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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat. Upon examination, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Causes of Pancytopenia Due to Drug Intake
Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including drug intake. Some drugs can lead to pancytopenia by suppressing the bone marrow’s ability to produce blood cells.
Cytotoxic drugs, antibiotics such as trimethoprim and chloramphenicol, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like gold and penicillamine are some of the drugs that can cause pancytopenia. Carbimazole, an anti-thyroid drug, can also lead to this condition. Additionally, anti-epileptic drugs like carbamazepine and sulphonylureas such as tolbutamide have been known to cause pancytopenia.
It is important to monitor blood counts regularly when taking these drugs to detect any potential side effects. If pancytopenia is suspected, the drug should be discontinued immediately, and appropriate treatment should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?
Your Answer: Clindamycin
Correct Answer: Isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions
Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.
Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.
Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.
Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.
In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The Chief Medical Officer released guidelines in 2015 regarding vitamin D supplementation. What recommendations should be provided to caregivers?
Your Answer: Children who have a diet low in dairy products should be given vitamin D supplementation
Correct Answer: All children aged between 6 months and 5 years should be given vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.
It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital after an episode of mildly impaired speech and left leg weakness.
An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and a CT scan shows a small area of infarction in the territory of the middle cerebral artery on the right. He is started on warfarin and simvastatin and makes a full recovery within two days.
For how long should he refrain from driving his car?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One month
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Cerebrovascular Disease
The DVLA has specific guidelines for drivers who have experienced cerebrovascular disease. If the driver holds a Group one entitlement, they may continue driving after a one-month period of recovery, provided there are no residual neurological deficits. However, if the patient had been a lorry driver, their licence would be refused or revoked for a year.
If the driver has made a full recovery and has not suffered a seizure during or after the cerebral event, they do not need to notify the DVLA unless there is a residual neurological deficit one month after the episode. If there is a residual deficit, the driver must notify the DVLA and be subject to further checks.
It is important to note that the DVLA guidelines state that the driver must not drive for one month after experiencing occlusive cerebrovascular disease. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. Overall, it is crucial for drivers to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student from India requests to enroll at the clinic. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He cannot register unless he plans to live in the UK for more than 6 months
Explanation:Eligibility for NHS Treatment
Primary care is available to individuals who are considered ordinarily resident in the UK, regardless of their nationality or National Insurance contributions. This means that they must be residing in the UK for at least six months, but there is no qualifying period. Refugees are also considered ordinarily resident.
Secondary care is free for everyone who needs it, including contraception, emergency department treatment, compulsory psychiatric treatment, and treatment for certain communicable diseases such as tuberculosis, malaria, and meningitis, including HIV. Visitors can also receive free NHS hospital treatment if they are a national of an EEA country or Switzerland, normally live abroad and receive a UK state pension, have lived in the UK for at least ten years in the past, or are a national or resident of certain non-EEA countries with which the UK has a reciprocal agreement.
It is important to note that HIV treatment is no longer chargeable, following an amendment to the NHS (Charges to Overseas Visitors) Regulations in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. His HbA1c was 83 mmol/mol (9.7%) a year ago despite taking the maximum dose of oral hypoglycaemic medication. He was started on insulin and his latest HbA1c is 66 mmol/mol (8.2%). He is contemplating applying for a commercial driver's license and seeks guidance. What is the best advice to give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He may be able to apply for a HGV licence if he meets strict criteria relating to hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Individuals who are taking insulin can now possess a HGV license as long as they satisfy the rigorous standards set by the DVLA.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a 2 kg baby. The baby becomes agitated, with a high-pitched cry, tremor, sweating, excessive yawning, and a high respiratory rate 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely substance abused during this pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:Neonatal Withdrawal Symptoms and Associated Substance Use During Pregnancy
Neonatal withdrawal symptoms can occur when a baby is born to a mother who has used certain substances during pregnancy. Opiate withdrawal is characterized by classic symptoms such as sweating, yawning, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures, and typically begins 24-48 hours after birth. Cocaine withdrawal can cause tremors, agitation, and difficulty feeding, and is associated with intrauterine growth restriction. Alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which presents with craniofacial features, low birth weight, and neurodevelopmental dysfunction. Cannabis use is not typically associated with poor outcomes, while heavy use may lead to growth restriction and sudden infant death syndrome. Methadone withdrawal typically begins 48-72 hours after birth and presents with symptoms similar to opiate withdrawal. Antenatal care can help identify substance use during pregnancy and provide additional support and monitoring for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her BMI is 36. She expresses a strong desire to lose weight and has attempted various diets in the past. You decide to prescribe orlistat and advise her on the minimum amount of weight loss she must achieve in the initial three months to continue receiving the medication. What is the minimum weight loss required in the first three months of taking orlistat to maintain the prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Weight Loss Requirement for Prescription Continuation
To continue prescribing, a weight loss of at least 5% is necessary within the first three months. This means that patients must lose a certain amount of weight within the initial period of treatment to ensure that the medication is effective and safe for long-term use. It is important for patients to adhere to a healthy diet and exercise regimen to achieve this weight loss goal. Failure to meet this requirement may result in the discontinuation of the prescription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.8ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.
Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.
T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.
Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.
To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.
CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Samantha Johnson is a 78-year-old retired nurse who has been experiencing increasing forgetfulness and confusion in recent months. She lives with her husband and has a strong support system of local family members to help them manage her declining memory, motor skills, and perception. During a home visit, you suggest to the family that you would like to refer Samantha for further assessment as you suspect she may be suffering from Alzheimer's disease. They have heard about drugs that may be helpful from reading the news. According to the latest NICE guidance, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Assessments must be done before initiating treatment
Explanation:Alzheimer’s Disease: Understanding the Condition and Treatment Options
Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a prevalent form of dementia that affects around 500,000 people in the UK. Unfortunately, there is currently no known cure for the disorder, and it is typically terminal within three to seven years. The World Health Organisation international classification of disease criteria requires a duration of more than six months for a diagnosis of AD.
Cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine have a good evidence base in patients with mild to moderate AD. However, the proposal to limit cholinesterase inhibitors only to patients with moderate AD is inconsistent with the evidence base. Patients should be reviewed every six months under current guidance, and if GPs are involved in prescribing, a shared care protocol should be in place.
It’s important to note that diagnosis of AD is made in a specialist clinic and cannot be made by a GP. Understanding the condition and treatment options can help patients and their families make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels
Explanation:According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy with Down's Syndrome and his guardian visit their General Practitioner for a check-up as the boy has been struggling with his schoolwork. What are the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence's recommendations for annual health checks for individuals with a learning disability by General Practitioners?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current health interventions should be reviewed
Explanation:Importance of Annual Physical Health Checks for People with Learning Disabilities
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that people with learning disabilities should receive an annual physical health check in all settings. This check should be carried out using a standardised template, such as the Welsh health check template, and should include a review of any known or emerging challenging behaviour and how it may be linked to any physical health problems.
The physical health review should also include a review of current health interventions, including medication and related side effects, drug interactions, and adherence. An agreed and shared care plan for managing any physical health problems, including pain, should also be developed.
It is important to note that the annual physical health check should be carried out together with a family member, carer, healthcare professional, or social care practitioner who knows the person. This is to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care and that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately.
In conclusion, annual physical health checks are crucial for people with learning disabilities to ensure that any physical health problems are identified and managed appropriately. It is important that healthcare professionals follow the recommended guidelines and carry out these checks in all settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)
Explanation:The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with redness, mild discomfort and soreness of the left eye which feels gritty. He has never had these symptoms before and has no history of any eye or visual conditions. There is no history suggestive of an ocular foreign body. He is systemically well. Clinical examination shows no reduction in visual acuity and there is no discharge or eyelid abnormalities. His pupils appear normal with normal pupillary responses to light. There is a focal area of raised redness in the left eye. The right eye is white and quiet.
The red area related to the left eye disappears on compression and is mobile when a cotton bud is used to touch the area.
What advice should be given to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The underlying cause is often unknown and the condition is self-limiting and not harmful
Explanation:Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a benign inflammation of the episclera, which can cause mild soreness, redness, and tenderness in the affected eye. It is important to distinguish episcleritis from scleritis, a more severe ocular condition that often appears in conjunction with other inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
During examination, a focal area of nodular redness that is mobile on the white of the eye and blanches can be observed. Episcleritis is typically self-limiting and causes no harm, and the cause is usually unknown. Although it is only rarely associated with systemic inflammatory disease, any discomfort present can be treated with an oral anti-inflammatory. Artificial tears can also be useful for symptomatic treatment.
In summary, understanding the difference between episcleritis and scleritis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Hospital episode statistics were audited and it was discovered that the length of hospital stays for acute medical admissions is highly positively skewed. The median was found to be 4 days and the interquartile range was 2-10 days. What percentage of patients stayed between 2 and 10 days?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding Common Statistical Percentages
The field of statistics uses various percentages to describe and analyze data. Here are some common percentages and what they represent:
50% – The interquartile range describes the middle 50% of values when ordered from lowest to highest.
25% – The lower quartile has one-quarter (25%) of values below it, and the upper quartile has one-quarter of values above it.
68% – This is the percentage of values that fall within one standard deviation of the mean in normally skewed data.
95% – This is the percentage of values that fall within two standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
99.7% – This is the percentage of values that fall within three standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
Understanding these percentages can help in interpreting and drawing conclusions from statistical data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of 12 hours of increasing restlessness, agitation, vomiting, diarrhoea and tremors. During the examination, he displays hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia and myoclonus, particularly in the lower limbs. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. He recently began taking St John's wort to alleviate his depression.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.
Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A group of medical students want to investigate the impact of childhood drug use on the diagnosis of dementia in later life. They propose a case-control study design. The students will randomly select a sample of patients with dementia (the cases) and a sample of patients without dementia (the controls). After this, patients will be asked to report their experience of childhood drug use. The hospital's ethical review board is concerned with the study design. They argue that this study is particularly susceptible to recall bias and should be revised.
What is the specific concern of the review board regarding the proposed study design?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The accuracy of responses may differ between the two groups
Explanation:Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved from study participants in different groups, which may be influenced by factors such as the presence of a disorder. In the case of a study investigating drug use in individuals with dementia compared to a control group, recall bias is a significant concern as dementia patients may have poorer memory and be more disinhibited in admitting to prior drug use. While a case-control study may be flawed, it may be the only feasible option given the research question and study design. However, obtaining informed consent from patients with dementia and accounting for their potential forgetfulness about their participation in the study are important ethical considerations. Lying about teenage drug use may not necessarily lead to bias unless there is a systematic difference in lying rates between the two groups.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability. A diagnosis of mania is made. Select from the list the possibility that she may experience a similar episode later on in life.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Symptoms, Prognosis, and Long-Term Effects
Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that affects many individuals, typically first appearing in their third decade of life. The disorder is characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania, which can be followed by periods of depression. While recovery from an individual episode is possible, the long-term prognosis for those with bipolar disorder is often poorer than expected. Studies have shown that individuals with bipolar disorder can expect to experience an average of ten further episodes of mood disturbance over a 25-year period. As the number of episodes increases and individuals age, the time between episodes tends to shorten. It is important to understand that bipolar disorder is a chronic, lifelong illness that requires ongoing management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for the results of some recent blood tests. Three months ago, she had a liver function test that revealed a bilirubin of 42 µmol/L (normal range 3-20). A repeat liver function test conducted last week has shown the same outcome. The rest of her liver profile is within normal limits.
She is otherwise healthy and not taking any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally, and clinical examination is normal with no signs of liver disease. She is asymptomatic. Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose, and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further action needed. Reassure the patient as the result is stable and the other tests are normal.
Explanation:Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Level
When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. However, if the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, confirmed on interval testing, further investigation is necessary.
If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor the bilirubin level and investigate further if necessary to ensure proper management of the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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For which patients is pertussis vaccination not recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy
Explanation:The pertussis vaccination, typically administered as part of the DTaP or Tdap vaccines, is crucial in preventing whooping cough, which can be particularly severe in infants and children. However, there are specific situations where the pertussis vaccine may not be recommended.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Children with spina bifida do not have contraindications for the pertussis vaccine. In fact, they should receive all standard childhood immunizations, including the DTaP vaccine, unless there are other specific contraindications not related to spina bifida.
- Breastfeeding Mother:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Breastfeeding mothers are encouraged to receive the Tdap vaccine, especially postpartum if they did not receive it during pregnancy. This helps to protect both the mother and the infant by reducing the risk of transmission.
- Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is contraindicated.
- Explanation: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy or progressive encephalopathy should not receive the pertussis component of the vaccine until the condition is stabilised. This is due to the risk of vaccine-related exacerbations of the neurological condition.
- HIV Infected Individual:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: HIV-infected individuals, including children, should receive the pertussis vaccine according to the standard immunization schedule, unless they are severely immunocompromised. The DTaP vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, making it safe for use in immunocompromised individuals.
- Pregnant Woman:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Pregnant women are specifically recommended to receive the Tdap vaccine during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This practice helps provide passive immunity to the newborn and reduces the risk of pertussis transmission.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l
What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger and inability to pronate his forearm on one side. There is no history of trauma.
Identify the nerve that is most likely to be affected.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Anterior Interosseous Nerve: Function, Symptoms, and Treatment
The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor nerve that branches off from the median nerve just below the antecubital fossa. It runs along the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius and ends in the pronator quadratus muscle at the wrist. Its primary function is to supply the flexor pollicis longus, the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.
