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  • Question 1 - You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in...

    Correct

    • You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
      How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.

      Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl with sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl with sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department. She has been running a fever for a week and complains of nausea and loss of appetite. In the past 24 hours, she has been experiencing intense pain in her left leg. The initial treatment for a sickle crisis is administered, including oxygen, fluids, morphine, and antibiotics. However, an X-ray reveals osteomyelitis in her leg.
      What is the probable causative organism for her osteomyelitis?

      Your Answer: Enterococcus faecalis

      Correct Answer: Salmonella enteritidis

      Explanation:

      Salmonella osteomyelitis is a common occurrence in sickle cell patients.

      Among sickle cell patients, Salmonella is the leading cause of osteomyelitis. In contrast, Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause in children. Haemophilus, Group A streptococcus, and Enterococcus are all less prevalent causes of osteomyelitis.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a staghorn calculus of the right kidney is discovered. Which organism is most likely responsible for the infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus

      Correct Answer: Proteus mirabilis

      Explanation:

      Proteus mirabilis is responsible for the majority of Proteus infections due to its ability to produce urease. This enzyme promotes urinary alkalinisation, which is a necessary condition for the development of staghorn calculi.

      Renal Stones: Types and Factors

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses formed in the kidneys from substances found in urine. There are different types of renal stones, each with its own unique features and risk factors. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type, accounting for 85% of all calculi. Hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia are major risk factors for calcium oxalate stones. Cystine stones, which are caused by an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport, are relatively rare, accounting for only 1% of all calculi. Uric acid stones, which are formed from purine metabolism, are more common in children with inborn errors of metabolism and are radiolucent. Calcium phosphate stones, which are radio-opaque, may occur in renal tubular acidosis, and high urinary pH increases the supersaturation of urine with calcium and phosphate. Struvite stones, which are slightly radio-opaque, are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections.

      The pH of urine plays a crucial role in stone formation. Urine pH varies from 5-7, with postprandial pH falling as purine metabolism produces uric acid. The urine then becomes more alkaline, known as the alkaline tide. The pH of urine can help determine which type of stone was present when the stone is not available for analysis. Calcium phosphate stones form in normal to alkaline urine with a pH greater than 5.5, while uric acid stones form in acidic urine with a pH of 5.5 or less. Struvite stones form in alkaline urine with a pH greater than 7.2, and cystine stones form in normal urine with a pH of 6.5.

      In summary, renal stones are a common condition with various types and risk factors. Understanding the type of stone and the pH of urine can help in the diagnosis and management of renal stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of pregnancy. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals the presence of a simple ovarian cyst alongside an 8-week intrauterine pregnancy. What is the best course of action for managing the cyst?

      Your Answer: Aspirate the cyst

      Correct Answer: Reassure patient that this is normal and leave the cyst alone

      Explanation:

      During the initial stages of pregnancy, ovarian cysts are typically physiological and referred to as corpus luteum. These cysts typically disappear during the second trimester. It is crucial to provide reassurance in such situations as expecting mothers are likely to experience high levels of anxiety. It is important to avoid anxiety during pregnancy to prevent any negative consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
      Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a...

    Correct

    • In the field of pharmacology, what is the term used to describe a ligand that binds to a receptor and results in a decrease or complete halt in receptor activity?

      Your Answer: Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists in Drug-Receptor Interactions

      An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. The drug-receptor interaction is usually reversible, and the agonist can bind to the receptor using various mechanisms. The effects of an agonist are determined by its efficacy of agonism and the degree of receptor occupancy. A full agonist can provoke maximal receptor activity, while a partial agonist can provoke sub-maximal receptor activity. The degree of occupancy is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and the concentration. Even relatively low degrees of receptor occupancy are adequate to achieve a biological response for agonists.

      On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and reduces or inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by its degree of receptor occupancy, affinity to the receptor, and efficacy. A relatively high degree of receptor occupancy is needed for an antagonist to work, and technically, the efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is zero.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and will bind to the same site on the same receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist for binding. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to the same receptor, but they will each have a different binding site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. An agonist molecule is able to bind, but the normal consequences of agonist binding do not occur due to the presence of the antagonist, and biological actions are prevented.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past four days. He denies any recent unprotected sexual intercourse or penile discharge. The patient has a medical history of gallstones and was hospitalised last year due to a severe blood reaction after consuming a meal rich in broad beans. On examination, he has suprapubic tenderness but no renal angle tenderness. All his observations are within normal limits. Which antibiotic should the doctor avoid prescribing to this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is a suitable option for this patient as it does not exhibit cross-reactivity with penicillins and there are no contraindications present.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and...

    Correct

    • The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and HCO3– 44 mmol/l are indicative of a respiratory condition. Which respiratory condition is most likely responsible for these blood gas values?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Failure in Common Lung Conditions

      When analyzing blood gases, it is important to consider the type of respiratory failure present in order to determine the underlying cause. In cases of low oxygen and high carbon dioxide, known as type 2 respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most likely culprit. Asthma, on the other hand, typically causes type 1 respiratory failure, although severe cases may progress to type 2 as the patient tires. Pulmonary embolism and pneumonia are also more likely to cause type 1 respiratory failure, while pulmonary fibrosis is associated with this type of failure as well. Understanding the type of respiratory failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of these common lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?

      Your Answer: Grade II

      Correct Answer: Grade III

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids

      Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.

      Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite this, she has never taken a day off work and has no history of mental illness. Her partner has noticed her cleaning the house more than usual and becoming irritated by the apparent lack of cleanliness at home. The patient is also becoming increasingly irritated with others' inability to perform tasks to her personal standards. She has a long-standing history of perfectionism and never spends her money on frivolous items. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality

      Explanation:

      Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 3 years

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As an FY1 doctor, you are summoned to attend an unconscious 64-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As an FY1 doctor, you are summoned to attend an unconscious 64-year-old woman lying on the floor of a ward. Upon assessing her airway, you notice that it appears clear, but you can hear snoring. However, the snoring ceases when you perform a head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust. Upon auscultation, her chest is clear with good bilateral airflow, and her trachea is central. Her peripheral capillary refill takes more than 2 seconds. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on 4L of oxygen, her pulse is weak and regular at 105/min, her respiratory rate is 16/min, her blood pressure is 98/54 mmHg, and her temperature is 36.6 ºC.

      What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Insert an oropharyngeal tube

      Explanation:

      Three basic techniques, namely head tilt, chin lift, and jaw thrust, can effectively alleviate airway blockage caused by weak pharyngeal muscles.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to her son, she stumbled over an exposed tree root and landed on her outstretched arms. Since the fall, she has been holding her right arm and complaining of intense pain.

      An x-ray is ordered, revealing a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement. Additionally, the ulnar tip is also fractured. The fracture is located across the metaphysis of the radius and does not involve the articular cartilage.

      What is the name of this type of fracture?

      Your Answer: Colles fracture

      Explanation:

      The most likely fracture resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is Colles fracture. This type of fracture occurs in the distal radius and typically does not involve the joint. It is the most common type of distal radius fracture. Bennett fracture, Dupuytren fracture, and Galeazzi fracture are all incorrect answers as they describe different types of fractures in other parts of the body.

      Understanding Colles’ Fracture

      Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.

      In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old male has recently been admitted after a mixed tablet overdose, taking...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male has recently been admitted after a mixed tablet overdose, taking 30 tablets of paracetamol and approximately 10 codeine phosphate tablets. He is currently receiving IV acetylcysteine for his high plasma paracetamol levels and activated charcoal due to the overdose being within the last hour. Upon arrival, his oxygen saturations were 94%, and he was given supplemental oxygen to reach target saturations. IV fluids were also administered.

      As you approach the patient, you observe him struggling to breathe. He is audibly wheezing, has a widespread erythematous papular rash over his skin, and is significantly hypotensive (90/50 mmHg). What is the most probable cause of this sudden deterioration?

      Your Answer: IV acetylcysteine infusion

      Explanation:

      The probability of an anaphylactoid reaction occurring from the use of sodium chloride as the initial fluid therapy for acutely ill patients is extremely low. Similarly, activated charcoal is also highly unlikely to trigger such a reaction, with the only potential concern being gastrointestinal disturbances.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man experienced acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis after completing his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man experienced acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis after completing his first marathon. He was started on haemodialysis due to uraemic pericarditis. What symptom or sign would indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade?

      Your Answer: Pericardial rub

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pericarditis and Related Symptoms

      Pericarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. One of the signs of pericarditis is pulsus paradoxus, which is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration. This occurs when the pericardial effusion normalizes the wall pressures across all the chambers, causing the septum to bulge into the left ventricle, reducing stroke volume and blood pressure. Pleuritic chest pain is not a common symptom of pericarditis, and confusion is not related to pericarditis or incipient tamponade. A pericardial friction rub is an audible medical sign used in the diagnosis of pericarditis, while a pericardial knock is a pulse synchronous sound that can be heard in constrictive pericarditis. Understanding these symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and management of pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
      Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
      Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
      Creatinine 88 µmol/l γGT 33 u/l
      Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
      The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast

      Explanation:

      The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What do muscarinic receptors refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What do muscarinic receptors refer to?

      Your Answer: Adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors

      Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.

      It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain and haematuria that have been present for a week. He also reports experiencing pain in both knees. Upon examination, a non-blanching purpuric rash is observed on his legs and buttocks. Urine dipstick results show blood ++ and protein +. Additionally, his renal function is abnormal with urea levels at 26.3 mmol/l and creatinine levels at 289 μmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Henoch-Schönlein Purpura from Other Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a condition that can present with a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, non-blanching purpuric rash, arthralgia, haematuria, and renal impairment. It is important to distinguish HSP from other conditions that may have similar symptoms.

      Nephrotic syndrome, for example, is characterized by significant proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema, which are not present in HSP. Urinary tract infection, on the other hand, is not associated with a purpuric rash and typically presents with urinary symptoms and positive nitrite and leukocyte dipstick tests.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that can cause acute renal failure and pulmonary haemorrhage, but it is not typically associated with a purpuric rash. Appendicitis, which can cause an acute abdomen, is unlikely to cause pain for a week and does not typically present with a rash.

      In summary, recognizing the unique symptoms of HSP and distinguishing it from other conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Aspirin and fondaparinux are administered. What is the mode of action of fondaparinux?

      Your Answer: Activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Fondaparinux operates in a comparable manner to low-molecular weight heparin.

      Parenteral Anticoagulation: Fondaparinux and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

      Parenteral anticoagulants are used to prevent venous thromboembolism and manage acute coronary syndrome. While unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are commonly used, fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors are also effective options. Fondaparinux activates antithrombin III, which enhances the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa. It is administered subcutaneously. On the other hand, direct thrombin inhibitors like bivalirudin are typically given intravenously. Dabigatran is a type of direct thrombin inhibitor that can be taken orally and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).

      Overall, these parenteral anticoagulants are essential in preventing and managing blood clots. Fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors work by targeting specific factors in the coagulation cascade, making them effective options for patients who cannot tolerate other anticoagulants. It is important to note that these medications require careful monitoring and dosing adjustments to prevent bleeding complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.

      Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The technician performed an ultrasonographic examination on a pregnant woman and obtained a...

    Incorrect

    • The technician performed an ultrasonographic examination on a pregnant woman and obtained a median scan of the 7-week-old embryo. Using the ultrasound machine, the technician marked the most superior point of the embryo's head and the most inferior point of the embryo. The technician then measured the distance between the marks. What is the calculation that the technician made?

