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  • Question 1 - You assess a patient who has been brought into the resuscitation room in...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has been brought into the resuscitation room in an obtunded state. The patient is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, indicating a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
      Which ONE statement accurately describes this condition?

      Your Answer: Men are more commonly affected than women

      Correct Answer: ACTH levels are usually elevated

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones. This includes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The most common cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for about 70-80% of cases. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.

      The clinical symptoms of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, low blood pressure (especially when standing up), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced hair in the armpits and pubic area, depression, and hyperpigmentation (darkening of the skin in certain areas like the palms, mouth, and exposed skin).

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased levels of ACTH (a hormone that tries to stimulate the adrenal glands), low sodium levels, high potassium levels, high calcium levels, low blood sugar, and metabolic acidosis.

      People with Addison’s disease have a higher risk of developing type 1 diabetes, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Grave’s disease, premature ovarian failure, pernicious anemia, vitiligo, and alopecia.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves taking hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet in case of an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intravenous saline

      Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.

      What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Malar flush

      Explanation:

      One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due to a recent onset of high fever and feeling unwell that has worsened over the past day, with the patient becoming increasingly drowsy. Despite initial resuscitation efforts, there is minimal response and it is decided to intubate the patient before transferring to the intensive care unit for ventilatory and inotropic support. Your consultant requests that you apply pressure over the cricoid during the procedure. What is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Prevent aspiration of gastric contents

      Explanation:

      Cricoid pressure is applied during intubation to compress the oesophagus and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to consuming a significant amount of amitriptyline following a breakup. The patient then experiences a seizure. Which medication is the most suitable for managing the seizure?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing seizures in cases of TCA overdose, benzodiazepines are considered the most effective treatment. Diazepam or lorazepam are commonly administered for this purpose. However, it’s important to note that lamotrigine and carbamazepine are typically used for preventing seizures rather than for immediate seizure control.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.9ºC
      Pulse: 155 bpm
      Respiration rate: 40 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her back. She is perspiring and experiencing nausea. During the examination, her blood pressure measures 176/96 in her right arm and 143/78 in her left arm. An early diastolic murmur is audible upon auscultation.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.

      Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.

      A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.

      Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.

      Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
      – Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
      – Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man from Spain is found to have anemia. The results of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man from Spain is found to have anemia. The results of his blood tests are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb): 9.3 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 66 fl (80-100 fl)
      Platelets: 219 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
      Serum Ferritin: 169 mg/l (15-200 mg/l)
      Serum Iron: 200 mg/l (30-230 mg/l)
      Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): 6%
      Blood Film: Presence of target cells
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      The beta thalassaemias are a group of blood disorders that occur when there is an abnormality in the production of the globin chains. These disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In individuals with beta thalassaemia trait, there is a slight decrease in the production of beta-globin chains. This condition is most commonly found in people of Mediterranean and Asian descent.

      The presentation of beta thalassaemia trait is characterized by a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia. This type of anaemia can be challenging to differentiate from iron deficiency anaemia. However, it can be distinguished from iron deficiency anaemia by the presence of normal iron levels. Another useful marker for diagnosing beta thalassaemia trait is an elevated HbA2 level. A value greater than 3.5% is considered diagnostic for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman who is being treated for a urinary tract infection comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is being treated for a urinary tract infection comes back after 48 hours because her symptoms have not gotten better. Regrettably, the lab still hasn't provided the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent. Her blood tests today indicate that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for the past two days.
      Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

      Correct Answer: Fosfomycin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.

      If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
      – Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

      *The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 20 minutes. He has already received one dose of rectal diazepam from the ambulance crew while on the way. Intravenous access has been established, his bowel movement is 4.5, and he weighs 25 kg.

      Based on the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: IV lorazepam 1.25 mg

      Correct Answer: IV lorazepam 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for treating a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, they should be given an initial dose of benzodiazepine. This can be administered intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for another 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to seek senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior medical personnel to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already receiving phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used instead. The recommended dosage is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      In the case of this specific child who weighs 25 kg and has already received a dose of lorazepam, they should receive a second dose of 0.1 mg/kg, which amounts to 2.5 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman is brought into resus following a car accident. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought into resus following a car accident. She is experiencing difficulty breathing, and you are unable to hear breath sounds on the left-hand side. Her trachea is deviated to the right, and her neck veins are distended. You make a clinical diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
      At which anatomical landmark should this procedure be performed?

      Your Answer: 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

      Correct Answer: 5th intercostal space midaxillary line

      Explanation:

      A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.

      The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old presents to the emergency department with facial swelling and respiratory distress....

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old presents to the emergency department with facial swelling and respiratory distress. Despite attempts at ventilation, it is determined that a cricothyroidotomy procedure is necessary. Which of the following statements about cricothyroidotomy is correct?

      Your Answer: Involves creating an airway via the space between thyroid and cricoid cartilages

      Explanation:

      Jet ventilation through a needle cricothyroidotomy typically involves using a 1 bar (100 Kpa) oxygen source.

      Further Reading:

      Cricothyroidotomy, also known as cricothyrotomy, is a procedure used to create an airway by making an incision between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. This can be done surgically with a scalpel or using a needle method. It is typically used as a short-term solution for establishing an airway in emergency situations where traditional intubation is not possible.

      The surgical technique involves dividing the cricothyroid membrane transversely, while some recommend making a longitudinal skin incision first to identify the structures below. Complications of this procedure can include bleeding, infection, incorrect placement resulting in a false passage, fistula formation, cartilage fracture, subcutaneous emphysema, scarring leading to stenosis, and injury to the vocal cords or larynx. There is also a risk of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, and failure to perform the procedure successfully can lead to hypoxia and death.

      There are certain contraindications to surgical cricothyroidotomy, such as the availability of less invasive airway securing methods, patients under 12 years old (although a needle technique may be used), laryngeal fracture, pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, tracheal transection with retraction into the mediastinum, and obscured anatomical landmarks.

      The needle (cannula) cricothyroidotomy involves inserting a cannula through the cricothyroid membrane to access the trachea. This method is mainly used in children in scenarios where ENT assistance is not available. However, there are drawbacks to this approach, including the need for high-pressure oxygen delivery, which can risk barotrauma and may not always be readily available. The cannula is also prone to kinking and displacement, and there is limited evacuation of expiratory gases, making it suitable for only a short period of time before CO2 retention becomes problematic.

      In children, the cannula cricothyroidotomy and ventilation procedure involves extending the neck and stabilizing the larynx, inserting a 14g or 16g cannula at a 45-degree angle aiming caudally, confirming the position by aspirating air through a saline-filled syringe, and connecting it to an insufflation device or following specific oxygen pressure and flow settings for jet ventilation.

      If a longer-term airway is needed, a cricothyroidotomy may be converted to

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated by the dermatology consultant on call, she is diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: Epidermal detachment is seen in less than 10% of the body surface area

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially deadly form of erythema multiforme. It can be triggered by anything that causes erythema multiforme, but it is most commonly seen as a reaction to medication within 1-3 weeks of starting treatment. Initially, there may be symptoms like fever, fatigue, joint pain, and digestive issues, followed by the development of severe mucocutaneous lesions that are blistering and ulcerating.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The extent of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when detachment affects between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Several drugs can potentially cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, including tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns to the chest after sparks from the welding machine ignited some gasoline-soaked rags that were nearby on the ground, causing his T-shirt to catch fire. Upon examination, the patient presents with full thickness burns encircling the chest. What would be the primary complication you would be most worried about in this case?

      Your Answer: Impaired ventilation

      Explanation:

      Circumferential burns on the thorax can limit the expansion of the chest and hinder proper ventilation. When burns penetrate deeply, they can cause the formation of dead tissue called eschar, which is usually white or black in color. This eschar is contracted and inflexible compared to healthy tissue, leading to restricted movement and impaired breathing. In some cases, burns on the thorax can result in respiratory failure. Marjolin’s ulcer, a rare condition, refers to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in burnt or scarred tissue. Burn injuries often lead to the release of excess potassium into the bloodstream, which can cause hyperkalemia. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs when someone inhales CO over a prolonged period, usually due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. However, the history provided in this case does not align with prolonged exposure to carbon monoxide.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. The patient is accompanied by her children who inform you that there have been several falls in recent weeks. These falls tend to happen in the morning when the patient gets out of bed and appear to have worsened since the GP altered the patient's usual medication. You suspect orthostatic hypotension. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measure lying and standing blood pressure (BP) with repeated BP measurement as soon as patient is standing

      Correct Answer: Measure lying and standing blood pressure (BP) with repeated BP measurements while standing for 3 minutes

      Explanation:

      To measure blood pressure while standing, you will need to take repeated measurements for a duration of 3 minutes. This involves measuring both lying and standing blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance to the resuscitation area of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. She developed sudden onset chest pain and then collapsed while exercising at home. On examination, she is pale and sweaty, and you can palpate a pulsatile mass in her abdomen. You suspect that she has a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      What is the most suitable initial imaging technique for evaluating this patient?

      Your Answer: Bedside ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a localized or diffuse enlargement of the abdominal aorta, reaching 1.5 times its normal diameter. The majority of AAAs are found between the diaphragm and the aortic bifurcation. They can be classified as suprarenal, pararenal, or infrarenal, depending on which arteries are involved. About 85% of AAAs are infrarenal, with a normal diameter of 1.7 cm in men and 1.5 cm in women over 50 years old. An infrarenal aorta larger than 3 cm is considered an aneurysm. Risk factors for AAA development include age (most common in those over 65), male gender, smoking, hypertension, history of peripheral vascular disease, positive family history, and connective tissue disorders.

      Most AAAs are asymptomatic, but an expanding aneurysm can cause pain or pulsatile sensations in the abdomen. Symptomatic aneurysms have a high risk of rupture. In the UK, elective surgery for AAAs is recommended if the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm or larger than 4.5 cm with a growth of more than 0.5 cm in the past six months.

      Imaging modalities used to assess AAAs include ultrasound (best for unstable patients), CT scan with contrast (best for uncertain diagnosis), and MRI scan (suitable for stable patients in an elective setting). The most significant complication of AAA is rupture, which can result in sudden death. Only around 50% of patients with a ruptured AAA survive long enough to receive treatment. Common clinical features of a ruptured AAA include acute severe abdominal pain, flank pain (with pararenal AAAs), back pain (with more distal AAAs), unexplained syncope, and a pulsatile abdominal mass. Other less common complications include aortic branch involvement causing ischemia, distal embolization, rhabdomyolysis, and bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you observe a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Upon examination, you observe that he has plum-red discoloration of his cheeks.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard.

      The mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis is a rumbling sound that is best heard at the apex, in the left lateral position during expiration, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, and it is more common in females, with about two-thirds of patients being female.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. She describes it as the 'most intense headache she has ever experienced'. She also complains of sensitivity to light and stiffness in her neck. There is no history of any head injury. Initially, she was treated conservatively and her symptoms improved. However, on the third day, she had a seizure and lost the ability to move her left arm. Physical examination reveals weakness in the left arm but normal sensation. A CT scan of her head shows a localized area of decreased density in the right frontal lobe, with a loss of distinction between grey and white matter and surrounding swelling.

      What is the most likely cause of her current condition?

      Your Answer: Ruptured lenticulostriate vessels

      Correct Answer: Cerebral vasospasm

      Explanation:

      Intracranial hemorrhages can be categorized based on their location into epidural, subdural, subarachnoid, or intracerebral hemorrhages. The patient in this case is experiencing a severe headache accompanied by signs of meningismus, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. Additionally, there is no history of trauma, and most cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage are caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm located in the circle of Willis. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the rupture of an aneurysm.

      During the patient’s hospital stay, they develop an ischemic stroke, which is confirmed by a CT scan. This is most likely a result of cerebral vasospasm secondary to the subarachnoid hemorrhage. To prevent this complication, patients are often treated with the cerebral selective calcium channel blocker Nimodipine.

      Another potential complication of this condition is rebleeding, with the highest risk occurring in the first few days. Rebleeding can be potentially fatal, so it is crucial to repair the aneurysm as soon as possible. The presence of blood in the subarachnoid space can also disrupt the production and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to hydrocephalus.

      Long-term complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage include epilepsy, with most patients experiencing their first seizure within a year after the hemorrhage. However, the risk of epilepsy decreases over time. Cognitive dysfunction is also a common long-term complication and can manifest as memory loss, difficulty concentrating, or challenges in performing regular tasks. Emotional problems, such as depression and anxiety, are frequently observed as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management of a 48-year-old woman who was saved from a residential fire. The initial evaluation reveals signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of cyanide poisoning. Which of the following antidotes would be suitable for administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) recognizes four antidotes that can be used to treat cyanide poisoning: Hydroxycobalamin, Sodium thiosulphate, Sodium nitrite, and Dicobalt edetate. When managing cyanide toxicity, it is important to provide supportive treatment using the ABCDE approach. This includes administering supplemental high flow oxygen, providing hemodynamic support (including the use of inotropes if necessary), and administering the appropriate antidotes. In the UK, these four antidotes should be readily available in Emergency Departments according to the RCEM/NPIS guideline on antidote availability. Hydroxocobalamin followed by sodium thiosulphate is generally the preferred treatment if both options are available. Healthcare workers should be aware that patients with cyanide poisoning may expel HCN through vomit and skin, so it is crucial to use appropriate personal protective equipment when caring for these patients.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of frequent urination and difficulty emptying...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of frequent urination and difficulty emptying her bladder completely presents with a high fever, shivering, and body aches. She is experiencing pain in her pelvic area and has recently developed painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, her prostate is extremely tender. Due to a previous adverse reaction, he has been advised against taking quinolone antibiotics.
      According to NICE, which of the following antibiotics is recommended as the first-line treatment for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.

      The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from service after being discovered to be under the influence of drugs and alcohol during a training exercise. He completed three tours of duty in Iraq and witnessed the death of a close comrade during his final deployment. Mark acknowledges experiencing frequent flashbacks and nightmares and often feels on edge. His spouse has accused him of being emotionally distant and lacking feelings, resulting in their separation. Lately, he has been heavily relying on alcohol as a coping mechanism.
      What is the SINGLE MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) develops after experiencing an extremely threatening or catastrophic event that would cause distress in almost anyone. It is important to note that PTSD does not develop from everyday upsetting situations like divorce, job loss, or failing an exam.

      The most common symptom of PTSD is re-experiencing the traumatic event involuntarily and vividly. This can manifest as flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive distressing images or sensations, and physical symptoms such as pain, sweating, nausea, or trembling. Other notable features of PTSD include avoidance, rumination, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, irritability, and insomnia.

      It is common for individuals with PTSD to also experience other mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, phobias, self-harming behaviors, and substance abuse.

      The recommended treatments for PTSD are Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) and Trauma-focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT). These treatments should be offered to individuals of all ages, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. Typically, 8-12 sessions are recommended, but more may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are with a hiking group and have ascended from an elevation of...

    Incorrect

    • You are with a hiking group and have ascended from an elevation of 2800m to 3400 meters over the past two days. One of your group members is experiencing difficulty breathing while at rest and has developed a dry cough. The individual's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 150/92 mmHg
      Pulse: 126 bpm
      Respiration rate: 28 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 86% on air

      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this individual?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is the preferred medication for treating high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). When a patient shows signs of HAPE, the best course of action is to immediately descend to a lower altitude while receiving supplemental oxygen. However, if descent is not possible, nifedipine can be used to alleviate symptoms and assist with descent. Nifedipine works by reducing the pressure in the pulmonary artery. On the other hand, dexamethasone is the preferred medication for treating acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
      Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying symptoms consistent with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying symptoms consistent with a sexually transmitted infection.
      Which of the following organisms is primarily transmitted through sexual contact?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of bacteria that is accountable for causing the infection known as chlamydia. This bacterium is mainly transmitted through sexual contact.

      There are various serological variants of C. trachomatis, and each variant is associated with different patterns of disease. Specifically, types D-K are responsible for causing genitourinary infections.

      In the United Kingdom, chlamydia is the most commonly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection (STI). It is also the leading preventable cause of infertility worldwide. Interestingly, around 50% of men infected with chlamydia do not experience any symptoms, while at least 70% of infected women are asymptomatic.

      If left untreated, chlamydia can lead to various complications. In women, these complications may include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and tubal infertility. Men, on the other hand, may experience complications such as proctitis, epididymitis, and epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell and has experienced recent weight loss. Additionally, she has developed a rash. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of asthma last year and allergic rhinitis. On examination, she has a normal body temperature, her blood pressure is 180/95, and she has a purpuric rash primarily on her legs. During chest examination, a few scattered wheezes are heard.

      Recently, she had a blood test, and the results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 23.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
      - Neutrophils: 8.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      - Lymphocytes: 2.1 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
      - Eosinophils: 15.7 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 107 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
      - Sodium (Na): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K): 4.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Creat): 255 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
      - Urea: 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Explanation:

      This individual has presented with haemoptysis and a purpuric rash, alongside a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. Blood tests have revealed elevated inflammatory markers, pronounced eosinophilia, and acute renal failure. The most likely diagnosis in this case is Churg-Strauss syndrome.

      Churg-Strauss syndrome is a rare autoimmune vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. The American College of Rheumatology has established six criteria for diagnosing Churg-Strauss syndrome. The presence of at least four of these criteria is highly indicative of the condition:

      1. Asthma (wheezing, expiratory rhonchi)
      2. Eosinophilia of more than 10% in peripheral blood
      3. Paranasal sinusitis
      4. Pulmonary infiltrates (which may be transient)
      5. Histological confirmation of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils
      6. Mononeuritis multiplex or polyneuropathy

      Churg-Strauss syndrome can affect various organ systems, with the most common clinical features including:

      – Constitutional symptoms: fever, fatigue, weight loss, and arthralgia
      – Respiratory symptoms: asthma, haemoptysis, allergic rhinitis, and sinusitis
      – Cardiovascular symptoms: heart failure, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction
      – Gastrointestinal symptoms: gastrointestinal bleeding, bowel ischaemia, and appendicitis
      – Dermatological symptoms: purpura, livedo reticularis, and skin nodules
      – Renal symptoms: glomerulonephritis, renal failure, and hypertension
      – Neurological symptoms: mononeuritis multiplex

      Investigations often reveal eosinophilia, anaemia, elevated CRP and ESR, elevated creatinine, and elevated serum IgE levels. Approximately 70% of patients test positive for p-ANCA.

      The mainstay of treatment for Churg-Strauss syndrome is high-dose steroids. In cases with life-threatening complications, cyclophosphamide and azathioprine are often administered.

      Polyarteritis nodosa is another vasculitic disorder that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It can impact the gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, skin, and joints, but it is not typically associated with rhinitis or asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. The initial observations are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.7ºC
      Pulse rate: 126 bpm
      Blood pressure: 132/76 mmHg
      Respiration rate: 24 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      During the examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient's fingernails, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely causative organism in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus

      Explanation:

      In this case, a 70-year-old male who recently underwent aortic valve replacement is presenting with symptoms of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. Upon examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient’s fingernails, which raises suspicion of infective endocarditis. Given the patient’s history and symptoms, the most likely causative organism in this particular case is Staphylococcus.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy and difficulty swallowing. She remembers being bitten by an insect approximately 10 years ago, which resulted in a fever and flu-like symptoms. On her ankle, where the bite occurred, she now has a firm, violet-colored lump.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chagas disease

      Explanation:

      Chagas disease, also known as American Trypanosomiasis, is a tropical illness caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by Triatomine insects, commonly known as kissing bugs, which belong to the Reduviidae family. This zoonotic disease is prevalent in Central and South America, with an estimated 8 million people infected in the region. In Brazil alone, there are approximately 120,000 new cases reported each year.

      The disease progresses through two stages: the acute stage and the chronic stage. During the acute stage, many patients may not experience any symptoms, and the infection can go unnoticed. However, some individuals may exhibit symptoms such as fever, malaise, muscle pain, loss of appetite, and occasionally vomiting and diarrhea. Clinical signs may include swollen lymph nodes and enlargement of the liver and spleen. At the site of the insect bite, an inflammatory response called a chagoma can occur. This is characterized by a swollen, violet-colored nodule that can last up to 8 weeks. Another distinctive sign of acute Chagas disease is Romaña’s sign, which is eyelid swelling caused by accidentally rubbing bug feces into the eyes.

      Following the acute stage, an estimated 10-30% of individuals progress to the chronic stage of Chagas disease. There is typically a latent phase between the acute and chronic phases, which can last for as long as 20-30 years. The chronic phase is associated with various complications, including cardiovascular problems such as dilated cardiomyopathy, heart failure, and arrhythmias. Gastrointestinal issues like megacolon, megaesophagus, and secondary achalasia can also arise. Neurological complications, such as neuritis, sensory and motor deficits, and encephalopathy, may occur. Additionally, psychiatric symptoms, including dementia, can manifest in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community...

    Correct

    • A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community midwife. She has been having difficulty with feeding, and her mother reports that she has been vomiting after most meals. Her diaper is stained with dark urine, and her mother mentions that her stools have been pale and chalky. She has some bruises on her arms and legs. The midwife has arranged for a heel prick test, which has revealed a total serum bilirubin of 208 mmol/l, with 80% being conjugated.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      This infant is displaying prolonged jaundice and failure to thrive. Prolonged jaundice is defined as jaundice that persists beyond the first 14 days of life. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two categories: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.

      Causes of prolonged unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia include breast milk jaundice, infections (particularly urinary tract infections), haemolysis (most commonly rhesus haemolytic disease), hypothyroidism, hereditary disorders (such as Crigler-Najjar syndrome), and galactosemia.

      Causes of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include biliary atresia, choledochal cysts, and neonatal hepatitis. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia often presents with symptoms such as failure to thrive, easy bruising or bleeding tendency, dark urine, and pale, chalky stools.

      In this case, the jaundice is clearly conjugated, and the only cause of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia listed is biliary atresia. To evaluate conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, an ultrasound of the bile ducts and gallbladder should be performed. If dilatation is observed, it may indicate the presence of choledochal cysts, which should be further investigated with a cholangiogram. If the bile ducts and gallbladder appear normal or are not visualized, a radionuclide scan is often conducted. The absence of excretion on the scan is consistent with biliary atresia.

      Biliary atresia is a condition characterized by progressive destruction or absence of the extrahepatic biliary tree and intrahepatic biliary ducts. It is a rare condition, occurring in approximately 1 in 10-15,000 live births in the western world. Infants with biliary atresia typically exhibit jaundice early on, and their stools are pale while their urine is dark starting from the second day of life. If left untreated, the condition will progress to chronic liver failure, leading to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly. Without treatment, death is inevitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman with severe learning difficulties presents with sudden abdominal pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with severe learning difficulties presents with sudden abdominal pain. The surgical team diagnoses her with acute bowel obstruction and recommends a laparotomy. She is accompanied by one of her caregivers who believes her quality of life is low and opposes the procedure.
      Which of the following statements is true about her care?

      Your Answer: A court order is required for treatment to occur

      Correct Answer: Treatment can be provided in the patient’s best interests

      Explanation:

      In certain scenarios, it may not be possible to obtain consent for emergency treatment. This is particularly true when dealing with individuals who have severe learning difficulties. In such cases, there is no one who can provide or deny consent on their behalf. It becomes the responsibility of the clinicians responsible for the patient’s care to make a decision that is in the patient’s best interests. If the treatment is urgently required to save the patient’s life, it can be administered without obtaining consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      19.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Cardiology (4/4) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/2) 0%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (0/1) 0%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (0/1) 0%
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