However, the nerve can be affected by direct penetrating injury or compression, leading to a condition known as anterior interosseous syndrome. This condition causes weakness in the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers, as the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus are weakened.
Treatment for compression includes rest, immobilization, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and possibly steroid injections or nerve release and repair. While spontaneous recovery is possible, seeking medical attention is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A new oral-hypoglycaemic is being developed. A number of different study types are considered to demonstrate efficacy in reducing the HbA1c. Which one of the following study designs would require the most participants to produce a significant result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superiority trial
Explanation:Since a superiority trial involves comparing a new drug with an already existing treatment that can also reduce HbA1c, a substantial sample size is necessary to establish a noteworthy distinction.
When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it doesn’t offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.
Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.
It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure. What are the most typical side-effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cough + anaphylactoid reactions + hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Mary comes to see you for a medication review. She is a 65-year-old woman, with a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage 3, hypertension and gout. Her current medication are amlodipine 10 mg daily and allopurinol 100 mg daily. Her blood pressure today is 151/93 mmHg. A recent urine dip was normal and her blood results are shown in the table below.
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 130 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2 (>90)
What changes should you make to her medications?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue current medications, add ramipril
Explanation:This patient is experiencing poorly controlled hypertension, despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium channel blocker. Additionally, he has established renal disease and his clinic blood pressure readings consistently exceed 140/90. To address this, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, or a thiazide-like diuretic to his current medication regimen. Simply relying on lifestyle modifications will not be sufficient to bring his blood pressure under control. Therefore, combination therapy with amlodipine should be continued.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has had a fever for five to six days. He is well, drinking fluids, not vomiting, and passing urine normally.
On examination, he is alert, well hydrated with no photophobia or neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.7°C, HR 140, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. His chest is clear.
He has generalised blanching macular rash and bilateral conjunctival injection. His lips are dry and chapped, tonsils are erythematous with no exudate. His eardrums look normal and he has moderate cervical lymphadenopathy. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and leucocytes.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give penicillin V, take throat swab and send home with worsening advice
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the UK. Although its prevalence is low, the risk of complications is high due to late diagnosis. As such, it is important to have a good understanding of the disease, which may be tested in the AKT exam.
The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, but it is believed to be due to a microbiological toxin. If left untreated, it can lead to coronary aneurysms. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, consider it in children with fever lasting over five days and who have four of the following five features: bilateral conjunctival injection, change in mucous membranes in the upper respiratory tract, change in the extremities, polymorphous rash, or cervical lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, incomplete or atypical Kawasaki disease may be diagnosed with fewer features.
To help remember the features of Kawasaki disease, think All Red + Cervical Lymphadenopathy. This stands for red eyes, red mouth, red rash, red hands, and cervical lymphadenopathy. By being aware of these symptoms, healthcare professionals can diagnose and treat Kawasaki disease promptly, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen a few days ago with gradual onset exertional breathlessness over the last few months and a clinical diagnosis of cardiac failure was made.
He reports reduced exercise tolerance, being easily fatigued and some mild breathlessness lying flat in bed at night. He has never smoked and aside from a 10 year history of hypertension is otherwise fit and well with no other medical problems. He takes lisinopril 10 mg OD.
On examination he is comfortable at rest sitting in a chair with no appreciable shortness of breath. He has very subtle pitting pedal oedema and some scattered bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest. Heart sounds are normal. Pulse rate is 72 bpm, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% in room air.
On reviewing the patient today with some initial investigations you can see that his chest x ray has been reported as 'cardiothoracic ratio is at the upper limit of normal with clear lung fields' and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of previous myocardial infarction and no left ventricular hypertrophy or bundle branch block.
His blood tests show a 'raised' brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 900 ng/l.
What is the next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for specialist assessment not needed, initiate treatment for heart failure in primary care
Explanation:The Importance of SNP Measurement in Suspected Heart Failure
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N terminal-pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) are peptide hormones produced in the heart that can help diagnose heart failure. Elevated levels of these hormones in the blood are indicative of cardiac failure and tend to correlate with the severity of the condition.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that SNP measurement be performed in patients with suspected heart failure to determine which patients should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. It is important to note that the units used to measure SNP levels may vary between labs, so it is crucial to consider the units when interpreting the results.
If a patient has a raised BNP level, they should be referred for assessment within six weeks. However, if a patient presents with signs and symptoms of heart failure and has previously had a myocardial infarction, SNP measurement may not be necessary, and they should be referred directly for assessment within two weeks.
In summary, SNP measurement is a valuable tool in diagnosing heart failure and can help determine the appropriate course of action for patients with suspected cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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