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  • Question 1 - A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
      A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.

      There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:

      – The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
      – Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
      – Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.

      Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
      A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Correct

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.
      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He is thrown...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He is thrown from his motorbike onto the pavement and sustains a haemopneumothorax and flail segment of the right chest. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Insertion of intercostal chest tube

      Explanation:

      This patient requires immediate insertion of an intercostal chest tube and analgesia. In general, all cases of haemopneumothorax should be managed by intercostal chest drain insertion as it can develop into tension pneumothorax until the lung laceration has sealed.

      Haemopneumothorax is most frequently caused by a trauma or blunt or penetrating injury to the chest followed by laceration of the lung with air leakage, or injury to the intercostal vessels or internal mammary artery. The main treatment for haemopneumothorax is chest tube thoracostomy (chest tube insertion). Surgical exploration is warranted if >1500ml blood is drained immediately.

      Flail chest occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage. It usually follows multiple rib fractures (at least two fractures per rib in at least two ribs) and is associated with pulmonary contusion. Overhydration and fluid overload is avoided in such patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Incorrect

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S2

      Correct Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Correct Answer: Aortic

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of an organ is related to its blood supply. The lymphatic drainage of the testis drains along the testicular artery to reach the lymph nodes along the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma of the greater curvature of the stomach. His staging investigations are negative for metastatic disease. What is the best treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Sub total gastrectomy, D2 lymphadenectomy and Roux en Y reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Surgical resection is the principal therapy for gastric cancer, as it offers the only potential for cure. A subtotal gastrectomy is usually performed for tumours of the distal stomach. Subtotal gastrectomy is the treatment of choice for middle and distal-third gastric cancer as it provides similar survival rates and better functional outcome compared to total gastrectomy, especially in early-stage disease with favourable prognosis. D2 dissections are recommended by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network over D1 dissections. A pancreas-and spleen-preserving D2 lymphadenectomy is suggested, as it provides greater staging information, and may provide a survival benefit while avoiding its excess morbidity when possible. Patients that undergo D2 lymphadenectomy as a standard part of surgical resection of gastric adenocarcinoma generally have better stage-for-stage overall survival figures compared to patients undergoing less extensive lymphadenectomies.
      After partial gastrectomy, some patients report disorders such as reflux esophagitis and alkaline gastritis, as well as dumping syndrome, delayed gastric emptying and malabsorption, which are defined as functional dyspepsia. Duodenogastric reflux is recognized to be a major cause of clinical symptoms after resection.
      Roux-Y reconstruction seems to be effective in reducing bile reflux into the stomach, compared to Billroth I and II procedure, and conversion to this procedure has been reported in patients with symptomatic uncontrolled reflux disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a complaint of dysphagia. She has a ten year history of treatment refractory anaemia secondary to menorrhagia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Plummer Vinson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) is the most common form of anaemia worldwide and can be due to inadequate intake, decreased absorption (e.g., atrophic gastritis, inflammatory bowel disease), increased demand (e.g., during pregnancy), or increased loss (e.g., gastrointestinal bleeding, menorrhagia) of iron. Prolonged deficiency depletes the iron stores in the body, resulting in decreased erythropoiesis and anaemia.
      Symptoms are nonspecific and include fatigue, pallor, lethargy, hair loss, brittle nails, and pica. Diagnostic lab values include low haemoglobin, microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells on peripheral smear, and low ferritin and iron levels. Once diagnosed, the underlying cause should be determined. Patients at risk for underlying gastrointestinal malignancy should also undergo a colonoscopy.
      Iron deficiency anaemia is treated with oral (most common) or parenteral iron supplementation. Severe anaemia or those with concomitant cardiac conditions may also require blood transfusions. The underlying cause of IDA should also be corrected. IDA may manifest as Plummer-Vinson syndrome (PVS): triad of postcricoid dysphagia, upper oesophageal webs, and iron deficiency anaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient had loss of consciousness, woke up momentarily when he was in the emergency room but became drowsy and comatose a few hours after. CT scan of the brain showed accumulation of blood between the dura and the cranial bone on the left side of his head. What type of haemorrhage did the patient have?

      Your Answer: Subdural

      Correct Answer: Epidural

      Explanation:

      Epidural hematoma, also known as epidural bleeding, is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in which a build-up of blood occurs between the dura mater (the tough outer membrane of the central nervous system) and the skull. The spinal cord is also covered by a layer of dura mater, so epidural bleeds may also occur in the spinal column. Often due to trauma, the condition is potentially deadly because the build-up of blood may increase pressure in the intracranial space, compressing delicate brain tissue, and causing brain shift. The condition is present in one to three percent of head injuries. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule.,...

    Correct

    • A patient with chronic renal disease, missed a day of his dialysis schedule., His serum potassium was 7.6 mmol/L when his electrolytes were checked. What is the ECG finding expected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Tented T waves

      Explanation:

      ECG characteristics of hyperkalaemia may show the following changes: P-waves are widened and of low amplitude due to slowing of conduction, widened QRS complex, QRS-T fusion, loss of ST segment and tall tented T waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker should be requested to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HER2

      Correct Answer: CA-125

      Explanation:

      CA-125 is a protein that is used as a tumour marker. This substance is found in high concentration in patients with ovarian cancer. It is the only tumour marker recommended for clinical use in the diagnosis and management of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented with a stroke a few months ago severely affecting his speech and movement in the right arm and leg. A cerebral angiogram revealed a middle cerebral artery occlusion. A recent CT scan was done which revealed a 5 cm cystic space in his left parietal lobe. This lesion is a result of which of the following forms of resolution?

      Your Answer: Coagulative necrosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Characteristically, the brain will undergo liquefactive necrosis following ischaemic injury. This leaves a cystic space in that region which would show up on a CT scan. Atrophy would result in a generalized decrease in the brain size. Coagulative necrosis typically occurs in parenchymal organs e.g. the spleen or kidney which have a lower lipid content. Caseous necrosis is typical in granulomatous tuberculosis infection. Apoptosis will not form a cystic area as it is programmed cell death involving a individual cells. Gangrenous necrosis is characteristic of ischaemic injury of the lower limb and GI tract. Fibrinous necrosis results from necrotic damage to the blood vessels with the leaking of proteins into the vessel, appearing bright pink on H & E staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Decreased MCV

      Correct Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer: Lacrimal artery

      Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: T complex in the electrocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Second heart sound

      Explanation:

      The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and...

    Correct

    • A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and crying. A diagnosis of congenital heart disease is suspected by the team of doctors. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion that presents in neonates. The hallmark of transposition of the great arteries is ventriculoarterial discordance, in which the aorta arises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle.

      Infants with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) are usually born at term, with cyanosis apparent within hours of birth.

      The clinical course and manifestations depend on the extent of intercirculatory mixing and the presence of associated anatomic lesions. Note the following:

      Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum: Prominent and progressive cyanosis within the first 24 hours of life is the usual finding in infants if no significant mixing at the atrial level is evident.

      Transposition of the great arteries with large ventricular septal defect: Infants may not initially manifest symptoms of heart disease, although mild cyanosis (particularly when crying) is often noted. Signs of congestive heart failure (tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and failure to gain weight) may become evident over the first 3-6 weeks as pulmonary blood flow increases.

      Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction: Infants often present with extreme cyanosis at birth, proportional to the degree of left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract obstruction. The clinical history may be similar to that of an infant with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary vascular obstructive disease: Progressively advancing pulmonary vascular obstructive disease can prevent this rare subgroup of patients from developing symptoms of congestive heart failure, despite a large ventricular septal defect. Most often, patients present with progressive cyanosis, despite an early successful palliative procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30 year old mother presents with a tender indurated mass in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old mother presents with a tender indurated mass in her left breast which developed 6 days after giving birth and breastfeeding the baby. Which organism is most likely to have caused this infection?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Mastitis is defined as inflammation of the breast. Although it can occur spontaneously or during lactation, this discussion is limited to mastitis in breastfeeding women, with mastitis defined clinically as localized, painful inflammation of the breast occurring in conjunction with flu-like symptoms (e.g., fever, malaise). Mastitis is especially problematic because it may lead to the discontinuation of breast-feeding, which provides optimal infant nutrition. Mastitis occurs in approximately 10 percent of U.S. mothers who are breastfeeding, and it can lead to the cessation of breastfeeding. The risk of mastitis can be reduced by frequent, complete emptying of the breast and by optimizing breastfeeding technique. Sore nipples can precipitate mastitis. The differential diagnosis of sore nipples includes mechanical irritation from a poor latch or infant mouth anomalies, such as cleft palate or bacterial or yeast infection. The diagnosis of mastitis is usually clinical, with patients presenting with focal tenderness in one breast accompanied by fever and malaise. Treatment includes changing breastfeeding technique, often with the assistance of a lactation consultant. When antibiotics are needed, those effective against Staphylococcus aureus (e.g., dicloxacillin, cephalexin) are preferred. As methicillin-resistant S. aureus becomes more common, it is likely to be a more common cause of mastitis, and antibiotics that are effective against this organism may become preferred. Continued breastfeeding should be encouraged in the presence of mastitis and generally does not pose a risk to the infant. Breast abscess is the most common complication of mastitis. It can be prevented by early treatment of mastitis and continued breastfeeding. Once an abscess occurs, surgical drainage or needle aspiration is needed. Breastfeeding can usually continue in the presence of a treated abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Incorrect

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Sinus venarum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus,...

    Incorrect

    • The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?

      Your Answer: Subclavius

      Correct Answer: Teres minor

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68 year old woman who underwent a mastectomy with axillary node clearance...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman who underwent a mastectomy with axillary node clearance for breast cancer is going to have a drain inserted to prevent seroma development. Which of the following devices should ideally be used?

      Your Answer: Use of a VAC wound closure system

      Correct Answer: A closed suction drainage system made of polypropylene

      Explanation:

      A surgical drain is a tube used to remove pus, blood or other fluids from a wound. They are commonly placed by surgeons or interventional radiologists. Suction is applied through the drain to generate a vacuum and draw fluids into a bottle. Following breast surgery, it is standard practice to use a Redivac type system that is made of polypropylene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32 year old woman presents to the ER with recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents to the ER with recurrent episodes of non specific abdominal pain. The labs including blood tests appear to be normal. Ct scan is done for further evaluation. The CT reveals a 1.5 cm nodule in the right adrenal gland that is associated with a lipid rich core. Urinary VMA is found to be within the normal range. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Benign non functional adenoma

      Explanation:

      Adrenal adenomas are benign tumours of the adrenal glands, which can be either functioning or non-functioning. Though the majority are clinically silent, functional adenomas from the cortex of medulla can lead to overproduction of any of their associated hormones. Benign adenomas often have a lipid rich core that is readily identifiable on CT scanning. In addition the nodules are often well circumscribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?

      Your Answer: Leg

      Correct Answer: Axial muscles

      Explanation:

      The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Nucleated red blood cells

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45 -year-old female is recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 -year-old female is recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She has a 8-cm-diameter mass in her left breast, with enlarged left axillary node. What is the most likely stage of her disease?

      Your Answer: IB

      Correct Answer: IIIA

      Explanation:

      Stage IIIA breast cancer is T0–2 N2 M0 or T3 N1-2 M0 disease. It describes invasive breast cancer in which either: the tumour is smaller than 5 cm in diameter and has spread to 4 to 9 axillary lymph nodes; or it is found through imaging studies or clinical exam to have spread to internal mammary nodes (near the breastbone found during imaging tests or a physical exam); or the tumour is larger than 5 cm and has spread to 1 to 9 axillary nodes, or to internal mammary nodes. In this stage, the cancer has not metastasized (spread to distant sites).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns to the clinic complaining that she develops vertigo and crampy abdominal pain after eating. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Insulin resistance

      Correct Answer: Dumping syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dumping syndrome is the effect of altered gastric reservoir function, abnormal postoperative gastric motor function, and/or pyloric emptying mechanism. Clinically significant dumping syndrome occurs in approximately 10% of patients after any type of gastric surgery and in up to 50% of patients after laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Dumping syndrome has characteristic alimentary and systemic manifestations. It is a frequent complication observed after a variety of gastric surgical procedures, such as vagotomy, pyloroplasty, gastrojejunostomy, and laparoscopic Nissan fundoplication. Dumping syndrome can be separated into early and late forms, depending on the occurrence of symptoms in relation to the time elapsed after a meal.
      Postprandially, the function of the body of the stomach is to store food and to allow the initial chemical digestion by acid and proteases before transferring food to the gastric antrum. In the antrum, high-amplitude contractions triturate the solids, reducing the particle size to 1-2 mm. Once solids have been reduced to this desired size, they are able to pass through the pylorus. An intact pylorus prevents the passage of larger particles into the duodenum. Gastric emptying is controlled by the fundic tone, antropyloric mechanisms, and duodenal feedback. Gastric surgery alters each of these mechanisms in several ways.

      The late dumping syndrome is suspected in the person who has symptoms of hypoglycaemia in the setting of previous gastric surgery, and this late dumping can be proven with an oral glucose tolerance test (hyperinsulinemic hypoglycaemia), as well as gastric emptying scintigraphy, which shows the abnormal pattern of initially delayed and then accelerated gastric emptying.

      The clinical presentation of dumping syndrome can be divided into GI symptoms and vasomotor symptoms. GI symptoms include early satiety, crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and explosive diarrhoea. Vasomotor symptoms include diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, palpitations, and an intense desire to lie down.

      The expression of these symptoms varies in different individuals. Most patients with early dumping have both GI and vasomotor symptoms, while patients with late dumping have mostly vasomotor symptoms. Patients with severe dumping often limit their food intake to avoid symptoms. This leads to weight loss and, over time, malnutrition.

      Early dumping syndrome generally occurs within 15 minutes of ingesting a meal and is attributable to the rapid transit of food into the small intestine, whereas late dumping syndrome occurs later and may be attributed to hypoglycaemia with tremors, cold sweats, difficulty in concentrating, and loss of consciousness.

      Early dumping systemic symptoms are as follows:
      Desire to lie down
      Palpitations
      Fatigue
      Faintness
      Syncope
      Diaphoresis
      Headache
      Flushing

      Early dumping abdominal symptoms are as follows:
      Epigastric fullness
      Diarrhoea
      Nausea
      Abdominal cramps
      Borborygmi

      Late dumping symptoms are as follows:
      Perspiration
      Shakiness
      Difficulty to concentrate
      Decreased consciousness
      Hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal pain for the past 18 hours. He was asymptomatic before that.Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Laxative abuse

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni infection

      Explanation:

      Severe abdominal pain tends to favour infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of gastroenteritis worldwide. In developed countries, the incidence of Campylobacter jejuni infections peaks during infancy and, again, during early adulthood. Most infections are acquired by the consumption and handling of poultry. A typical case is characterized by diarrhoea, fever, and severe abdominal cramps. Obtaining cultures of the organism from stool samples remains the best way to diagnose this infection. Complications of C. jejuni infections are rare, and most patients do not require antibiotics. Careful food preparation and cooking practices may prevent some Campylobacter infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A teenager presents to her family doctor with recurrent throat and chest infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents to her family doctor with recurrent throat and chest infections, fatigue and gradual loss of vision. X-rays are done which show brittle bones with no differentiation between the cortex and the medulla. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Correct Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Osteopetrosis is a clinical syndrome characterized by the failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone. As a consequence, bone modelling and remodelling are impaired. The defect in bone turnover characteristically results in skeletal fragility despite increased bone mass, and it may also cause hematopoietic insufficiency, disturbed tooth eruption, nerve entrapment syndromes, and growth impairment.
      Many patients have bone pains. Bony defects are common and include neuropathies due to cranial nerve entrapment (e.g., with deafness, with facial palsy), carpal tunnel syndrome, and osteoarthritis. Bones are fragile and may fracture easily. Approximately 40% of patients have recurrent fractures. Osteomyelitis of the mandible occurs in 10% of patients.

      Other manifestations include visual impairment due to retinal degeneration and psychomotor retardation. Bone marrow function is not compromised.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of genetic disorders that mainly affect the bones. It results in bones that break easily. The severity may be mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a blue tinge to the whites of the eye, short height, loose joints, hearing loss, breathing problems and problems with the teeth. Complications may include cervical artery dissection and aortic dissection.

      The underlying mechanism is usually a problem with connective tissue due to a lack of type I collagen. This occurs in more than 90% of cases due to mutations in the COL1A1 or COL1A2 genes. These genetic problems are often inherited from a person’s parents in an autosomal dominant manner or occur via a new mutation. There are at least eight main types, with type I being the least severe and type II the most severe.

      Osteomalacia it is the disease in which softening of the bones caused by impaired bone metabolism primarily due to inadequate levels of available phosphate, calcium, and vitamin D, or because of resorption of calcium. The impairment of bone metabolism causes inadequate bone mineralization. Osteomalacia in children is known as rickets, and because of this, use of the term Osteomalacia is often restricted to the milder, adult form of the disease. Signs and symptoms can include diffuse body pains, muscle weakness, and fragility of the bones. In addition to low systemic levels of circulating mineral ions necessary for bone and tooth mineralization, accumulation of mineralization-inhibiting proteins and peptides (such as osteopontin and ASARM peptides) occurs in the extracellular matrix of bones and teeth, likely contributing locally to cause matrix hypomineralization (Osteomalacia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Correct

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man who has been trekking in the Himalayas for 3 years?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary vasodilatation

      Correct Answer: Increased renal excretion of HCO3 –

      Explanation:

      The atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes as compared with sea level. This leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen. Once 2100 m (7000 feet) of altitude is reached, there is a drop in saturation of oxyhaemoglobin. The oxygen saturation of haemoglobin determines the oxygen content in the blood. The body physiological tries to adapt to high altitude by acclimatization. Immediate effects include hyperventilation, fluid loss (due to a decreased thirst drive), increase in heart rate and slightly lowered stroke volume. Long term effects include lower lactate production, compensatory alkali loss in urine, decrease in plasma volume, increased erythropoietin release and red cell mass, increased haematocrit, higher concentration of capillaries in striated muscle tissue, increase in myoglobin, increase in mitochondria, increase in aerobic enzyme concentration such as 2,3-DPG and pulmonary vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (3/8) 38%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Basic Sciences (3/18) 17%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/2) 50%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (1/4) 25%
Pathology (1/7) 14%
Anatomy (0/6) 0%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (1/3) 33%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (0/1) 0%
Colorectal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Passmed