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  • Question 1 - A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: scleritis

      Correct Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking as she believes she is dead and does not require food anymore. Which syndrome is characteristic of this finding?

      Your Answer: Othello syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

      Other delusional syndromes:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
      – Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65 yr. old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and...

    Correct

    • A 65 yr. old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Intracerebral Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess is the most common underlying cause worldwide

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Screening has been shown to be effective. Bevacizumab is not used for advanced cases. The incidence is higher in men. Alcohol is not the most common underlying cause worldwide; this is from cirrhosis from diseases like hepatitis B and C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently. On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.

      The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock).
      It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.

      Treatment:
      Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone.
      After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications.
      Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.
      Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask her how much heroin she uses per day and give her a dose of methadone syrup equivalent to this

      Correct Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.

      Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
      Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
      Respiratory deficiency
      Acute alcohol dependence
      Head injury
      Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
      Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
      Severe hepatic impairment
      The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.

      To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.

      It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
      It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation = mean / square root (variance)

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
      – It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
      – It is unimodal
      – The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
      – Its density has two inflection points.
      – Its density is log-concave.
      The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a...

    Correct

    • Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a woman with suspected Osteomalacia?

      Your Answer: Cod liver oil

      Explanation:

      Serum vitamin D levels are influenced by sun exposure and diet. Cod liver oil is an important dietary vitamin D source in high-latitude countries like Norway where there is no sun-induced vitamin D production during the winter. 14 Norwegian Health Authorities have recommended 5 ml of cod liver oil daily (400 IU of vitamin D) for more than 60 years to prevent diseases like rickets, formerly more prevalent in areas with little access to vitamin D-rich fatty fish.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?

      Your Answer: HLA-DR4

      Correct Answer: HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
      HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may cause a downbeat nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Aqueduct stenosis

      Correct Answer: Chiari type I malformation

      Explanation:

      Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Chiari Type I malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brain stem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction, which includes DBN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

      Correct Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
      People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.

      Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
      Fear of germs or contamination
      Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
      Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
      Having things symmetrical or in a perfect order

      Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
      -Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
      -Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
      -Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
      -Compulsive counting

      Research also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma infection

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.

      AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.

      1. Warm AIHA:
      In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.

      2. Cold AIHA:
      The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: Capsaicin

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the correct statement regarding interferon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:

      Your Answer: Interferon-beta is produced by leucocytes

      Correct Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Presence of HLA-B27 antigen on tissue typing

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless. What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA is converted to RNA

      Correct Answer: RNA is converted to DNA

      Explanation:

      Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81...

    Correct

    • The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
      The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      = 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her blood pressure is 114/78 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Blood exam reveals Calcium = 1.94 mmol/l and Albumin = 38 g/l. Which of the following tests is most useful in establishing her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia occurs in patients with impaired function of the parathyroid glands. This is most common after thyroid or parathyroid surgery, but it can be idiopathic—mostly in young adults and less often as part of a genetic syndrome, such as autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 1. Usually, the first and most useful test to perform in such cases is the measurement of the parathyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Reynaud’s phenomenon complains of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Reynaud’s phenomenon complains of weight loss and has been referred for an opinion. Gastrointestinal associations of progressive systemic sclerosis include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal stricture is a complication of systemic sclerosis, think of the oesophagus as sclerosing (fibrosing) leading to stricture and you never forget. Based on the clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis this is more likely than pancreatic dysfunction, PSC, lymphoma, or diverticulitis. Additionally, CREST syndrome stands for: calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s phenomenon (which the patient has), oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias), this is a form of systemic sclerosis you should be familiar with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic complaining of muscle pain. He describes severe bilateral cramping calf pain on minimal exercise. This has been present since his late teens and as such he has avoided exercise. Recently, he has attended the local gym to try and lose weight, but attempts at exercise have been dampened by the pain. He does note that if he perseveres with exercise, the pain settles. He has noticed passing dark urine in the evenings following a prolonged bout of exercise. Which of the following clinical tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Explanation:

      The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.

      The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      82.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Malum perforans

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:
      – Acral dry gangrene
      – Carotenosis
      – Diabetic dermopathy
      – Diabetic bulla
      – Diabetic cheiroarthropathy
      – Malum perforans
      – Necrobiosis lipoidica
      – Limited joint mobility
      – Scleroderma
      – Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%.

      Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for...

    Correct

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for the routine follow up. She was asymptomatic at the time of examination. Her blood pressure was 152/92 mmHg and pulse rate was 90 bpm. Her blood pressure at the booking visit had been 132/80 mmHg. Her other examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the best method to use to treat her?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following peripheral neuropathy inducing clinical diagnoses is predominantly associated with sensory loss?

      Your Answer: Porphyria

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Diseases that cause predominantly sensory loss include diabetes, uraemia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.
      Those that cause predominantly motor loss include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, and diphtheria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid...

    Incorrect

    • Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid of light and sun and prefers darker environments. On examination, a generalized rash that does not blanch on pressure is noticed. What is the best action in this case?

      Your Answer: Isolate patient

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      The rash is a characteristic sign of meningitis. Added to photophobia, headache and neck rigidity, meningitis is highly suggested diagnosis. IV antibiotics should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Correct

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (5/9) 56%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (2/3) 67%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed