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  • Question 1 - A patient in his mid-50s has been admitted with deep vein thrombosis in...

    Correct

    • A patient in his mid-50s has been admitted with deep vein thrombosis in his left lower limb. The diagnosis was made by the FY1 who promptly started him on warfarin. However, two days later, you are called to assess the patient as he has developed skin necrosis on his right thigh.

      What could be the probable reason for the skin necrosis?

      Your Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Protein C Deficiency

      Protein C deficiency is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing blood clots. It is inherited in an autosomal codominant manner, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from either parent to develop the condition.

      One of the main features of protein C deficiency is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, which is the formation of blood clots in the veins. This can lead to serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

      Another feature of protein C deficiency is skin necrosis, which can occur when a person with the condition starts taking warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots. When warfarin is first started, the body’s production of protein C is temporarily reduced, which can lead to a procoagulant state and an increased risk of thrombosis. This can result in the death of skin tissue, particularly in the venules, leading to skin necrosis. To prevent this, concurrent administration of heparin may be necessary.

      In summary, protein C deficiency is a genetic condition that increases the risk of blood clots, particularly in the veins. It can also lead to skin necrosis when warfarin is first started. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe pains...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe pains throughout her body, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. What could be the underlying cause of her new symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Explanation:

      The individual is experiencing chronic widespread pain, along with lethargy and difficulty concentrating. Palpation reveals multiple tender points. While immunological results align with a previous diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, there is no indication of a flare-up or the development of a new connective tissue disease or myositis. Chronic regional pain syndrome typically involves persistent burning pain in one limb following a minor injury, but this is not the case here. The symptoms are indicative of fibromyalgia, which is not a diagnosis of exclusion and can coexist with other conditions.

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old type II diabetic woman presents to the Diabetic Clinic as a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old type II diabetic woman presents to the Diabetic Clinic as a new patient referred from her General Practitioner (GP). She has a past history of hyperlipidemia, osteoporosis and hypothyroidism.

      On examination, her body mass index (BMI) is 32 kg/m2. She is currently on metformin 1000 mg twice a day and has excellent compliance. She was previously on glimepiride in addition to metformin, but this was stopped when she experienced severe hypoglycemia. Her HbA1c is 75.18 mmol/mol (9%).

      Which one of the following treatments would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Add in liraglutide

      Explanation:

      To improve this patient’s HbA1c, the addition of liraglutide is recommended as sulphonylureas and pioglitazone are contraindicated due to previous adverse reactions and heart failure, respectively. Liraglutide activates the GLP-1 receptor to increase insulin secretion, suppress glucagon secretion, and slow gastric emptying. However, it should only be continued if there is a reduction in HbA1c of at least 11 mmol/mol and a weight loss of at least 3% of initial body weight in 6 months. Increasing the dose of metformin is unlikely to achieve the target HbA1c, and insulin should be avoided due to previous hypoglycemic episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old female has been admitted for investigation of elevated pulmonary arterial pressures...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female has been admitted for investigation of elevated pulmonary arterial pressures (50 mmHg) found on a transthoracic echocardiogram, which showed normal left ventricular function and chamber sizes. No valve abnormalities were detected. The patient's right heart catheter saturations are as follows:

      - SVC 76%
      - IVC 74%
      - Right atrium (high) 73.5%
      - Right atrium (mid) 73%
      - Right atrium (low) 72.7%
      - Right ventricle 72%
      - Pulmonary artery 70.8%
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge 95%

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage to SVC

      Explanation:

      When analyzing data from a right heart catheter, it is important to note that the saturation levels should gradually decrease as venous blood reaches the pulmonary capillary wedge saturation, which should be equivalent to arterial blood. Additionally, it is normal for oxygenation in the superior vena cava to be lower than in the inferior vena cava due to the brain’s high oxygen demands. In this study, there were no sudden increases in oxygen saturations, indicating no left to right shunt. However, the SVC saturation was significantly higher than the IVC, indicating anomalous pulmonary venous drainage of more highly oxygenated blood into the SVC.

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation

      Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.

      Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.

      Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      101.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old male is being discharged from hospital after being treated for pneumonia.

    All...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is being discharged from hospital after being treated for pneumonia.

      All the clinical signs and symptoms are normal on discharge, but he is a smoker.

      When would you like to review him and his chest radiograph after discharge?

      Your Answer: After four weeks

      Correct Answer: After six weeks

      Explanation:

      Importance of Chest Radiograph Review and Smoking Cessation in Older Smokers

      It is crucial to review the chest radiograph of an older patient who is a smoker to rule out the possibility of cancer. Additionally, it is important to assess the patient’s thoughts on smoking cessation and provide support in dealing with it.

      Waiting for only one week after the radiograph may not be sufficient to detect any changes, while waiting for two weeks may miss the chance to detect changes in over half of the cases. Waiting for four weeks may still miss changes in a significant number of cases, as up to 73% of radiographs may show changes after six weeks. Therefore, it is necessary to review the chest radiograph at an appropriate time to ensure timely detection of any abnormalities.

      Furthermore, given the patient’s age and smoking history, it is crucial to provide support for smoking cessation. Never is not an option, as the patient’s health is at risk. By providing support and resources for smoking cessation, the patient can improve their overall health and reduce the risk of developing cancer or other smoking-related illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old woman, feeling lethargic and disoriented, is brought to the hospital in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman, feeling lethargic and disoriented, is brought to the hospital in the middle of the night by her caregiver. She accidentally took an overdose of her medication from her pill organizer about 5 hours ago. She has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, high blood pressure, and osteoporosis. Her medication list includes levodopa, lisinopril, and alendronate. Her pulse is 40 bpm, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respiratory rate is 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%. There is no response to 2 mg of atropine.
      Initial investigations:
      Blood gases on air:

      pH 7.38 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 10.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 5.0 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Glucose 2.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Electrocardiogram Sinus bradycardia 40 bpm
      She is given intravenous glucose; what is the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Too rapid administration of 5-fluorouracil bolus

      Correct Answer: Genetic susceptibility to toxicity from 5-fluorouracil due to a deficiency of the catabolising enzyme

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy is a common treatment for cancer, but it can also cause severe side effects. One such drug is 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), which is metabolically activated to 5-fluoro-2’deoxyuridine-5-monophosphate (F-dUMP) and inhibits DNA synthesis. The breakdown of 5-FU is carried out by dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD), and a pharmacogenetic disorder can cause a deficiency of this enzyme, leading to severe toxicity and potentially fatal outcomes. Rapid administration of 5-FU can also cause reactions, but it is unlikely to be the cause of severe symptoms. Similarly, a low dose of folinic acid, which is given concurrently with 5-FU, is unlikely to cause such symptoms. Therefore, understanding the genetic susceptibility to toxicity from 5-FU due to a deficiency of the catabolising enzyme is crucial in managing the side effects of chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman is referred by her primary care physician to the Neurology...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is referred by her primary care physician to the Neurology Clinic. She has a 3-year history of involuntary movements in her hands associated with weight loss. Her husband describes these as ‘piano playing’. More recently she has been emotionally labile with aggressive outbursts and has begun to have some memory problems. She has a family history of ‘Parkinson’s disease’, which affected her maternal grandmother in later life and affects a maternal uncle. Her own mother died in her early thirties in an accident.

      Upon examination, she has hypometric saccadic eye movements with broken pursuit movements and some nystagmus at the extremes of gaze. She has continuous fidgety movements of her fingers and arms. There is extrapyramidal rigidity in all four limbs with a shuffling gait. ‘Bedside’ higher function testing reveals some disinhibition with irritability and impaired episodic memory.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain reveals no significant abnormalities beside some possible cerebral atrophy. Electroencephalogram (EEG) is non-specifically abnormal. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals an acellular fluid:


      Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (serum 6.8 mmol/l) 2.5–3.9 mmol/l
      (two-thirds plasma value)
      Protein 0.50 g/dl < 0.45 g/l
      14-3-3 protein Negative
      S100b Normal range

      Choose the test most likely to confirm the diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Serum copper studies and liver biopsy

      Correct Answer: Huntingtin gene analysis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms, including choreiform movements, rigidity, eye movement abnormalities, and cognitive problems, strongly suggest Huntington’s disease (HD). HD is a trinucleotide repeat disorder that affects the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. Genetic anticipation is observed in HD, where successive generations tend to show an earlier onset of a more severe phenotype due to expansion of the repeat length. There is currently no cure for HD, and patients who are at risk but asymptomatic can choose to undergo predictive testing after undergoing genetic counseling. Other rare causes of adult-onset movement disorders, such as neuroacanthocytosis and genetic prion disease, should also be considered. Tests for Wilson’s disease are unlikely to be necessary due to the presence of an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance. A single gene test for HD is recommended over a next-generation gene chip for Parkinson’s disease, as the clinical features are not compatible with Parkinson’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 46-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with cough, haemoptysis, and episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with cough, haemoptysis, and episodes of epistaxis. Additionally, she reports a two week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches.

      On examination, she appears icteric. Coarse crackles are heard on her chest and she has right upper quadrant tenderness. There is tenderness in both her calves and in her lower back.

      She is usually fit and well, working as a teacher in a nearby town. She is a non-smoker and consumes around 15 units of alcohol a week. At home, she has a pet dog.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: She should be warned that her cat was likely the source of her infection

      Correct Answer: Advise serology testing is most likely to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis is commonly diagnosed through serology, but it may take up to 7 days for antibodies to appear. This patient’s occupational and social history puts her at risk for zoonotic infections, and her symptoms, including liver involvement, coagulopathy, and myalgia in the calves and lower back, suggest leptospirosis.

      Culture testing for the organism is difficult, with the highest yield within the first 10 days of illness. As this patient has been symptomatic for at least 2 weeks, culture pick-up rates are now lower. Leptospires are shed in urine during and after the illness, but transmission is not through respiratory droplets, so normal social interactions are safe.

      There is no vaccine for leptospirosis, so hand hygiene is important for those at occupational risk. Most cases are mild and self-resolve, but antibiotics such as doxycycline, azithromycin, or amoxicillin may be used. Rats are the most common source of transmission, but dogs, cattle, and pigs can also transmit the disease.

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman who had previously been treated for nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who had previously been treated for nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma and had been in remission for nine months after undergoing six cycles of ABVD chemotherapy, presents with a dry cough that has persisted for a month. A chest radiograph reveals mediastinal widening, and a PET scan shows active thoracic disease. A biopsy of the mediastinal mass confirms nodular sclerosing Hodgkin. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat ABVD chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: Salvage chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant

      Explanation:

      Management of Relapsed Hodgkin Lymphoma

      Relapsed Hodgkin lymphoma that occurs within a year of initial treatment requires aggressive management. The established gold standard for such cases is salvage chemotherapy followed by BEAM conditioned autologous stem cell transplantation. However, if the relapse occurs after a year, repeating ABVD chemotherapy may be considered as an option. It is important to note that involved field radiation therapy (IFRT) has no role in the management of relapsed disease.

      It is crucial to combine chemotherapy and ASCT for maximal disease clearing effect. Therefore, using either of these options alone is not recommended. It is essential to manage relapsed Hodgkin lymphoma promptly and effectively to improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department following an out of hospital cardiac arrest. The paramedics are performing CPR and have inserted a laryngeal mask airway for ventilation. They report that the patient is in asystole and have already given IV adrenaline. During the next rhythm check, you observe some P-waves on the monitor.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: External pacing

      Explanation:

      In the case of P-wave systole, which is a unique situation that deviates from the standard cardiac arrest algorithm, external pacing may lead to the restoration of spontaneous circulation. Atropine is no longer administered for any rhythm associated with cardiac arrest, while amiodarone and defibrillation are included in the protocol for shockable rhythms. If hypovolemia is suspected as the underlying cause of cardiac arrest, an IV fluid bolus is recommended. However, in this particular scenario, external pacing is more likely to result in the return of spontaneous circulation.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old...

    Correct

    • You are working in the general medical clinic where a 45 year old man comes for review following a recent, short admission to hospital where he was treated for a paracetamol overdose. He has no past medical history of hypertension or any other problems.

      During the review, he is found to have a manual blood pressure reading of 155/90 mmHg. Clinical examination of cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, as is urine dip and fundoscopy. Given this information what should be your next course of management in relation to his blood pressure?

      Start lisinopril
      10%
      Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
      80%
      Arrange to check blood pressure again following a two week interval
      5%
      Start nifedipine
      2%
      Screen for causes of secondary hypertension
      3%

      In 2011 the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its 2006 guideline for the management of hypertension (see the link below for the quick reference guide). Within this guideline, the first line use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in those found to have an elevated clinic reading (> 140/90 mmHg) is emphasised. When using ABPM to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, two measurements per hour are taken during the persons waking hours. The average value of at least 14 measurements are then used to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension.

      Generally speaking, secondary causes of hypertension should be sought in; patients under 40 who lack traditional risk factors for essential hypertension, patients with other signs and/or symptoms of secondary causes, and patients with resistant hypertension. Although in reality the most common cause of secondary hypertension is hyperaldosteronism, and as such a trial of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone is often employed as both a therapeutic and diagnostic measure.

      Drug treatment of essential hypertension can be summarised as follows, but for a more detailed explanation see the link below;
      Step 1; Age <55 - ACE inhibitor. Age >55 or of black African or Caribbean origin - calcium channel blocker
      Step 2; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker
      Step 3; ACE inhibitor + calcium channel blocker + thiazide-like diuretic
      Step 4; consider further diuretic or beta-blockade or alpha blocker and seeking expert advice?

      Your Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      In 2011, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for managing hypertension, emphasizing the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) as the first line of diagnosis for those with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm hypertension.

      Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both diagnosis and treatment.

      Drug treatment for essential hypertension follows a stepwise approach, with ACE inhibitors recommended for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Combination therapy with ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers is recommended in step 2, followed by the addition of a thiazide-like diuretic in step 3. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For more detailed information, see the provided link.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      82.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is admitted from the Emergency Department with increasing confusion over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is admitted from the Emergency Department with increasing confusion over the past few weeks. She works as a painter. She had recently visited her family doctor with increasing headaches, hypersomnolence and abdominal pains.

      Upon examination, she has pale conjunctivae and blue lines on her gums. No focal neurology, and abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Haemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/l (normal value: 120-160 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 8.5 × 109/l (normal value: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      - Platelets (PLT): 170 × 109/l (normal value: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Mean cell volume (MCV): 82 fl (normal value: 76-98 fl)
      - Lead level: 56 μg/dl (normal value: < 10 μg/dl)

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Desferrioxamine

      Correct Answer: Dimercaptosuccinic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for lead poisoning

      Lead poisoning is a condition that primarily affects children and adults with occupational exposure to heavy metals. The symptoms can range from abdominal pain and headaches to confusion and peripheral motor neuropathy. Diagnosis is confirmed through a plasma lead level test, and chelation therapy is the most appropriate intervention. The two chelating agents used for treatment are dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) and calcium disodium edetate. After treatment, it is important to identify and prevent re-exposure to lead. Desferrioxamine is a chelating agent used for iron toxicity, while N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol overdose and hepatic encephalopathy. Plasma exchange is most useful in antibody-mediated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of nausea and haemoptysis. She...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of nausea and haemoptysis. She is feeling generally well, but has noticed that her urine appears pink. Upon urinalysis, ++++ blood and +++ protein are detected. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Blood tests show elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and creatinine. Which of the following is the most likely positive finding?

      Your Answer: Anti-GBM antibody

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Goodpasture’s Syndrome

      This patient is likely suffering from Goodpasture’s syndrome, as indicated by the positive anti-GBM antibody. Although the presence of ANA and DS-DNA antibodies would suggest lupus nephritis, the short and acute nature of the symptoms is not typical of this condition. A renal biopsy would be necessary to confirm a diagnosis of lupus nephritis. Urinary tract infection is not a likely cause of the symptoms, and renal tuberculosis is also improbable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 78-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being discovered in an unresponsive, drowsy state. His son had called earlier in the day and was told that his father had a headache. Upon arriving at his father's home, he found him confused and lying on the floor.

      During examination, the patient's GCS is 9/15 (M4V3E2), pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 140/78 mmHg. A CT head scan is ordered:



      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The CT scan reveals widespread bleeding in the subarachnoid space, affecting the basal cisterns, sylvian fissures on both sides, and the inter-hemispheric fissure. This pattern is characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage, where blood enters the subarachnoid space.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A renowned athletics coach recently expressed concern that some of the athletes had...

    Incorrect

    • A renowned athletics coach recently expressed concern that some of the athletes had abnormally high red cell counts – a sign of using erythropoietin (EPO). He lamented the fact that EPO had been administered to some athletes by their former coaches outside the country and they actually took the drug unknowingly.

      What is the most effective method of detecting EPO misuse?

      Your Answer: EPO increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, not muscle bulk

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding EPO and its Detection in Athletes

      Erythropoietin (EPO) is a performance-enhancing drug that has become a major problem in high-level sports. It was first introduced in cycling in the late 1980s and works by increasing the red cell mass, which in turn increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This should improve performance during intense exercise. However, EPO use comes with serious health risks, including hypertension, thrombosis, and even death.

      EPO testing has been greatly refined, and levels can be detected in urine for several weeks after administration. Although blood sampling can also detect EPO, urine testing is preferred due to the risk of infection associated with blood sampling. Saliva testing is currently under development but is not as reliable as urine testing.

      It is important to note that EPO use does not increase muscle bulk, but rather improves the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. While EPO may increase reticulocyte count, this alone is not diagnostic of EPO use, as high-altitude training can also increase red blood cell count.

      In conclusion, EPO use is a serious issue in sports, and athletes should be aware of the health risks and the likelihood of detection through urine testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70 year-old man experienced a sudden onset of painless visual loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year-old man experienced a sudden onset of painless visual loss in his right eye for 1 minute. He described it as a curtain descending across his vision. The patient has a history of hypertension. An ECG revealed sinus rhythm, while a Doppler of his carotids showed a 90% stenosis in the right external carotid artery and a 40% stenosis in the right internal carotid artery. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Right carotid endarterectomy

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a medical condition characterized by temporary vision loss in one eye. The typical clinical presentation of this condition suggests that carotid endarterectomy is only necessary if there is more than 50% or 70% stenosis of the symptomatic carotid artery. It is important to note that the external carotid artery, which supplies the neck, face, and skull, is not responsible for the symptoms in this patient despite having 90% stenosis.

      Aspirin is the most appropriate treatment for this patient. Warfarin is not indicated as the ECG showed sinus rhythm. It is important to consider the appropriate treatment options for amaurosis fugax to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life. Proper diagnosis and management of this condition can help prevent future vision loss and other related health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You assess a 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who is currently on...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who is currently on metformin 2 g per day, gliclazide 160 mg per day, and ramipril for renoprotection. The patient's recent HbA1c was 68.31 mmol/mol (8.4%) and blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Upon reviewing the patient's eye photograph, you observe dot-and-blot haemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and micro-aneurysms that are not in close proximity to the macula. What is the most effective treatment option to decrease the likelihood of further deterioration of the patient's diabetic retinopathy in the long term, given these findings?

      Your Answer: Laser therapy

      Correct Answer: Gradual transition to insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      Optimizing Treatment for a Patient with Type 2 Diabetes and Hypertension

      Introduction:
      This patient has type 2 diabetes and hypertension. While his blood pressure is relatively well controlled, his blood glucose levels need improvement to reduce the progression of retinopathy.

      Gradual Transition to Insulin Therapy:
      To achieve the target HbA1c of 53.0 mmol/mol (7.0%), a gradual transition to insulin therapy may be necessary.

      Addition of Valsartan to Blood Pressure regimen:
      Adding an ARB to an ACE inhibitor may not significantly improve blood pressure control and may increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Therefore, it should be avoided.

      Addition of Amlodipine to Blood Pressure regimen:
      The next step in further intensification of blood pressure control is adding a calcium antagonist such as amlodipine. However, only diltiazem has been shown to significantly impact proteinuria among the calcium antagonist class.

      Laser Therapy:
      While laser therapy can reduce the progression of retinopathy, there are currently no high-risk features identified on retinal photography.

      Increasing Gliclazide Dose:
      The dose-response curve for gliclazide above 160 mg is fairly flat, so increasing the sulfonylurea dose to 320 mg/day may not provide significant value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his son. He has...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his son. He has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia and has significant short-term memory impairment. His son is concerned about his father's safety as he continues to drive 10 miles twice a week. What is the best course of action regarding his driving license?

      Your Answer: Assess his risk factors, report to the DVLA and await advice

      Explanation:

      According to DVLA guidance, determining whether someone with dementia is fit to drive is a challenging decision. If the individual exhibits impaired short-term memory, disorientation, or a lack of insight, it is likely that they are not fit to drive. Therefore, it is recommended to contact the DVLA, evaluate the risk factors, and seek further advice. Rather than immediately disqualifying the individual, a thorough assessment and decision with support from the DVLA is necessary. Factors that indicate an individual with dementia may not be safe to drive include significant short-term memory impairment, poor attention and concentration, and planning difficulties.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop ongoing for two weeks with some numbness and tingling of the foot. These symptoms developed after he knelt down to pick something up from the floor. Three years ago he woke up from sleep with clawing of his fourth and fifth digit after having been asleep in a prone position and this lasted a week. Eight years ago he also had a left wrist and finger drop lasting three weeks after he sat on the couch with his left arm draped over the back of the couch for ten minutes. He denies falling asleep or remaining on the couch for a prolonged period. He has no other past medical history of note and has never sought medical advice for his problems.

      On examination, there is right foot drop (2/5 power) and similar weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. There is also sensory loss over the lower lateral part of the right leg and dorsum of the right foot in all modalities. Reflexes are intact. Neurological examination and general examination are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following tests would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nerve biopsy

      Correct Answer: PMP22 gene testing

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with Hereditary Neuropathy with Liability to Pressure Palsy (HNPP), a neurological syndrome that causes mononeuropathy due to minor trauma to a peripheral nerve. This condition is most commonly seen in families with Dutch or German ancestry and is caused by a deletion in the peripheral myelin protein 22 gene on chromosome 17. It is an autosomal dominant condition that usually presents in the second or third decade of life.

      The patient has previously experienced ulnar and radial nerve palsy, also known as Saturday night palsy. Nerve conduction studies in HNPP show slow conduction and small action potentials, indicating a demyelinating neuropathy. A nerve biopsy may also reveal a predominance of smaller fibers and localized thickening of the myelin sheath. Gene testing can confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of HNPP is conservative and includes the use of wrist splints, ankle-foot orthoses, and protective padding.

      Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Demyelinating vs. Axonal Pathology

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies. However, the pathology of peripheral neuropathy can be classified into two main types: demyelinating and axonal.

      Demyelinating pathology is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering around nerve fibers. This type of neuropathy can be caused by conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), amiodarone, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type I, and paraprotein neuropathy.

      On the other hand, axonal pathology is characterized by damage to the nerve fibers themselves. This type of neuropathy can be caused by factors such as alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type II.

      It is important to note that some conditions, such as diabetes mellitus and vitamin B12 deficiency, can cause both demyelinating and axonal pathology. Understanding the type of pathology involved in peripheral neuropathy can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of yellowing of the skin and feeling unwell. She is two-months postpartum and reports that she was diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension in her third trimester for which she was prescribed labetalol. She reports no other medical history of note and takes no other regular medications. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and both her children are well. She reports no use of over the counter or herbal remedies and is not aware of any recent courses of antibiotics. She grew up in Pakistan and last visited her family in Lahore 6 months ago. She has no history of previous blood product transfusions or of any recreational drug use.

      On examination she is haemodynamically stable, she is alert and orientated with no asterixis. An examination of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems and abdomen are unremarkable aside from jaundice and signs of excoriation. Her blood pressure in the department is 110/60 mmHg. The decision is made to admit the patient for further testing.

      Blood tests are performed and results are as follows:
      Bilirubin 100µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 346u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 1051u/L (3 - 40)
      IgG 18.0 g/L (6.0 - 16.0)

      Hepatitis A IgM antibody Negative
      Hepatitis A IgG antibody Positive
      Hepatitis B surface antigen Negative
      Hepatitis B core IgM antibody Negative
      Hepatitis C antibody Negative
      HIV 1&2 antibodies Negative
      Antinuclear antibody Negative
      Anti‐smooth muscle antibody Negative

      An abdominal ultrasound is unremarkable and hepatic dopplers show normal flow through the hepatic vessels.

      What is the most likely explanation for this patient's acute hepatitis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Labetalol induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Decompensated Liver Disease: Causes, Signs, and Management

      Decompensated liver disease is a condition where the liver is unable to function properly, leading to various complications. There are several causes of decompensation, including infections such as pneumonia and viral hepatitis, drugs like paracetamol and anaesthetic agents, toxins such as alcohol and Amanita phalloides mushroom, vascular disorders like Budd-Chiari syndrome and vena-occlusive disease, haemorrhage from upper gastrointestinal bleed, and constipation.

      The signs of decompensated liver disease include asterixis, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, and constructional apraxia, which is a difficulty in drawing a clock face. To manage this condition, it is important to investigate and identify the underlying causes of decompensation. This may involve checking blood tests, reviewing the drug chart, performing a rectal examination for melaena and constipation, and conducting a septic screen.

      To enhance nitrate clearance, phosphate enemas can be used to achieve a minimum of three loose stools per day. Lactulose can also be administered to enhance the binding of nitrate in the intestine. Proper management of decompensated liver disease can help prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old man is currently undergoing chemotherapy for malignant melanoma which has become...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is currently undergoing chemotherapy for malignant melanoma which has become disseminated, with spread to his lungs and liver. He has been stable with respect to symptoms over the past few weeks and is expecting to begin the next cycle of chemotherapy in seven days’ time. He is very concerned because he suffered a minor knee sprain slipping on some steps but now has a very large left knee haematoma.
      Investigations:
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 112 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 152 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 112 U/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 187 U/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 13 µmol/l < 17 µmol/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12.3 s 10.6–14.9 s
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 54.2 s 22–41 s
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acquired haemophilia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Bleeding: Acquired Haemophilia, Dysfibrinogenaemia, Chemotherapy-related Platelet Dysfunction, Vitamin K Deficiency, and Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Bleeding can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment. Acquired haemophilia is a condition where autoantibody inhibitors attack factor VIII, resulting in severe soft tissue haemorrhage even with minor injuries. This condition can be associated with autoimmune diseases and malignancies such as pancreatic, colon, breast cancers, and malignant melanoma. Dysfibrinogenaemia, on the other hand, can cause both bleeding and an increased risk for thrombosis. Congenital dysfibrinogenaemia can lead to major bleeding, chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension, and renal amyloidosis.

      Chemotherapy-related platelet dysfunction is another possible cause of bleeding, but a normal platelet count makes it less likely. Vitamin K deficiency, which leads to a lack of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, can increase the risk of bleeding and prolong the PT, but it does not present the same picture as acquired haemophilia. Lastly, acquired von Willebrand’s disease is more commonly seen in patients with hypothyroidism, and APTT may be in the normal range.

      In summary, acquired haemophilia, dysfibrinogenaemia, chemotherapy-related platelet dysfunction, vitamin K deficiency, and acquired von Willebrand’s disease are some of the possible causes of bleeding. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for each condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 12-year-old boy is brought by his father to the clinic for evaluation...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought by his father to the clinic for evaluation of his neurological status. He has been experiencing a decline in academic performance for the past 4 months, and has been recently observed by his teacher to have outbursts of anger in the classroom.

      His father is concerned that in the early morning his son experiences sudden contractions of his shoulder muscles and complains of blurry vision. This has been happening for the past 2 weeks. On the morning of his visit, he had a seizure followed by loss of consciousness. In his early childhood, he had a rash illness from which he recovered without any complications.

      During the examination, the boy is lethargic and uncooperative. Cranial nerves appear normal. He experiences sudden contractions involving all four limbs. Tendon reflexes are brisk with bilateral Babinski’s sign. He has a wide-based gait and is unable to walk in a straight line. Blood pressure is noted at 110/75 mmHg, with pulse 90 bpm and regular. General physical review is unremarkable, as are routine blood tests and a chest X-ray.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Progressive CNS Dysfunction in Late Childhood

      subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare condition that could explain the progressive CNS dysfunction in a patient with a history of measles in early life. SSPE typically presents with a decline in school proficiency, followed by myoclonic jerks, seizures, visual deterioration, pyramidal signs, rigidity, and unresponsiveness, ultimately leading to death within 1-3 years. Neurosarcoidosis, lipid storage disease, Schilder’s demyelinative disease, and ceroid lipofuscinosis are other potential differential diagnoses, but their clinical features do not match the patient’s presentation. It is important to consider SSPE in cases of progressive CNS dysfunction in late childhood, especially in patients with a history of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old female presents to the emergency department after overdosing on unknown tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents to the emergency department after overdosing on unknown tablets 3 hours ago. She has a history of depression, previous overdoses, and gastric ulcer disease. Upon examination, she is lethargic but responsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 14. Her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, blood pressure is 108/62 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20, and saturations are 97% on room air.

      The electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with QRS complexes measuring 160 ms.

      An arterial blood gas on room air reveals the following results:

      pH 7.29
      pCO2 6.2 kPa
      pO2 10.5 kPa
      HCO3- 18 mmol/l
      BE -6.6 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Based on the symptoms presented, mixed acidosis observed on ABG, and ECG changes, it is likely that the patient has overdosed on Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs). TCA overdose can manifest in various ways, including cardiovascular effects such as tachycardia, prolonged QRS complexes, and cardiac arrhythmias, as well as central nervous system effects like altered mental status, seizures, and coma.

      Intravenous magnesium is not recommended for this case of TCA overdose. Activated charcoal may only be appropriate if the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is not reduced and they present within two hours of ingestion. Gastric lavage may be considered for potentially life-threatening TCA overdoses only if it can be administered within one hour of ingestion and the airway is protected. The main treatment for dysrhythmias or hypotension associated with TCA overdoses is sodium bicarbonate.

      Tricyclic Overdose: Symptoms and Management

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision due to their anticholinergic properties. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias, especially if the QRS interval is wider than 100 msec or a ventricular arrhythmia is present. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, should be avoided as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity, while dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics. It is important to note that correction of acidosis is the first line in management of tricyclic-induced arrhythmias, and response to lignocaine may vary. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in treating tricyclic overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus presented to the diabetic retinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus presented to the diabetic retinal screening service for the first time. Upon examination, no diabetic retina changes were observed. However, bilateral elevated optic discs with clear borders were noted, and there were no haemorrhages in or around the optic discs. The patient had 6/6 visual acuity in both eyes. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the orbits

      Explanation:

      Bilateral Optic Disc Drusens Diagnosis and Investigation

      Bilateral optic disc drusens is the diagnosis for the condition being observed. The recommended investigation for this condition is an ultrasound of the orbits. This test will reveal the calcification of the drusens within the optic discs. Optic disc drusens are small, yellowish-white deposits that form within the optic nerve head. They are usually benign and do not cause any significant visual impairment. However, in some cases, they can lead to visual field defects or even optic nerve compression. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and monitor this condition to prevent any potential complications. An ultrasound of the orbits is the investigation of choice for this condition as it provides a non-invasive and accurate way to visualize the calcified drusens within the optic discs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medical Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old patient with Crohn's disease presents to your clinic with increased stool...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient with Crohn's disease presents to your clinic with increased stool frequency of up to 10 times per day, watery and loose stools, and some nocturnal episodes. Despite having an extensive terminal ileal and small bowel resection in 2011, the patient has been well controlled on 8 weekly Infliximab infusions and mesalazine. On examination, the patient's abdomen is soft and non-tender, and rectal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a colonoscopy with biopsies show no active disease, but a SeHCAT scan reveals <5% Selenium retention at 7 days, indicating bile acid malabsorption secondary to the previous surgery. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol

      Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old man of African descent presented to the HIV clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man of African descent presented to the HIV clinic for a routine check-up. He had been on HAART for 4 years but admitted to frequently forgetting to take his medication.

      During the examination, the patient was found to have pitting edema in both ankles. A urinalysis performed in the clinic showed 4+ protein and 1+ blood.

      Further blood tests revealed a CD4 count of 130 cells/mm3 (normal range: 500-1500) and normal serum complement levels. A renal biopsy was performed, which showed collapsing FSGS.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)

      Explanation:

      HIVAN is characterized by collapsing FSGS and often presents as nephrotic syndrome. It is more likely to occur when the CD4 count is below 200. On the other hand, HIVICK is associated with immune complex deposition in the kidney, leading to membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and typically presents with nephritic syndrome and low serum complement. Tenofovir toxicity can cause Fanconi syndrome or acute tubular necrosis (ATN). While lupus nephritis and hepatitis C can both present with nephrotic syndrome, a renal biopsy would reveal membranous or membranoproliferative patterns instead of FSGS.

      HIV and Renal Involvement

      Renal involvement is a common occurrence in HIV patients, which can be caused by the virus itself or as a result of treatment. The use of protease inhibitors like indinavir can lead to intratubular crystal obstruction. HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is responsible for up to 10% of end-stage renal failure cases in the United States. However, antiretroviral therapy has been found to alter the course of the disease. HIVAN is characterized by five key features, including massive proteinuria leading to nephrotic syndrome, normal or large kidneys, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis with focal or global capillary collapse on renal biopsy, elevated urea and creatinine, and normotension.

      Overall, HIV patients should be monitored for renal involvement, and appropriate treatment should be administered to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      0
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  • Question 27 - A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old male patient is brought to the Emergency department after feeling unwell for some time. While waiting, he suddenly collapses and becomes unresponsive. He is quickly transferred to the resuscitation area where he is attached to a defibrillator, gains IV access, and has his airway secured. The monitor shows VF and he is given a shock. Despite continued chest compressions, he remains in VF after the second shock. What is the next immediate step in management according to current resuscitation guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One shock and immediately restart chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Importance of Continuous Chest Compressions in Cardiac Arrest

      Current UK resuscitation guidelines highlight the significance of minimizing interruptions in chest compressions during a cardiac arrest. It is recommended to restart chest compressions immediately after each shock, before any other action is taken. The rhythm assessment and pulse check should be conducted after two minutes of continuous chest compressions. The guidelines also suggest a single shock strategy.

      In advanced life support, adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes, and amiodarone should be given after three shocks. Additionally, brief periods of echo (10 seconds) are now supported during an arrest situation, but it should be performed at the end of two minutes of compressions.

      Therefore, the most appropriate immediate step in a cardiac arrest situation is to administer one shock and immediately restart chest compressions. This approach ensures that the patient receives continuous chest compressions, which is crucial for their survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man visits his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of feeling unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of feeling unwell and experiencing pain in his neck for the past two weeks. He describes his symptoms as similar to a severe flu-like illness.
      During the examination, his pulse is found to be 110 beats per minute (bpm) and regular, while his blood pressure (BP) is 126/72 mmHg. He has a slight tremor and his palms are sweaty. His thyroid is slightly enlarged, smooth, and tender to the touch.
      Further investigations reveal the following results:

      Thyroxine (T4) 38 nmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) <0.01 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) 35 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis is a condition characterized by malaise and neck pain, which can radiate to the ear or occiput. The thyroid gland may be tender and nodular, and ESR levels are often elevated. A Technetium-99m scan will show no uptake by the thyroid. Mild cases can be treated with NSAIDs, while more severe cases associated with hyperthyroidism require prednisolone at a dose of 30 mg/day. Carbimazole is not recommended. Toxic multinodular goitre presents with a nodular enlarged thyroid gland and a longer period of hyperthyroidism symptoms. Graves’ disease is associated with smooth thyroid enlargement and mild tenderness, with symptoms of thyrotoxicosis occurring over a longer period. Toxic solitary nodule is not associated with general thyroid tenderness, and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis develop gradually over weeks and months. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a C-cell tumor that does not cause symptoms of thyrotoxicosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 44-year-old white Caucasian female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old white Caucasian female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of being unable to walk and problems with vision in her right eye. She has no significant medical history and has only visited her GP once before for a bout of diarrhoea and vomiting.

      On examination, a right relative afferent pupillary defect is noted, and there is a patchy loss of sensation on the right lateral wrist and anterior aspect of the left lateral shin. An urgent MRI head and whole spine reveals abnormal high signal in the cervical cord from C3 to C7. A lumbar puncture was performed, and the results show a WCC of 12 mm/³, RBC <1 mm/³, protein of 0.9 g/l, glucose of 5.2 mmol/l (10.2 mmol/l serum), and oligoclonal bands and viral PCR results are pending.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Devic's disease

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences optic neuritis and myelitis simultaneously, it may indicate a central neuroinflammatory condition. Miller-Fisher syndrome is unlikely if the patient has a full range of eye movements, and any ataxia observed is probably due to limb weakness. While multiple sclerosis may seem like a possible diagnosis for a patient with disseminated features, the location of the lesions (optic nerve and cervical cord) and the extensive involvement of the cord (beyond 3 vertebral levels) suggest neuromyelitis optic as a more likely cause.

      Neuromyelitis optica (NMO) is a disorder of the central nervous system that can occur once or repeatedly. It was previously thought to be a variant of multiple sclerosis, but it is now recognized as a distinct disease, particularly common in Asian populations. The condition typically affects the optic nerves and cervical spine, and brain imaging is often normal. Vomiting is also a common symptom.

      To diagnose NMO, a patient must have bilateral optic neuritis, myelitis, and two of the following three criteria: a spinal cord lesion involving three or more spinal levels, an initially normal MRI brain, or a positive serum antibody for aquaporin 4.

      The management of NMO involves the use of immunosuppressants, such as the anti-CD20 agent rituximab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a recent humerus fracture. His blood tests reveal stage II chronic renal impairment, but his urinary albumin is within normal range. He has a history of hypertension and previous ischemic heart disease, and is motivated to control his blood pressure. His current medication includes ramipril at maximum dose. What should be his target blood pressure during his clinic visit?

      Blood tests:
      01/11/2018 08/09/2018
      Na+ 142 mmol/l 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 5.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 118 µmol/l 110 µmol/l

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 140/90 mmHg

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a blood pressure reading of 40/90 mmHg, their target blood pressure would be 130/80 mmHg if they have diabetes or a urinary ACR >70 mg/mmol. If they are monitoring their blood pressure at home, their target would be 135/85 mmHg.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful anti-hypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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