpm, and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted. Her investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 152 g/L, white cell count of 6.8 ×109/L, platelets of 280 ×109/L, serum sodium of 146 mmol/L, serum potassium of 3.9 mmol/L, serum urea of 5.5 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 88 µmol/L, plasma glucose of 7.9 mmol/L, and HbA1c of 6.2%.

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic episodes

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Vivid Dreams at Night

      There are several possible causes of vivid dreams at night. Seizures at night are not typically associated with vivid dreams, as they are linked to sleep disruption and a lack of REM sleep. Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is associated with hypersomnolence, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations, but not necessarily vivid dreams.

      Sleep apnea can cause vivid dreams, but it is unlikely in a young, non-obese female. Schizophrenia is also an unlikely cause of this symptom. The most probable cause of vivid dreams at night in this patient is nocturnal hypoglycemia. REM sleep disruption can lead to daytime weakness and somnolence.

      It is important to note that Addison’s disease is unlikely to be the cause of this symptom, given the patient’s blood pressure and sodium levels. Overall, there are several possible causes of vivid dreams at night, and it is important to consider each one carefully in order to determine the underlying issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      57.6
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old woman is referred to oncology with a recent diagnosis of HER2...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is referred to oncology with a recent diagnosis of HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker and non-drinker, and lives with her spouse and two young children. Trastuzumab is initiated for treatment. What medications should be avoided during concurrent administration?

      Your Answer: Docetaxel and cyclophosphamide

      Correct Answer: Doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide

      Explanation:

      The combination of doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide is particularly cardiotoxic, and concurrent administration of trastuzumab and anthracyclines (such as doxorubicin) is not recommended for breast cancer treatment. However, carboplatin and paclitaxel, as well as docetaxel and cyclophosphamide, are possible combinations of chemotherapeutic agents that could be used in conjunction with trastuzumab to treat metastatic HER2 positive breast cancer. Additionally, research shows that adding pertuzumab to trastuzumab and chemotherapy as part of first-line therapy for HER2-positive metastatic breast cancer improves mortality.

      Trastuzumab: A Monoclonal Antibody for Breast Cancer Treatment

      Trastuzumab, also known as Herceptin, is a monoclonal antibody that targets the HER2/neu receptor. It is primarily used to treat metastatic breast cancer, although some patients with early-stage disease may also receive trastuzumab.

      Common side effects of trastuzumab include flu-like symptoms and diarrhea. However, it is important to note that trastuzumab can also cause cardiotoxicity, especially when used in combination with anthracyclines. Therefore, doctors typically perform an echocardiogram before starting treatment to monitor the patient’s heart function.

      In summary, trastuzumab is a valuable treatment option for breast cancer patients with HER2-positive tumors. However, it is important to closely monitor patients for potential adverse effects, particularly cardiotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the ED with a sudden onset rash. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the ED with a sudden onset rash. She reports feeling fatigued lately with a sore throat and cough. She is a smoker of 10 cigarettes/day.

      During the examination, the patient has multiple painful erosions on the inside of her lips, an inflamed throat, and diffuse wheezing. On her palms and forearms, she has several swollen papules, some of which have small blisters in the center, forming a target-like lesion.

      What is the most probable trigger for her condition?

      Your Answer: EBV

      Correct Answer: HSV 1

      Explanation:

      Causes of Targetoid Rash and Erythema Multiforme Minor

      Erythema multiforme minor is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction to a viral or bacterial trigger, with the most common cause being HSV 1. The characteristic targetoid rash is acute and self-limiting, but has a tendency to recur. Risk factors include a previous history of EM and male sex. Other possible causes include mycoplasma pneumonia, pneumococci, tuberculosis, and Mycobacterium avium complex. It is important to distinguish EM minor from EM major, or Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which is typically caused by drugs and is more severe.

      EBV is associated with pharyngitis and severe tonsillitis, while parvovirus B19 is associated with a facial rash and coryzal symptoms. Influenza may cause upper respiratory tract symptoms but is not associated with the vesicles and erosions seen in EM minor. Varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox with a widespread vesicular rash, or shingles with a rash confined to a particular dermatome, neither of which match the presentation of EM minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. He has been experiencing worsening palpitations since being diagnosed with a chest infection by his GP two days ago and starting oral antibiotics. He feels very unwell and severely short of breath. The patient has a history of myocardial infarction, AF, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he has a heart rate of 167 bpm, blood pressure of 87/50 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 93% on 5 litres of oxygen, and a temperature of 36.5ºC. He appears very unwell and distressed with bilateral crepitations to his mid-zones and peripheral edema to his thighs. His ECG shows atrial fibrillations. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

      Your Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient with decompensated AF is to perform a synchronised DC cardioversion immediately. This is because the patient is experiencing a tachyarrhythmia that has led to acute heart failure and shock, possibly due to an underlying infection. To avoid causing asystole, the shock must be synchronised to occur during an R wave, which the defibrillator will detect and pause until it identifies before delivering the shock. If three shocks fail to restore rhythm, amiodarone should be administered, while adenosine is used for haemodynamically stable narrow complex tachycardia. It is important to note that administering fluids may worsen pulmonary oedema in this situation.

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation

      Cardioversion may be used in two scenarios for atrial fibrillation (AF): as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      In the elective scenario for rhythm control, the 2014 NICE guidelines recommend offering rate or rhythm control if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and starting rate control if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain.

      If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised. Patients who have risk factors for ischaemic stroke should be put on lifelong oral anticoagulation. Otherwise, patients may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological methods.

      If the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately. NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological.

      If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A new patient comes to your clinic for the first time. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A new patient comes to your clinic for the first time. Upon reviewing their medical notes, you discover that they have a history of gastric hamartomas, basal cell carcinomas, mandibular bone cysts, intracranial calcification, and pits on the palms of their hands. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gorlin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Syndromes and Their Associated Gastrointestinal Manifestations

      Gorlin syndrome, familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), juvenile polyposis syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, and Cowden’s syndrome are all genetic syndromes that have gastrointestinal manifestations. Gorlin syndrome is characterized by gastric hamartomas, basal cell carcinomas, mandibular bone cysts, and intracranial calcification, as well as pits on the palms and soles. FAP is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the formation of multiple adenomatous polyps in the colon, which can lead to colon cancer. Juvenile polyposis syndrome is characterized by a tendency to form hamartomatous polyps throughout the GI tract, with an increased risk of colon cancer. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by hamartomatous GI polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation, with an increased risk of stomach and colon cancers. Cowden’s syndrome is characterized by widespread development of hamartomas with mucocutaneous lesions, with an increased risk of breast and thyroid carcinomas and formation of GI hamartomas.

      In summary, these genetic syndromes have varying gastrointestinal manifestations that can lead to an increased risk of cancer. It is important for individuals with a family history of these syndromes to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential gastrointestinal issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic after experiencing a cold and sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic after experiencing a cold and sore throat, complaining of passing dark urine. He reports a previous episode of blood in the urine after a sore throat. On examination, his blood pressure is slightly elevated at 140/88 mmHg. All other physical findings are normal. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (normal range: 130-170 g/L), a white blood cell count of 5.8 x 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 x 10^9/L), a platelet count of 150 x 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 x 10^9/L), a sodium level of 138 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L), a potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L), and a creatinine level of 130 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110 µmol/L). The urine test shows ++ blood and + protein. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ASOT

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Haematuria: IgA Nephropathy

      Haematuria occurring after upper respiratory tract infection is highly suggestive of IgA nephropathy. Renal biopsy is the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis, with usual findings including diffuse mesangial proliferation and extracellular matrix expansion. ASOT would be more likely to be positive in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Urine culture would diagnose urinary tract infection, but the history is not consistent with it. Serum IgA levels are usually elevated in IgA nephropathy, but raised IgA levels are not specific for the condition. Cystoscopy would be useful in excluding bladder cancer, but it is unlikely in young women without any other significant medical history. Aggressive control of hypertension, with ACE inhibition as the main therapeutic option and management of rising creatinine or proteinuria with the use of corticosteroids, form the backbone of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old female patient visited her GP complaining of double vision and painful...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient visited her GP complaining of double vision and painful right eye that had been persisting for six weeks. She had experienced similar visual problems with her left eye three years ago, which lasted for several days. The patient had no past medical history, was not taking any regular medication, and had a family history of neurological disease as her mother had died of a similar condition. She smoked 10 cigarettes per day and consumed 21 units of alcohol per week.

      During the examination, the patient appeared alert and orientated. The right pupil was sluggish in reacting to light, and visual acuity was 6/9 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left. There was no evidence of proptosis or conjunctival injection. The patient complained of diplopia on looking to the left, and there was oculoparesis of the adduction of the right eye with nystagmus of the abducting eye. The rest of the cranial nerves were normal. Peripheral nervous system examination revealed bilateral past-pointing, which was worse on the right. The patient had a mildly ataxic gait, but Romberg's test was negative. Tone, power, reflexes, and sensation appeared normal.

      The investigation results showed normal levels of haemoglobin, mean cell volume, white cell count, platelets, serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, serum C-reactive protein, fasting plasma glucose, serum folate, and plasma TSH. The patient's serum B12 level was within the normal range, and plasma T4 and T3 levels were slightly low. A lumbar puncture was performed, and the CSF analysis showed a positive oligoclonal band and no other abnormalities.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 25-year-old female patient based on her history and clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Optic Neuritis and Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      This patient is presenting with symptoms of optic neuritis and internuclear ophthalmoplegia on the right side, as well as peripheral features of subacute cerebellar syndrome. After conducting blood tests and analyzing the cerebrospinal fluid, it is likely that the cause of these symptoms in this young patient is multiple sclerosis. This is supported by the presence of positive oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid and a previous history of optic neuritis.

      Other potential causes were ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results. A carotid-cavernous fistula, for example, would cause acute painful, pulsating exophthalmos in addition to visual loss and diplopia. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is caused by a nutritional deficiency of thiamine, would present with acute mental confusion, ataxia with a positive Romberg’s test, and ophthalmoplegia. Friedreich’s ataxia, an autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat disorder, would lead to neurodegeneration of dorsal root ganglia, cerebellum, and corticospinal tracts.

      In summary, the combination of optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and subacute cerebellar syndrome in a young patient with normal blood tests and positive oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid is highly suggestive of multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      74.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In hyperthermia, as the body temperature rises, what is the earliest biochemical abnormality...

    Incorrect

    • In hyperthermia, as the body temperature rises, what is the earliest biochemical abnormality observed?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Effects of Body Temperature on Electrolyte Balance

      As the body temperature increases, it can lead to hyperthermia and heatstroke. One of the earliest abnormalities that can occur is hypokalaemia, which is caused by an increase in potassium uptake by muscles due to the stimulation of the NA-K-ATPase transporter by catecholamines. However, as the body temperature continues to rise, hyperkalaemia can develop, along with rhabdomyolysis and lactic acidosis. Severe cases may also show elevated levels of CSF lactate. The acid-base balance in such cases is characterized by metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

      Similar to dehydration states, the body tries to conserve water by concentrating urine, resulting in high urine osmolality. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels in cases of hyperthermia to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      11.9
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  • Question 28 - A 39-year-old man presents with a six-month history of diarrhea, dyspnea, and weight...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man presents with a six-month history of diarrhea, dyspnea, and weight loss. He used to be quite active and fit before these symptoms started. He reports having up to 10 episodes of diarrhea daily and experiencing wheezing and breathlessness during flushes that occur at any time of the day. His face turns red during these episodes. On examination, his pulse is regular at 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, and saturations are 98% on air. He has an elevated jugular venous pressure and a soft pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Abdominal examination reveals hepatomegaly of 8 cm. Investigations show elevated levels of ALP and 24hr Urine HIAA. Echocardiography reveals marked tricuspid regurgitation and mild pulmonary stenosis. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin therapy

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid Syndrome

      Carcinoid syndrome is a type of neuroendocrine tumor that can spread throughout the body. Despite its widespread dissemination, the prognosis for patients with this condition is generally reasonable. These tumors typically express somatostatin receptors, which means that treatment with somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be effective. However, standard chemotherapy has been shown to be ineffective.

      In order to treat a patient with carcinoid syndrome, doctors will typically start with octreotide therapy before moving on to other treatments like hepatic artery embolization. This approach can help to manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease. With proper treatment and management, patients with carcinoid syndrome can often live relatively normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      28.4
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old male business executive presents to you with a heart murmur that...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male business executive presents to you with a heart murmur that was detected during a routine medical examination after he joined a new company. He has no known medical or family history and is generally healthy and active. During your examination, you observe a pansystolic murmur in the apex, but chest auscultation is normal. An ECG shows sinus rhythm at 64 beats/minute without any signs of ventricular hypertrophy. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals severe mitral regurgitation, preserved left ventricular function (EF 85%), and pulmonary arterial systolic pressure of 15 mmHg. What would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 6 monthly echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Regurgitation

      Mitral regurgitation, also known as mitral insufficiency, is a condition where blood leaks back through the mitral valve on systole. This valve is located between the left atrium and ventricle, and when it doesn’t function properly, it can lead to a less efficient heart. While MR is common in healthy patients to a trivial degree and does not need treatment, severe cases can lead to irreversible heart failure. Risk factors for MR include age, renal dysfunction, and collagen disorders like Marfan’s Syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      There are several causes of MR, including coronary artery disease, mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever, and congenital defects. Symptoms tend to be due to failure of the left ventricle, arrhythmias, or pulmonary hypertension, and may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. A pansystolic murmur described as blowing is typically heard on auscultation of the chest.

      Diagnosis of MR is done through ECG, chest x-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment options include medical management with nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, and ACE inhibitors, as well as surgery in acute, severe cases. Repair is preferred over replacement in degenerative regurgitation, as it has been shown to have lower mortality and higher survival rates. When repair is not possible, valve replacement with an artificial or pig valve may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.7
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department after being found collapsed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department after being found collapsed and disoriented at home. He is unable to provide a clear medical history, and he has no family members to assist. Upon examination, his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 10/15, his pupils are reactive, and there are no neurological signs. He has a fever of 38.5°C, is dehydrated, and has a pulse rate of 125/min with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, which drops by approximately 10 mmHg when he changes position. Upon auscultation of his chest, heart sounds 1 and 2 are audible with no murmurs. He is hypoxic with O2 sats of 89% on air and has dullness to percussion in his right lower zone with coarse breath sounds. His abdomen is soft with audible bowel sounds. Ophthalmoscopy reveals microaneurysms and exudates. The Emergency Department nurse dipsticks his urine, which shows +++ Glucose, and a finger blood glucose test indicates a reading greater than 40. Emergency blood gas results and other biochemistry tests reveal high levels of serum sodium, urea, creatinine, and amylase, as well as low levels of plasma glucose and HbA1c. Despite receiving enough 0.9% saline to match his initial fluid deficit, his sodium levels remain high. What is the appropriate choice of IV fluid treatment at this stage?

      Your Answer: Dextrose/saline

      Correct Answer: 0.45% saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Hyper-Osmolar Hyperglycaemic Coma

      Hyper-osmolar hyperglycaemic coma (HHS) is a condition that occurs in older type 2 diabetic patients, where some residual insulin production prevents the development of ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetic patients. In the absence of ketonuria, HHS is likely to have been precipitated by pneumonia. The calculated osmolality of the patient is 420 mOsm/kg [2(Na+K) + glucose + urea]. Due to osmotic diuresis caused by hyperglycaemia, the patient will be severely dehydrated. The initial goal is to replenish the extracellular volume, which can be achieved by administering 1 litre of saline. If mild hypotension and absent postural drop persist, further volume expansion may be necessary.

      Once extracellular volume has been restored, the appropriate agent for patients with hypernatraemia is 0.45% saline, which replaces intra and extracellular fluid loss. This fluid has a similar composition to the fluid lost during the osmotic diuresis. When blood glucose reaches 15 mmol/L, 5% dextrose should be added. Electrolytes should be checked every 2-4 hours, and the decrease in Na should not be quicker than 10 mmol/day. Patients should be managed in a high care environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      6.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/3) 33%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (3/4) 75%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (1/5) 20%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Geriatric Medicine (0/1) 0%
Passmed