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Question 1
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An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical Admission Unit. He is unable to give any history due to confusion. His wife had taken him to the general practice surgery yesterday due to increased confusion, and trimethoprim was prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection. From a previous discharge letter, you ascertain that he has a background of Alzheimer’s dementia, atrial fibrillation (AF), ischaemic heart disease and osteoarthritis. His wife reports that he is normally forgetful but is much more confused than usual.
On examination, his pulse is 124 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 134/74 mmHg, oxygen saturation (SaO2) 95% (on 28% oxygen), respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and temperature 38.4 °C. He has crepitations and increased vocal resonance at the right lung base, with an area of bronchial breathing above this. Neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is normal.
Chest X-ray (CXR): focal consolidation, right base
Electrocardiogram (ECG): AF with rapid ventricular response
Urine dip: protein ++, otherwise NAD
Blood results are pending.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute deterioration?Your Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Deterioration in Elderly Patients: Community-Acquired Pneumonia as the Likely Cause
Elderly patients with underlying dementia often present with non-specific symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the cause of acute deterioration. In this case, the patient presented with acute confusion, and potential causes included community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infection, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. However, clinically and radiologically, the patient showed evidence of community-acquired pneumonia, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Urinary tract infection and Alzheimer’s disease were ruled out based on urinalysis findings and chest findings, respectively. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response could have been a cause of the patient’s confusion, but the clinical findings suggested pneumonia as the primary cause. Myocardial infarction was also a possibility, but the chest findings made it less likely.
In conclusion, diagnosing acute deterioration in elderly patients with underlying dementia requires a thorough evaluation of potential causes. In this case, community-acquired pneumonia was the most likely diagnosis, highlighting the importance of considering multiple pathologies that can coexist in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
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You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest on one of the wards. On arrival, the patient has defibrillator pads attached and someone is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A rhythm strip displays ventricular fibrillation during a CPR pause.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Safely DC shock immediately
Explanation:Proper Steps for Responding to a Shockable Rhythm
When responding to a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, it is important to follow the proper steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the resuscitation efforts. The first step is to immediately deliver a safe direct current (DC) shock, followed by one round of CPR and another safe DC shock. It is not appropriate to give drugs at this stage.
After the second shock, continue CPR at a rate of 30 compressions to 2 breaths with interval checks. It is important to note that CPR is appropriate on both sides of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm initially, but once the pads are attached and the rhythm has been observed, the appropriate pathway should be followed.
Under no circumstances should resuscitation be stopped if a shockable rhythm is observed. Instead, adrenaline 1:1000 IV should be administered only after the appropriate steps have been taken and the patient’s condition has been reassessed. By following these steps, responders can increase the chances of a successful resuscitation and potentially save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning in a lake. He was a swimmer who got into trouble and was underwater for approximately 10 minutes before being rescued. He was found unresponsive and not breathing, and bystanders immediately started performing CPR while waiting for emergency services. Upon arrival at the ICU, he is intubated and ventilated, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, oxygen saturations 85%, and temperature 33.2 °C.
Under what circumstances is extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) considered as a treatment option for drowning patients?Your Answer: Haemodynamic instability
Correct Answer: Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning
Explanation:When to Consider Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for Drowning Patients
Drowning can lead to respiratory compromise and persistent hypothermia, which may require advanced medical intervention. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a treatment option that can be considered for selected patients who have drowned. However, it is important to understand the indications for ECMO and when it may not be appropriate.
ECMO may be considered in cases where conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation have failed to improve respiratory function. Additionally, there should be a reasonable probability of the patient recovering neurological function. Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning is another indication for ECMO.
On the other hand, altered level of consciousness alone is not an indication for ECMO. Patients who respond well to conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation may not require ECMO. Similarly, haemodynamic instability can be managed with inotropes and fluids, and ECMO should only be considered for patients who are resistant to conventional organ support.
It is important to note that ECMO has a high complication rate, with a 15% risk of bleeding. Therefore, it should only be used in selected cases where the potential benefits outweigh the risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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You are asked by nursing staff to review a pediatric patient in recovery overnight. As you arrive, the nurse looking after the patient informs you that she is just going to get a bag of fluid for him. On examination, the patient is unresponsive with an obstructed airway (snoring). You notice on the monitor that his heart rate is 33 bpm and blood pressure 89/60 mmHg. His saturation probe has fallen off.
What is your first priority?Your Answer: Call for help and maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver 15 l of high-flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Bradycardia and Airway Obstruction: Priorities and Interventions
When faced with a patient who is unresponsive and has both an obstructed airway and bradycardia, the first priority is to address the airway obstruction. After calling for help, the airway can be maintained with a jaw thrust and delivery of 15 l of high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Monitoring the patient’s oxygen saturation is important to assess their response. If bradycardia persists despite maximal atropine treatment, second-line drugs such as an isoprenaline infusion or an adrenaline infusion can be considered. Atropine is the first-line medication for reversing the arrhythmia, given in 500-micrograms boluses iv and repeated every 3-5 minutes as needed. While a second iv access line may be beneficial, it is not a priority compared to maintaining the airway and controlling the bradycardia. Re-intubation may be necessary if simpler measures and non-definitive airway interventions have failed to ventilate the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred after he fell from a boat into a lake, while intoxicated with alcohol. He has no medical history. He is drowsy, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9; his oxygen saturations are 80% on an inspired fraction of oxygen (FiO2) of 1.0 via a non-rebreather face mask.
