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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Security Guards. She is restrained and has scratched one of the Security Guards accompanying her. She is highly agitated and combative and has a history of bipolar disorder. She is given an initial dose of intramuscular olanzapine combined with intramuscular lorazepam. However, she shows no response and remains highly agitated and combative.
According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of highly agitated and combative patients, which of the following drugs should be used next?Your Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.
If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.
If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.
If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.
After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a patient who experienced systemic toxicity from local anesthesia. Towards the end of the conversation, your mentor emphasizes the importance of reporting such episodes. In the UK, which of the following organizations should be notified about incidents of local anesthetic systemic toxicity?
Your Answer: National Patient Safety Agency
Explanation:Instances of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) should be promptly reported to the National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA). Additionally, it is advisable to report any adverse drug reactions to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) through their yellow card scheme. Please refer to the follow-up section in the notes for further details.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old truck driver presents with a painful, tender lump near his coccyx. Your examination findings are consistent with a diagnosis of a pilonidal sinus.
Which SINGLE factor is NOT a recognized risk factor for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age over 40
Explanation:A pilonidal sinus is a small cyst found near the crease between the buttocks. It contains a clump of hairs and is most commonly seen in young males with thick, dark hair. This condition is rare in individuals over the age of 40. Several factors increase the risk of developing a pilonidal sinus, including being male, having excessive hair growth, having a job that involves prolonged sitting, being overweight, and having a family history of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection after finding eggs in their stool.
What is the most suitable treatment for this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Praziquantel
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 50-year-old woman with recent-onset carpal tunnel syndrome after injuring her wrist.
Which of the following hand muscles is the LEAST likely to be impacted in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve becomes trapped, resulting in nerve damage. This can lead to weakness and abnormal sensations in the areas supplied by the median nerve. To remember the muscles that are innervated by the median nerve, you can use the acronym ‘LOAF’: L for the lateral two lumbricals, O for the Opponens pollicis, A for the Abductor pollicis, and F for the Flexor pollicis brevis. It’s important to note that the abductor digiti minimi is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome as it is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.
Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.
If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are called to cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Emergency Department. As part of your management, a dose of amiodarone is administered.
Amiodarone should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After the 3rd shock
Explanation:Amiodarone is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while performing chest compressions. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, which should be given as an intravenous bolus. To ensure proper administration, the medication should be diluted in 20 mL of 5% dextrose solution.
In cases where VF/pVT continues after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of Amiodarone should be administered. It is important to note that Amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole, and its use is specifically indicated for shockable cardiac arrest situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be normal at 118/72 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.
What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radioimmunoassay for urinary/plasma metanephrines
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
The most common initial symptom is hypertension, which can be either sustained or paroxysmal. Other symptoms tend to be intermittent and can occur frequently or infrequently. As the disease progresses, these symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.
In addition to hypertension, patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience the following clinical features: headache, profuse sweating, palpitations or rapid heartbeat, tremors, fever, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and panic attacks, a sense of impending doom, epigastric or flank pain, constipation, hypertensive retinopathy, postural hypotension due to volume contraction, cardiomyopathy, and café au lait spots.
To confirm a suspected diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, elevated levels of metanephrines (catecholamine metabolites) can be measured in the blood or urine. This can be done through methods such as a 24-hour urine collection for free catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrines, high-performance liquid chromatography for catecholamines in plasma and/or urine, or radioimmunoassay (RIA) for urinary/plasma metanephrines.
Once the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is biochemically confirmed, imaging methods can be used to locate the tumor. The first imaging modality to be used is a CT scan, which has an overall sensitivity of 89%. An MRI scan is the most sensitive modality for identifying the tumor, especially in cases of extra-adrenal tumors or metastatic disease, with an overall sensitivity of 98%. In cases where CT or MRI does not show a tumor, a nuclear medicine scan such as MIBG scintigraphy can be useful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to examine the patient and arrange an investigation to assist in confirming the diagnosis.
Which of the following investigations is MOST LIKELY to be beneficial in establishing the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan of brain
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is linked to alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is commonly identified by the presence of three main symptoms: acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional signs may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs.
This condition is characterized by the occurrence of acute capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be detected through MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop a condition known as Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered perception of time, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of persistent foul-smelling discharge from her right ear. She has undergone three separate courses of antibiotic drops, but they have been ineffective in resolving the issue. Additionally, she is experiencing hearing difficulties in her right ear. Her medical history includes recurrent ear infections. Upon examination, a retraction pocket is observed in the attic, along with granulation tissue on the tympanic membrane and a significant amount of debris.
What is the MOST suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:This individual is diagnosed with an acquired cholesteatoma, which is an expanding growth of the stratified keratinising epithelium in the middle ear. It develops due to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube and chronic otitis media caused by the retraction of the squamous elements of the tympanic membrane into the middle ear space.
The most important method for assessing the presence of a cholesteatoma is otoscopy. A retraction pocket observed in the attic or posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane is a characteristic sign of an acquired cholesteatoma. This is often accompanied by the presence of granulation tissue and squamous debris. The presence of a granular polyp within the ear canal also strongly suggests a cholesteatoma.
If left untreated, a cholesteatoma can lead to various complications including conductive deafness, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess, meningitis, and labyrinthitis. Therefore, it is crucial to urgently refer this individual to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a CT scan and surgical removal of the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a jet skiing accident at a local lake. The patient fell off the jet ski but her leg got caught in the handlebars and she was submerged for 2-3 minutes before being freed. The patient's friends started rescue breaths and chest compressions as the patient was unconscious but were stopped after approximately 30 seconds by an off duty lifeguard who assessed the patient and determined she was breathing spontaneously and had a pulse. On examination, the patient is breathing spontaneously with intermittent coughing, oxygen saturation levels are 97% on room air, a few crackling sounds are heard in the lower parts of the lungs, and the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13 out of 15.
Which of the following should be included in the initial management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obtain an arterial blood gas sample for evidence of hypoxia
Explanation:It is recommended to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample from all patients who have experienced submersion (drowning) as even individuals without symptoms may have a surprising level of hypoxia. Draining the lungs is not effective and not recommended. There is no strong evidence to support the routine use of antibiotics as a preventive measure. Steroids have not been proven to be effective in treating drowning. All drowning patients, except those with normal oxygen levels, normal saturations, and normal lung sounds, should receive supplemental oxygen as significant hypoxia can occur without causing difficulty in breathing.
Further Reading:
Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.
When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.
Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.
Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.
Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a fever, headache, and feeling nauseous. After a diagnosis, it is determined that she has contracted yellow fever.
Upon examination, it is observed that she has an uncommon combination of an extremely high body temperature (39.7°C) and a relative bradycardia (48 bpm).
What is the name of the clinical sign that she has developed, which is named after a person?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faget sign
Explanation:Faget sign is a unique occurrence where a fever and a relatively slow heart rate, known as bradycardia, are observed together. This phenomenon is sometimes called sphygmothermic dissociation. It can be observed in various infectious diseases, such as yellow fever, typhoid fever, tularaemia, brucellosis, Colorado tick fever, Legionella pneumonia, and Mycoplasma pneumonia. Normally, when a person has a fever, their heart rate increases, but in cases of Faget sign, the heart rate remains slow. Another term used to describe the combination of fever and increased heart rate is Leibermeister’s rule.
Auspitz’s sign is a characteristic feature seen in psoriasis. When the scales of psoriasis are scraped off, small bleeding spots, known as punctate bleeding spots, appear. This sign helps in the diagnosis of psoriasis.
Frank sign is a term used to describe a diagonal crease that appears on the earlobe. It has been hypothesized that this crease may be linked to cardiovascular disease and diabetes.
Levine’s sign refers to a specific response to chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, known as ischemic chest pain. In this sign, the person clenches their fist and holds it over their chest in an instinctive reaction to the pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are treating a 35-year-old with limb injuries resulting from a rock climbing incident. Your responsibility is to insert a central venous line. The attending physician requests you to place the central venous line in the internal jugular vein. What is the ideal patient positioning for this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trendelenburg position
Explanation:To insert an IJV line, the patient should be positioned in the Trendelenburg position. This means that the patient should lie on their back with their head tilted down by at least 15 degrees. Additionally, the patient’s head should be turned away or laterally rotated from the side where the cannulation will take place. This positioning helps to distend the neck veins, making it easier to access them for the procedure.
Further Reading:
A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.
When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.
The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.
In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.
Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.
In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a lengthy history of frequent urination at night and dribbling at the end of urination comes in with a fever, chills, and muscle soreness. He is experiencing pain in his perineal area and has recently developed painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, his prostate is extremely tender.
According to NICE, which of the following antibiotics is recommended as the initial treatment for this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ofloxacin
Explanation:Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.
The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought echo
Explanation:Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her son due to a two day history of increased confusion and restlessness. The son informs you that the patient had a similar episode 8 months ago that was caused by a urinary tract infection. The son also mentions that the patient is generally in good health but was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease approximately 4 months ago after experiencing a tremor and difficulties with balance. While in the ED, the patient becomes verbally aggressive towards staff and other patients. You decide to administer medication to manage her acute behavior. What is the most suitable choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Haloperidol should not be used in patients with Parkinson’s, Lewy body dementia, or prolonged QT syndrome. It is the first choice for controlling aggressive behavior in most patients with delirium, but lorazepam is preferred for patients with Parkinson’s, Lewy body dementia, prolonged QT syndrome, extrapyramidal side effects, or delirium due to alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol can reduce the effectiveness of levodopa in Parkinson’s disease by blocking dopamine receptors in the corpus striatum, which can lead to worsened motor function, psychosis, or a combination of both.
