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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing in the UK?
Your Answer: Family history
Correct Answer: Selenium consumption
Explanation:Prostate Cancer Risk Factors: Surprising Findings
When it comes to prostate cancer risk factors, there are a few surprises to be found. One of the strongest known risk factors for this disease is a family history of prostate cancer, according to Cancer Research UK. However, there are other factors that may not be as expected. For example, diabetes may actually be associated with a lower risk of prostate cancer. Additionally, while obesity and physical inactivity have been linked to many types of cancer, they have not been proven to be significant risk factors for prostate cancer. On the other hand, consuming foods high in leucopene and selenium has been associated with a reduced risk. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the unique risk factors for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following options indicates more severe depression compared to mild depression, according to the DSM-IV criteria recommended by NICE for diagnosis and management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Personal or family history of depression
Explanation:Identifying Symptoms that Require Active Intervention in Primary Care
It is crucial to differentiate symptoms that require active intervention from those that favor general advice and monitoring in primary care. If there are five or more diagnostic symptoms, occasional suicidal thoughts, no apparent stress trigger, and symptoms present for more than two weeks, this indicates more severe disease. In such cases, active intervention is more likely to be necessary. On the other hand, the four incorrect options favor general advice and monitoring. Therefore, it is essential to identify the symptoms that require active intervention to provide appropriate care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old accountant admits to drinking three 500 ml cans of beer a week, each with an ABV of 5%.
Approximately how many units a week does he consume?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 27
Explanation:Calculating Alcohol Units for Patient Counseling
In order to provide appropriate lifestyle advice to patients regarding their alcohol consumption, it is important for healthcare professionals to be able to calculate the number of units consumed. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized the significance of this knowledge in their feedback on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for general practitioners.
To calculate the number of alcohol units in a drink, one must multiply the alcohol by volume (ABV) percentage with the volume in milliliters (ml) and divide the result by 1000. For instance, a 750 ml bottle of wine with an ABV of 13.5% would contain approximately 10.1 units of alcohol.
It is crucial to note that candidates often make errors in simple calculations due to a lack of reality check on their answers. Therefore, it is recommended to do a quick guesstimate to ensure the answer seems reasonable. By having a good understanding of how to calculate alcohol units, healthcare professionals can provide effective counseling to their patients on responsible alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past few months; a few weeks ago you had a needle stick and are worried you may have HIV. Unfortunately, a subsequent HIV test proves positive.
Which of the following is true with respect to your obligations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should consult a suitably qualified colleague and take their advice on practice restrictions
Explanation:GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Patients with Chronic Illnesses
The General Medical Council (GMC) has set clear guidelines regarding the prescribing of medication for patients with serious chronic illnesses. According to these guidelines, it is not appropriate for a doctor or a member of their family to prescribe medication for a patient with a serious chronic illness.
Furthermore, if a doctor has a serious condition that could potentially be passed on to their patients, they must consult with a qualified colleague and follow their recommendations. It is not acceptable for a doctor to rely solely on their own assessment of potential infection risks.
In summary, the GMC guidelines emphasize the importance of ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care, particularly when it comes to prescribing medication for those with chronic illnesses. Doctors must always act in the best interests of their patients and seek advice from qualified colleagues when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention
As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.
To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.
When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.
During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.
Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.
Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management
A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.
On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.
Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.
It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.
Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a sudden cough that has lasted for four days and a dry throat. She feels sick but has no fever. Her lung examination is normal. Which of the following is not a reason to prescribe antibiotics immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough
Explanation:Factors to Consider When Prescribing Antibiotics for Respiratory Infections
When considering prescribing antibiotics for respiratory infections, it is important to take into account various risk factors that may increase the likelihood of complications. While antibiotics may be necessary in some cases, their use should be weighed against potential adverse effects and the development of antibiotic-resistance patterns.
One factor to consider is hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough. In most cases, laryngitis is mild and self-limiting, and antibiotics may not be necessary. However, they may be considered in patients with persistent symptoms.
Another factor to consider is a history of congestive cardiac failure. For patients between 65 and 79 years, two risk factors should be present before prescribing antibiotics.
Current use of oral glucocorticoids is also a risk factor, as these patients are immunosuppressed and may be more susceptible to complications from respiratory infections.
Diabetes and hospitalization in the previous year are also risk factors for complications and should be taken into account when considering antibiotic prescriptions.
Overall, it is important to carefully evaluate each patient’s individual risk factors before deciding whether antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father and grandfather. He knows about 'genetic anticipation.' What other conditions show this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Hereditary diseases can have an earlier age of onset in successive generations due to genetic anticipation, particularly in trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Myotonic dystrophy (which have a CTG repeat sequence). However, genetic anticipation is not observed in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (an X-linked recessive condition), Marfan syndrome (an autosomal dominant condition), or Homocystinuria (inherited in an autosomal recessive manner).
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
What vaccinations would you suggest for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy presents having had a seizure. His sister hit him; he became still and very pale, stiffened and fell to the floor. He was unresponsive for 20 seconds, with his eyes rolled up and with jerking of all four limbs. He did not wet himself or bite his tongue. He has no previous history and seems well now.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reflex anoxic seizure
Explanation:A reflex anoxic seizure, also known as white reflex asystolic attacks, is not an epileptic seizure but is often misdiagnosed as one. It occurs due to increased vagal tone, resulting in transient reflex asystole. These seizures can occur from birth but are common between six months to two years of age and are triggered by shock, anxiety, or minor injury. Symptoms include pallor, loss of consciousness, stiffening, eye deviation, and vagal asystole, which may progress to a seizure. However, there is a rapid spontaneous recovery, and no treatment is required. Unlike epileptic seizures, patients having a reflex anoxic seizure do not usually bite their tongue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV
Explanation:HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination
Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.
Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.
In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.
During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ÂșC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms
Explanation:This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are examining the blood results of a 31-year-old woman who visited you last week complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, loose stools, mouth ulcers, and episcleritis. You suspected that she might have inflammatory bowel disease due to her positive family history. Her blood tests reveal a microcytic anaemia and an elevated CRP level.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: About two-thirds of people with inflammatory bowel disease have anaemia at diagnosis
Explanation:Inflammatory bowel disease can have an impact on the fertility of both men and women. For instance, Crohn’s disease can lower fertility rates due to the presence of active disease. Additionally, women who have undergone abdominal surgery or experienced abdominal sepsis are at a higher risk of developing adhesions that can negatively affect the function of their fallopian tubes.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of neck pain. Yesterday she was stopped at a red light when a car rear-ended her, causing her to jolt forward. She did not experience any neck pain immediately after the incident. However, it has gradually worsened since yesterday evening and she woke up with it today. Her neurological and musculoskeletal examinations are normal, and she has no tenderness in the midline of her cervical spine. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer oral analgesia
Explanation:Management of Whiplash Neck Injury: Recommendations and Precautions
Whiplash neck injuries are caused by sudden movements of the neck, such as extension, flexion, or rotation. To manage the pain associated with this injury, oral analgesics should be offered based on the severity of the pain, personal preferences, tolerability, and risk of adverse effects. However, certain factors such as age, mechanism of injury, paraesthesiae, tenderness, or altered consciousness may indicate a serious neck injury and require immediate assessment in the Emergency Department.
While muscle relaxants like diazepam are not recommended for whiplash injuries, a cervical spine MRI may be useful in patients with upper limb radicular symptoms, weakness, radicular pain, myelopathy, or severe neck pain associated with a neurological deficit. Antidepressants like sertraline are not recommended for the management of whiplash injuries. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended precautions and treatment options to ensure proper management of whiplash neck injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. Her fasting glucose levels are consistently elevated at 10 mmol/l and 9.5 mmol/l on two separate occasions, indicating a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. It is known that secondary diabetes mellitus can be caused by an underlying endocrine disorder. Which of the following conditions, if present, is least likely to be associated with secondary diabetes mellitus? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maculopathy
Explanation:Endocrine Conditions and Associated Symptoms
Endocrine conditions can lead to various symptoms depending on the hormones involved. Diabetes secondary to other endocrine conditions is caused by excess hormones that have antagonistic actions to insulin. Growth hormone and cortisol are two such hormones that can cause diabetes. Maculopathy is a common symptom of diabetes of long duration and is related to poor glycaemic control. It can also be present in patients with secondary diabetes if they have gone undiagnosed for some time. However, maculopathy is not related to any of the hormone excesses seen in these conditions.
Hypertension can be a feature of both acromegaly and Cushing syndrome. A bitemporal visual-field defect can also be a feature of both conditions due to the pressure effect of a pituitary adenoma. Long-lasting stimulation of the follicular epithelium by growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 can cause disorders in thyroid function, an increase in its mass and the development of goitre. Patients with acromegaly most frequently present with non-toxic multinodular goitre.
Cushing syndrome can cause multiple striae and bruises due to deficient collagen synthesis, resulting in thin and fragile skin. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with disorientation and restlessness. She lives independently and has previously seemed mentally alert. However, she has been increasingly unwell for the past month. She has long-standing hypertension, overactive bladder, osteoarthritis and depression. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of delirium in an elderly patient with multiple co-morbidities
Delirium is a common and serious condition in older adults, especially those with multiple chronic illnesses and medications. It is characterized by acute and fluctuating changes in cognition, attention, and consciousness, and can be caused by various factors, including infections, medications, metabolic disturbances, and organ failure. Distinguishing delirium from dementia, depression, or other cognitive disorders is important for appropriate management and prognosis.
In this case, the patient presents with delirium, as evidenced by her confusion, disorientation, and agitation. The history and examination suggest that the most likely cause of delirium is polypharmacy, i.e., the use of multiple medications that may interact or have side effects, such as sedation, dizziness, or serotonin syndrome. Therefore, a medication review and optimization should be a priority, with attention to reducing the overall burden of medications and avoiding potentially harmful combinations.