Which of the following is part of the treatment algorithm for drowning?Your Answer: Warming strategies for hypothermia
Explanation:Warming and Treatment Strategies for Hypothermia and Drowning
Hypothermia and drowning are serious medical emergencies that require prompt intervention to prevent further complications. In cases of hypothermia, the severity of the condition will determine the appropriate intervention. For mild cases, passive rewarming through heated blankets and warm fluids may be sufficient. However, for more severe cases, blood rewarming through the use of a haemodialysis machine or warm intravenous fluids may be necessary. Airway rewarming using humidified oxygen may also be used.
In cases of drowning, support for shock is crucial, and patients should be managed with warming, IV fluids, and airway support. Diuresis should be avoided in shocked patients. Oxygenation is critical in treating post-drowning patients, and intubation and mechanical ventilation may be required in cases of moderate to severe hypoxia. Prophylactic antibiotics are unproven, but may be given if fever develops or there is grossly contaminated aspirated water. Treatment should be targeted towards likely pathogens, with route of administration depending on the patient’s condition. Pneumonia can be a major complication, and atypical organisms should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
What is the next and most important step in management?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the affected limb
Correct Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre
Explanation:Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.
Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.
IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.
While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
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An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
What should be done at discharge?Your Answer: Discharge with two adrenaline autoinjectors
Explanation:Discharge and Follow-Up of Anaphylactic Patients: Recommendations and Advice
When it comes to discharging and following up with patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, there are certain recommendations and advice that healthcare professionals should keep in mind. Here are some key points to consider:
Recommendations and Advice for Discharging and Following Up with Anaphylactic Patients
– Give two adrenaline injectors as an interim measure after emergency treatment for anaphylaxis, before a specialist allergy service appointment. This is especially important in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack before their specialist appointment.
– Auto-injectors are given to patients at an increased risk of a reaction. They are not usually necessary for patients who have suffered drug-induced anaphylaxis, unless it is difficult to avoid the drug.
– Advise that one adrenaline auto-injector will be prescribed if the patient has a further anaphylactic reaction.
– Arrange for a blood test after one week for serum tryptase, immunoglobulin E (IgE) and histamine levels to assess biphasic reaction. Discharge and follow-up of anaphylactic patients do not involve a blood test. Tryptase sample timings, measured while the patient is in hospital, should be documented in the patient’s records.
– Patients who have suffered from anaphylaxis should be given information about the potential of biphasic reactions (i.e. the reaction can recur hours after initial treatment) and what to do if a reaction occurs again.
– All patients presenting with anaphylaxis should be referred to an Allergy Clinic to identify the cause, and thereby reduce the risk of further reactions and prepare the patient to manage future episodes themselves. All patients should also be given two adrenaline injectors in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack.By following these recommendations and providing patients with the necessary information and resources, healthcare professionals can help ensure the best possible outcomes for those who have experienced anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old backpacker had embarked on a climbing expedition to Mount Everest. He had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day. To avoid the predicted bad weather, he and his team left the base camp the following day. They reached an altitude of 6000 m on day four. He complained of occasional dull headaches and feeling light-headed, which he attributed to his dehydration. The next day, he set off alone, but was discovered by the search party ten hours later. He was found to be confused, unable to walk in a straight line, irritable, and extremely fatigued. His symptoms significantly improved after receiving dexamethasone and resting in a portable hyperbaric chamber.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute mountain sickness (AMS)
Correct Answer: High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for High-Altitude Illness in a Patient with AMS Symptoms
High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE) is a serious complication of acute mountain sickness (AMS) that can lead to ataxia, confusion, and even coma. In this patient, the symptoms progressed from mild AMS to HACE, as evidenced by the alleviation of symptoms following dexamethasone and hyperbaric treatment. Hypoglycaemia can mimic HACE symptoms, but the rapid ascent to high altitude and progression of symptoms point to a diagnosis of HACE. Alcohol intoxication can also mimic AMS and HAPE symptoms, but the patient’s response to treatment excludes this differential diagnosis. High-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE) is another potential complication, but the absence of respiratory symptoms rules it out in this case. Overall, a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat high-altitude illness in patients with AMS symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action?Your Answer: Get senior support
Correct Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant
Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care Clinic with his daughter. He also has a history of mild dementia, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes furosemide, lisinopril, amitriptyline, aspirin, metoprolol, olanzapine and simvastatin. He lives by himself in a house in which he has lived for 30 years and has help with all activities of daily living. On examination, he appears frail, has mild bruising over both knees from recent falls and has reduced proximal lower-extremity muscle strength.
Which of the following interventions will decrease his risk of falling in the future?Your Answer: Balance and gait training physical exercises
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Interventions to Reduce Falls in the Elderly
Balance and gait training exercises are effective interventions to reduce falls in the elderly. On the other hand, continuing olanzapine and commencing donepezil have not been proven to reduce the risk of falls. Diuretics, such as furosemide, can increase the likelihood of falls, so stopping them is recommended. Additionally, amitriptyline has anticholinergic side-effects that can lead to confusion and falls, so discontinuing it is a quick and potentially effective intervention. Overall, a multifactorial approach that includes balance and gait training, medication review, and fall risk assessment is the most appropriate strategy to reduce falls in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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