      Your Answer: Greatest length

      Correct Answer: Crown–rump length

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Measurement for Estimating Embryonic Age

      When estimating the age of an embryo, it is important to choose the appropriate measurement based on the anatomy and timing of the scan. In the case of a scan taken at 7 weeks post-fertilisation, the crown-rump length is the most appropriate measurement to use. The greatest width is not used for estimating embryonic age, while the greatest length is only suitable for early embryos in the third and early fourth weeks. Crown-heel length may be used for 8-week-old embryos, but requires visibility of the lower limb. Crown-elbow length is not applicable in this case as the limbs cannot be visualised. It is important to consider the specific circumstances of the scan when choosing the appropriate measurement for estimating embryonic age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient, a retired teacher, attends your dermatology clinic in Scotland. She asks...

    Correct

    • A patient, a retired teacher, attends your dermatology clinic in Scotland. She asks if her friend can sit in the room whilst the consultation takes place. During the consultation, you note that she is unable to retain some information, does not remember her phone number, and repeats several things in a way that makes it seem she does not remember that she has already told you. She lives on her own, has driven her car to the appointment and, whilst in the appointment, answers her mobile phone in a confident manner. You feel that her dermatological condition would benefit from phototherapy.
      Can the patient consent to this?

      Your Answer: It depends upon your assessment of her competence to make a decision

      Explanation:

      Assessing Competence to Make Decisions in Patients with Dementia

      When it comes to patients with dementia, it is important to assess their competence to make decisions. While the assumption is that any person over the age of 16 living in Scotland has capacity to consent to treatment, signs of memory difficulties may indicate a need for further assessment. As a doctor, it is your responsibility to explain the treatment, including its benefits and risks, and assess whether the patient understands and can retain the information. A diagnosis of dementia does not automatically mean a patient lacks capacity, and a psychiatrist is not always necessary for assessment. Ultimately, the patient’s agreement or the opinion of a friend is not relevant to the assessment of competence. The focus should be on ensuring the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe tumour

      Explanation:

      Homonymous Superior Quadrantanopia

      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a condition that affects the upper, outer half of one side of the visual field in both eyes. This deficit is typically caused by the interruption of Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. It can be an early indication of temporal lobe disease or a residual effect of a temporal lobectomy. To remember the different types of quandrantanopias, the mnemonic PITS can be used, which stands for Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing right ear pain and associated hearing loss for several weeks. He denies any significant discharge from his ear and has not experienced any fevers. He reports feeling pain in his jaw that sometimes clicks. During the examination, the doctor observes cerumen in the right ear and no inflammation. The tympanic membrane appears normal. The patient experiences pain when moving his jaw. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TMJ dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ear Pain and Hearing Loss

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction as a Likely Cause of Hearing Loss

      When infection is ruled out and cerumen is not the culprit, temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction becomes a probable diagnosis for ear pain and hearing loss. TMJ dysfunction often involves pain that radiates to the ear through the auriculotemporal nerve and crepitus in the jaw. Treatment options for TMJ dysfunction include rest, massage, relaxation techniques, bite guards, NSAIDs, and steroid injections.

      Other Possible Causes of Ear Pain and Discharge

      Otitis externa, or inflammation of the external auditory canal, typically presents with watery discharge, pain, and itching. Cholesteatoma, a benign tumor that can erode bone and cause cranial nerve symptoms, produces a foul-smelling white discharge and an inflammatory lesion on otoscopy. Mastoiditis, an infection that spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid air cells, causes fever, swelling, and unilateral ear prominence. Acute otitis media, a common childhood infection, results in sudden ear pain and bulging of the tympanic membrane, which may rupture and release purulent discharge.