Other potential causes of delirium, such as accidental poisoning, alcohol withdrawal, Alzheimer’s disease, or chest infection, are less likely based on the available information. However, it is important to keep an open mind and consider further investigations or referrals if the patient’s condition doesn’t improve or worsens. Follow-up assessments of the patient’s cognitive and functional status are also recommended to monitor for any residual or long-term effects of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient comes in with a severely tender and swollen big toe on their left foot. The area is very sensitive to touch and moving the toe causes pain. The patient reports no fever and is able to move their toe in all directions despite the discomfort. They have a history of chronic kidney disease and are currently taking ramipril for hypertension. Additionally, they have had a past duodenal ulcer. What is the initial medication recommended for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Gout causes joint swelling, redness, and tenderness, which can be very painful. However, indomethacin and prednisolone should be avoided due to the individual’s history of duodenal ulcer. Naproxen can also worsen kidney function and exacerbate ulcer disease. While tramadol is an analgesic, it is not targeted specifically for joint disease. Colchicine is a suitable medication for treating gout in individuals with the mentioned co-morbidities.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis
Explanation:The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.
Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis
Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A couple in their early 30s come to see you to discuss family planning. They have one child who is 4-years-old and was diagnosed one year ago with cystic fibrosis.
Both the parents are healthy and were previously informed that any future pregnancies would also be at risk of being affected by cystic fibrosis. They have been considering the possibility of having another child but are uncertain about the likelihood of another child being affected.
What is the probability of them having another child with cystic fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that is inherited when both parents carry the gene. If both parents are carriers, there is a 50% chance that their future child will also be a carrier, a 25% chance of the child being affected by the condition, and a 25% chance of having a normal child who is neither a carrier nor affected.
In cases where both parents have had a previous affected child and are healthy adults, it is important to seek specialist referral for genetic counseling. This will provide accurate information and support to help make informed decisions about the chances of the child being affected or a carrier. Understanding the inheritance of cystic fibrosis is crucial in making informed decisions about family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
What is the most appropriate advice to give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth
Explanation:Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
– Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
– Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
– The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
– The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
– The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to you to report that she took her second dose of medication 15 hours late yesterday and engaged in unprotected sexual activity on the same day.
What would be the correct course of action to take in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organise for emergency contraception immediately
Explanation:Emergency contraception is necessary if unprotected sex occurred within 48 hours of restarting the POP after a missed pill. In this case, the patient missed her second pill by over 12 hours and is within the 48-hour window. A pregnancy test cannot provide reassurance the day after intercourse. It is important to take additional precautions and resume taking the medication at the normal time after a missed pill for 48 hours. If the missed pill is forgotten for 24 hours, taking two pills at once may be necessary, but it is not applicable in this scenario as the missed pill has already been taken.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for a check-up. She has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus since she was 20 years old. Her diabetes is currently well managed, and she has no other medical conditions. There is no family history of diabetes.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to develop? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid disease
Explanation:The Link Between Diabetes and Other Medical Conditions
Diabetes, a chronic metabolic disorder, is often associated with other medical conditions. Autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease, which affect the thyroid gland, have a higher prevalence in women with diabetes. However, diabetes doesn’t increase the risk of developing giant cell arteritis (GCA) or polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), but the high-dose steroids used to treat these conditions can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes (T2DM). Anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction, is not linked to diabetes, but increased steroid use in asthmatic patients, a chronic respiratory condition, is a risk factor for developing T2DM. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune condition that causes widespread inflammation, doesn’t have a significant increased risk in diabetic patients, but steroid treatments used to treat SLE can increase the risk of developing T2DM. Understanding the link between diabetes and other medical conditions is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, bloating and nausea after meals. He has also experienced a weight loss of around 10 kg in the past three months, along with some non-bloody diarrhoea. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day, but doesn't consume alcohol. A previous plain abdominal X-ray revealed dilated loops of the small bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a 32-Year-Old Man with Abdominal Pain and Diarrhoea
A 32-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea after meals, and diarrhoea. The most likely diagnosis is Crohn’s disease, an inflammatory bowel disease that affects the small bowel and is more common and severe in smokers. Small-bowel adenocarcinoma is a rare possibility, but less likely in this case. Coeliac disease can be associated with ulcerative jejunitis and small-bowel lymphoma, but doesn’t cause strictures. Giardiasis rarely causes nausea and doesn’t show X-ray changes, and would often be associated with a history of foreign travel. Chronic pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency could also present with these symptoms, but would be unusual in a non-drinker without a history of recurrent gallstone pancreatitis. A plain abdominal X-ray might show pancreatic calcification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.
Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy
NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.
The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.
Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
Saturations 98% on air
Temperature 37.2ÂșC
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal
Explanation:A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.
If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.
During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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