Further Reading:
Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.
Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.
The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.
Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries and pressure sores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child develops jaundice and is found to have a diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the child.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition that occurs in the fetus when IgG antibodies from the mother pass through the placenta. This is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction, also known as cytotoxic hypersensitivity. In this type of reaction, antibodies produced by the immune response attach to antigens on the patient’s own cell surfaces.
The rhesus gene is composed of three parts, which can be C or c, D or d, and E or e. Approximately 15% of the population consists of rhesus negative women who are homozygous for d. When rhesus-positive fetal cells enter the bloodstream of a rhesus-negative mother, maternal anti-D IgG antibodies may be produced. This commonly occurs during delivery, but can also happen after fetal-maternal hemorrhage and certain medical procedures.
Some other examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ANCA-associated vasculitides, Goodpasture’s syndrome, myasthenia gravis, and rhesus incompatibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents with a severe tearing chest pain that spreads to her back. A diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected.
Which SINGLE statement regarding aortic dissection is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An inter-arm blood pressure differential of greater than 10 mmHg is a highly sensitive predictor
Explanation:Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.
Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.
A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.
Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.
Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
– Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
– Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to consuming a significant amount of amitriptyline following a breakup. The patient then experiences a seizure. Which medication is the most suitable for managing the seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:When it comes to managing seizures in cases of TCA overdose, benzodiazepines are considered the most effective treatment. Diazepam or lorazepam are commonly administered for this purpose. However, it’s important to note that lamotrigine and carbamazepine are typically used for preventing seizures rather than for immediate seizure control.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45 year old hiker becomes ill on his third day at Mount Kilimanjaro base camp (altitude of 5895m). The patient experiences severe shortness of breath while at rest and is diagnosed with high altitude pulmonary edema. If left untreated, what is the mortality rate associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:HAPE is a form of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema that occurs secondary to hypoxia. It is a clinical diagnosis characterized by fatigue, dyspnea, and dry cough with exertion. If left untreated, it can progress to dyspnea at rest, rales, cyanosis, and a mortality rate of up to 50%.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You review a 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, who is currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU). His most recent blood results reveal significant renal impairment.
His current medications are as follows:
Digoxin 250 mcg once daily
Atenolol 50 mg once daily
Aspirin 75 mg once daily
What is the SINGLE most suitable medication adjustment to initiate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is eliminated through the kidneys, and if renal function is compromised, it can lead to elevated levels of digoxin and potential toxicity. To address this issue, it is necessary to decrease the patient’s digoxin dosage and closely monitor their digoxin levels and electrolyte levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her C-spine is triple immobilized. You perform a LEMON assessment for difficult intubation.
Which of the following factors indicates a difficult intubation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mallampati score of 4
Explanation:Trauma patients who require a definitively secured airway include those who are apnoeic, have a Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 9, experience sustained seizure activity, have unstable midface trauma or airway injuries, have a large flail segment or respiratory failure, have a high risk of aspiration, or are unable to maintain an airway or oxygenation through other means.
To predict difficult intubations, the LEMON assessment can be utilized. The LEMON mnemonic provides a systematic approach to assess potential challenges in intubation. It stands for the following:
– Look externally: Examine for any characteristics that are known to cause difficult intubation or ventilation.
– Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule: Measure the incisor distance, hyoid/mental distance, and thyroid-to-mouth distance. If any of these measurements are less than the specified number of fingerbreadths, it may indicate a difficult intubation.
– Mallampati: Assess the Mallampati score, which is a classification system based on the visibility of certain structures in the mouth and throat. A score of 3 or higher suggests a difficult intubation.
– Obstruction: Check for the presence of any conditions that could potentially obstruct the airway.
– Neck mobility: Evaluate the mobility of the patient’s neck, as limited mobility may make intubation more challenging.By utilizing the LEMON assessment, healthcare providers can identify potential difficulties in securing the airway and make appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The patient is unable to close their mouth. You suspect temporomandibular joint dislocation. What is the initial imaging test recommended for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orthopantomogram
Explanation:The recommended first-line diagnostic test for TMJ dislocation is an OPG. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine suggests that an OPG is the most effective initial imaging technique for diagnosing TMJ dislocation. However, mandibular series X-ray views and CT scans can also be used as alternative imaging methods.
Further Reading:
TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.
The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.
Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.
If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.
Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.
Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.
After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman comes in with postmenopausal bleeding. Her medical records indicate that she recently underwent a transvaginal ultrasound, which revealed an endometrial thickness of 6.5 mm. What is the MOST suitable next step in investigating her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial biopsy
Explanation:postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first-line investigation for this condition is transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.
In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. The likelihood of endometrial cancer increases as the endometrium becomes thicker. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness of 5 mm is considered the threshold.
If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer. However, if a woman with postmenopausal bleeding has a uniform endometrial thickness of less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%.
In cases where there is a high clinical risk, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should also be performed. The definitive diagnosis is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by a coworker who is concerned about the patient being disoriented. The coworker says he overheard the patient talking to someone in the break room but when he looked over to join the conversation, there was no one there. Despite there being no one present, the patient continued to have a dialogue with thin air. The coworker informs you that he has noticed the patient being a bit confused at times before, but the confusion usually resolves within a day or two. During the examination, you observe a shuffling gait and resting tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient presents with a blistering rash. The differential diagnosis includes pemphigoid vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid.
Which of the following features would indicate a diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent pruritus
Explanation:Bullous pemphigoid (BP) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the skin, causing blistering. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the basement membrane of the epidermis. This attack is carried out by immunoglobulins (IgG and sometimes IgE) and activated T lymphocytes. The autoantibodies bind to proteins and release cytokines, leading to complement activation, neutrophil recruitment, and the release of enzymes that destroy the hemidesmosomes. As a result, subepidermal blisters form.
Pemphigus, on the other hand, is a group of autoimmune disorders characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces. The most common type, pemphigus vulgaris (PV), accounts for about 70% of cases worldwide. PV is also autoimmune in nature, with autoantibodies targeting cell surface antigens on keratinocytes (desmogleins 1 and 3). This leads to a loss of adhesion between cells and their separation.
Here is a comparison of the key differences between pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid:
Pemphigus vulgaris:
– Age: Middle-aged people (average age 50)
– Oral involvement: Common
– Blister type: Large, flaccid, and painful
– Blister content: Fluid-filled, often haemorrhagic
– Areas commonly affected: Initially face and scalp, then spread to the chest and back
– Nikolsky sign: Usually positive
– Pruritus: Rare
– Skin biopsy: Intra-epidermal deposition of IgG between cells throughout the epidermisBullous pemphigoid:
– Age: Elderly people (average age 80)
– Oral involvement: Rare
– Blister type: Large and tense
– Blister content: Fluid-filled
– Areas commonly affected: Upper arms, thighs, and skin flexures
– Nikolsky sign: Usually negative
– Pruritus: Common
– Skin biopsy: A band of IgG and/or C3 at the dermo-epidermal junction -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of blurred vision in her left eye. She is also experiencing eye pain and fatigue. On examination, her temperature is 38.0°C, but her other vital signs are normal. There is significant redness in the conjunctiva, and a collection of pus (hypopyon) is present in her left eye. Her visual acuity in that eye is reduced to counting fingers. She recently received a kitten as a pet from her parents.
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxocara canis
Explanation:Toxocariasis is a rare infection caused by the parasitic roundworm Toxocara canis. The main way it spreads to humans is through contact with dog feces. However, practicing good hand hygiene can help prevent transmission. While most people who come into contact with Toxocara canis don’t show any symptoms, a small number may experience a mild flu-like illness.
The most common presentation of toxocariasis is in children, who may experience unilateral visual loss. This loss of vision is typically caused by conditions such as vitritis, macular edema, and tractional retinal detachment. It is believed that these lesions occur due to a toxic or immunoallergic reaction to the larval antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury after being attacked with a baseball bat. There are indications that the patient may be experiencing elevated intracranial pressure. In a person with normal physiological conditions, what percentage of the intracranial volume is typically occupied by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:The intracranial volume refers to the total space inside the skull. The main component of this volume is the brain parenchyma or neural tissue, which makes up the majority of the intracranial volume.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a significant laceration on his right forearm. You suggest that this can be stitched up using local anesthesia. Bupivacaine 0.5% is accessible in the suture room. What is the maximum dosage of Bupivacaine 0.5% that can be administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 mg/kg
Explanation:The maximum dose of adrenaline is 2 mg/kg, regardless of its concentration or addition. However, when calculating the volume requirements, the concentration of adrenaline becomes a factor.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing her medications, you find out that she is taking losartan as part of her treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eplerenone
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone and eplerenone, can raise the chances of developing hyperkalemia when taken alongside ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, and angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, like losartan. Additionally, eplerenone can also heighten the risk of hypotension when co-administered with losartan.
For more information, please refer to the BNF section on losartan interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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