      Conclusion

      Ear pain and hearing loss can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition. While TMJ dysfunction is a possible diagnosis that requires specific management, other conditions such as otitis externa, cholesteatoma, mastoiditis, and acute otitis media should also be considered and treated accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the Emergency Department by his son. He was found lying on the floor unconscious but later regained consciousness. He now reports experiencing a headache, nausea, difficulty breathing, and feeling faint. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use any recreational drugs.
      Which of the following tests is most likely to result in a likely diagnosis of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning?

      Your Answer: Multi-wavelength oximetry analysis

      Explanation:

      Multi-Wavelength Oximetry Analysis for Diagnosis of CO Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning can be diagnosed through a thorough history and physical examination, but measuring the presence of dissolved CO in blood is necessary. Multi-wavelength oximeters can detect carboxyhaemoglobin and methaemoglobin in addition to oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin. Normal CO levels are 1-3%, and any higher levels confirm CO poisoning. Arterial p(O2) levels remain unchanged in CO poisoning, so they cannot be used for diagnosis. CT scans can rule out other causes of neurological complications, and ECGs and cardiac enzyme measurements are necessary for patients with higher exposures or pre-existing cardiac conditions. Standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin and is not useful for diagnosing CO poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right eye. She is compliant with her hydroxychloroquine medication and has had three arthritic flares in the past year, all of which responded well to IV steroids. The patient frequently uses artificial teardrops for foreign body sensation, but her current ocular symptoms are not improving with this treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which statement accurately reflects the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing sunscreen...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing sunscreen A and placebo for skin cancer prevention, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and 10% of patients in group A developed skin cancer with a relative risk of 0.7 compared to placebo?

      Your Answer: Sunscreen A is effective in prevention of skin cancer

      Correct Answer: The relative risk reduction for sunscreen A is 0.3

      Explanation:

      When analyzing the results of a sunscreen study, it is important to consider the relative risk reduction. This value is calculated by subtracting the relative risk from 1. If the relative risk reduction is greater than 0, it means that the group receiving the sunscreen had a lower risk of skin cancer compared to the placebo group. However, without performing a statistical test, it is difficult to determine if the sunscreen is truly effective in preventing skin cancer.

      Additionally, it is helpful to look at the absolute risk of skin cancer in the placebo group. In the given example, the absolute risk of skin cancer in group B was 14.2%. This value can be used to calculate the absolute risk reduction, which is the difference between the absolute risk of the placebo group and the absolute risk of the sunscreen group. In this case, the absolute risk reduction was 4.2%.

      Overall, these values can provide insight into the effectiveness of a sunscreen in preventing skin cancer. However, it is important to note that further statistical analysis may be necessary to draw definitive conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past, visits the Preoperative Gynaecology Clinic for sacrospinous fixation to address a vault prolapse. The surgeon discusses the potential risks and complications of the procedure before obtaining consent. What nerve is in danger of being harmed during sacrospinous fixation for vault prolapse treatment?

      Your Answer: Sciatic

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage in Obstetric and Surgical Procedures

      During obstetric and surgical procedures, nerve damage can occur in various parts of the body. One such instance is a total vault prolapse, which can occur following a hysterectomy. Two surgical options for management include sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation. While sacrocolpopexy involves suturing the vaginal vault to the sacrum, sacrospinous fixation requires suturing the top of the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament. However, complications such as damage to the sciatic nerve and pudendal vessels can occur with the latter procedure.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve is most common during total knee arthroplasties when the patient is placed in the lithotomy and lateral positions for extended periods of time. On the other hand, the femoral nerve can be injured during abdomino-pelvic surgery, aortic cross-clamp, invasive procedures to access the femoral vessels, and hip arthroplasty. Inguinal hernia repair is the most common cause of damage to the inguinal nerve.

      Lastly, isolated damage to the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh is not associated with obstetric surgery. However, damage to the main femoral nerve is commonly seen in abdominal hysterectomies due to compression by retractor blades. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential complications and take necessary precautions to prevent nerve damage during procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
      What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Surgery (2/4) 50%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Medicine (2/2) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed