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  • Question 1 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools

      When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

      For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.

      In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

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  • Question 3 - In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas,...

    Incorrect

    • In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
      Why do teachers use this phrase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE

      Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.

      For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.

      As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.

      In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.

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  • Question 4 - Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's visit in relation to thoughts, worries, and anticipations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pendleton

      Explanation:

      The Calgary-Cambridge model also includes aspects of investigating concepts, worries, and anticipations.

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon examination, you observe several bruises on her arms. She confides in you that there have been issues at home, but she is hesitant to involve law enforcement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give her the details of a domestic violence support group

      Explanation:

      Dealing with scenarios involving domestic violence can be challenging. It is important to seek advice from domestic violence support groups as they have specific knowledge and resources to offer practical advice on housing and financial issues. General counseling services may not be equipped to provide such support and may inadvertently blame the victim. While it is still good practice to document injuries, drawing a diagram may not be necessary if the victim is not ready to involve the police. Checking the victim’s bloods is unlikely to be relevant as the bruises are likely a result of violence by their partner. Breaking confidentiality should only be considered if there is a fear for the victim’s life, as it may put them at further risk. Phoning the partner directly is not recommended as it violates confidentiality and may lead to retribution against the victim.

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  • Question 6 - You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his back. He has lost 6 kg in weight in the past three months.

      On examination he has jaundiced sclera and looks emaciated. There is the suspicion of an epigastric mass on abdominal examination.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A non-urgent ultrasound should be requested

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Suspected Pancreatic, Gallbladder, and Liver Cancer

      There is a growing concern about malignancy when a patient experiences weight loss, jaundice, and an abdominal mass. To address this issue, the latest NICE guidance recommends several actions.

      Firstly, for patients aged 40 and over with jaundice, healthcare professionals should refer them using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks to assess for pancreatic cancer. Secondly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged Gallbladder, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for Gallbladder cancer within two weeks. Lastly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged liver, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for liver cancer within two weeks.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and address potential cancer diagnoses, improving patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

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  • Question 8 - What is the role of hypothesis testing in the consultation process? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of hypothesis testing in the consultation process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exploring the patient's agenda

      Explanation:

      Hypothesis Testing in Clinical Reasoning

      Hypothesis testing is a logical process used by doctors to determine the most likely diagnosis based on symptoms and epidemiology. This process involves testing the probability of potential differential diagnoses and identifying any red flag symptoms that may indicate a more serious condition. Knowledge of red flag symptoms is crucial in this style of mental process.

      For instance, if a young athlete presents with epigastric pain and no red flag symptoms, the presentation may be more consistent with dyspepsia. However, the doctor may also consider the less likely possibility of a muscle strain. In this case, the patient may be given a proton pump inhibitor instead of an NSAID and then reviewed to note any response. By using hypothesis testing, doctors can make informed decisions about the most likely diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old patient attends for a routine blood pressure check. He is fit...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old patient attends for a routine blood pressure check. He is fit and well with good blood pressure control. He says he has heard that he will have to re-apply for his motor car driving licence at some stage.

      To what age is a Group 1 licence (motorcars and motorcycles) valid provided there is no medical disqualification from driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70 years old

      Explanation:

      Group 1 Licence Renewal Requirements

      Group 1 licences are typically issued until the age of 70, unless a shorter duration is specified for medical reasons. There is no maximum age limit, but individuals over the age of 70 must renew their licence every three years. To apply for a licence, all applicants must complete a medical self-declaration.

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  • Question 10 - Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your...

    Incorrect

    • Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your help. She reports dysuria and frequency. These symptoms are typical of previous UTIs which she typically gets once a year. There is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain and she feels systemically well. She reports that it is difficult to get an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work. She says she will see her GP but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for a 60-year-old nurse who reports dysuria and frequency, typical of previous UTIs, but is having difficulty getting an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work? She feels systemically well and there is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain, but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise her to book an appointment with her regular practice

      Explanation:

      Providing Medical Care to Close Personal Relationships

      The General Medical Council advises against providing medical care to individuals with whom you have a close personal relationship. This is because the lack of independent assessment may lead to feeling pressured by the person and not having access to necessary information for ongoing treatment.

      While it is important to consider the nurse’s concerns about worsening symptoms, it is necessary to explain the position and why prescribing cannot be justified. Even prescribing a three-day course and asking the nurse to see her usual practice is not clinically justifiable at this time.

      Referring the nurse to the NMC is an extreme option, as it is unlikely that she is acting with malice but rather was not aware of the potential seriousness of her request. It is important to prioritize patient safety and maintain professional boundaries in all medical situations.

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  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She informs you that she has an upcoming appointment with the mental health team in a few weeks and requests a sick note as she believes she will be unable to work for the remainder of the year. What is the maximum duration for which you can provide a statement of fitness for work, regardless of eligibility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification

      In April 2010, the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) introduced a new statement of fitness for work to replace the old ‘sick note’. This new statement brought about several significant changes.

      Firstly, during the first six months of sickness, the statement can only be issued for a maximum of three months. Secondly, doctors are no longer required to hold a face-to-face consultation to issue a note. Instead, another doctor’s report or a telephone consultation with the patient is sufficient.

      Thirdly, doctors are not obligated to provide a statement of fitness for work during the first seven calendar days of absence due to ill health. These changes have made sickness certification a popular topic in the AKT exam. For more information, refer to the Fit note: guidance for GPs page published by the DWP.

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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old truck driver presents for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver presents for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with epilepsy. The specialist has determined that he is experiencing 'absence' seizures and has advised him that he is not fit to drive. Despite this, the patient admits to continuing to drive his truck and disagrees with the diagnosis. He has not informed the DVLA about his seizures. You explain to him his legal obligation to inform the DVLA and the dangers of driving with his condition. He understands but insists on continuing to drive and declines your offer to speak to a friend or family member. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggest a second opinion and help arrange this, advising him not to drive in the meantime whilst this opinion is arranged

      Explanation:

      Managing Patients with Medical Conditions that Affect Driving

      The DVLA provides guidance on managing patients with medical conditions that affect their ability to drive. If a patient develops a medical condition that contraindicates driving, it is important to explain the situation to them and advise them of their legal duty to inform the DVLA. If they continue to drive despite advice not to and refuse to inform the DVLA, it may be necessary to contact the DVLA and disclose the information.

      If the patient refuses to accept the diagnosis, a second opinion from a specialist may be suggested and arranged, with the patient advised to abstain from driving in the meantime. It is important to respect the patient’s privacy and not disclose any information to friends or relatives without their consent.

      If the patient continues to drive against advice and poses a risk of death or serious harm to others, it is necessary to inform the DVLA and disclose any relevant information to a medical adviser. However, it is important to inform the patient beforehand and give the information in confidence.

      In summary, managing patients with medical conditions that affect driving can be challenging, but following the DVLA guidance and respecting the patient’s privacy can help ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 13 - Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your practice has just adopted a new computer system. You have a meeting to discuss any problems and there are many questions from all members of staff.
      Which one of the following statements about confidentiality is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rules about the confidentiality of data do not legally apply to emails

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Data: Applicable to All Storage and Transmission Methods

      The confidentiality of data is a crucial aspect of information security. It is important to note that the rules regarding data confidentiality apply to all means of storage and transmission, whether it is done manually or electronically. This means that regardless of how data is stored or sent, it must be kept confidential and protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. Therefore, it is essential to implement appropriate security measures to ensure the confidentiality of data, such as encryption, access controls, and secure transmission protocols.

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  • Question 14 - Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting between two experts'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuckett

      Explanation:

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being a victim of domestic abuse by his partner.
      Which of the following choices is LEAST PROBABLE to corroborate his statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He had to strike the partner because she 'wound him up'

      Explanation:

      Understanding Domestic Violence: Identifying Victims and Perpetrators

      Domestic violence is a form of abusive and controlling behavior that gives the abuser power over the victim. It is not limited to heterosexual relationships and can occur in any kind of relationship. According to a survey conducted in 2012-2013, 7.1% of women and 4.4% of men reported experiencing domestic violence.

      It is crucial to correctly identify whether the patient is a victim or a perpetrator as incorrect identification can have severe consequences for the patient, their partner, and any children involved. Striking out at a partner is an action of a perpetrator, and no matter how annoying they find their partner, they are not legally allowed to hurt them. The other four options could be examples of abuse against the perpetrator.

      For those interested in learning more about the issues surrounding male victims of domestic violence, the Respect Toolkit for Work with Male Victims of Domestic Violence (2019) provides an excellent overview.

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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

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  • Question 17 - The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience...

    Incorrect

    • The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.

      Which of the following statements best describes this concept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare

      The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.

      One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.

      Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.

      In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

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  • Question 18 - Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on...

    Incorrect

    • Michael Balint wrote a book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness, on the doctor-patient relationship, in which he coined a number of phrases.

      Which one of the following can be attributed to him and was written in his book, The Doctor, His Patient and The Sickness, when he was in his thirties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Drug Doctor

      Explanation:

      Balint’s Contributions to the Sociological Model of Consultation

      Balint, a Hungarian psychologist who worked at the Tavistock clinic in London, made significant contributions to the sociological model of consultation. In his book, he introduced the term drug doctor to describe the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, which is essentially effective reassurance.

      The sociological model of consultation includes three key elements: Charismatic Authority, Sapiential Authority, and Values and Norms. Charismatic Authority refers to the doctor’s ability to inspire trust and confidence in their patients. Sapiential Authority, on the other hand, is the doctor’s knowledge and expertise in their field. Lastly, Values and Norms pertain to the shared beliefs and expectations between the doctor and patient.

      Balint’s work highlights the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process. By recognizing the therapeutic effect of doctors themselves, doctors can better understand their role in the consultation and provide more effective reassurance to their patients.

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  • Question 19 - You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).

      He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.

      How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs

      Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure. He has notified the DVLA and has stopped driving his bus. He holds a full driving licence and has never taken medication. He has undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist and, following initial investigations, is thought to have no continuing increased risk of seizures.
      Assuming he remains free of epileptic attacks, when, if at all, can he resume driving a group 2 bus or lorry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 years

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Medical Conditions for Group 2 Bus and Lorry Drivers

      According to the DVLA’s guidance on medical conditions, drivers of group 2 buses or lorries who have experienced an isolated seizure must meet certain conditions in order to continue driving. Unlike drivers with epilepsy and a history of recurrent seizures, who must be seizure-free for 10 years, drivers with an isolated seizure must meet the following criteria:

      – Hold a full ordinary driving licence
      – Have been free of epileptic attacks for the last 5 years
      – Have not taken any medication to treat epilepsy during these 5 years or had a seizure during these 5 years
      – Have undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist
      – Have no continuing increased risk of seizures

      It is important for drivers to follow these guidelines in order to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. By meeting these criteria, drivers can continue to operate group 2 buses and lorries without posing a risk to themselves or others.

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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type II diabetes, managed with metformin and tolbutamide.

      He reports experiencing a hypoglycaemic episode while at work. He was conversing with a colleague before embarking on a delivery when he suddenly felt hot, dizzy, and disoriented. His colleague escorted him to the first-aid station, where his blood glucose was checked. It was 3.2. The first-aider administered oral glucose, and he quickly recovered.

      What guidance will you provide to your patient regarding his Group 2 (LGV) driving license?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 12 months and he must notify the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Diabetes and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      People with diabetes who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia must meet certain criteria to maintain their driving licence. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) guidelines state that patients must have no episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance in the past 12 months, have full awareness of hypoglycaemia, regularly monitor their blood glucose levels, and demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia. Additionally, there should be no other complications of diabetes that could affect driving, such as a visual field defect.

      If a patient experiences an episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance, they must give up their Group 2 licence until they have been clear of any similar episodes for 12 months. It is also important to note that a lack of hypoglycaemic awareness can be a worrying feature, and referral to a specialist diabetic team may be necessary to optimize diabetic control and re-establish hypoglycaemic awareness. By following these guidelines and working with healthcare professionals, people with diabetes can maintain their driving privileges while ensuring their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 22 - You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's...

    Incorrect

    • You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's family. This year, you receive a deluxe collection from an expensive retailer from the family and you are astonished to see that it costs £110.

      What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts

      Explanation:

      Registering Gifts as a GP

      As a GP, it is important to register any gifts received from patients or their relatives that are worth £100 or more, unless the gift is unrelated to the provision of services. This applies to all GPs, including locums, and equivalent regulations operate throughout the UK. The register should include the name of the donor, nature of the gift, and its estimated value. CCGs may request to see these registers. GPs may also need to seek tax advice for declaring large gifts. It is recommended to contact your trade union or indemnity provider if unsure about any gift policy. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it is worth asking about this when joining a new practice.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

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  • Question 24 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

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    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

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  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to discuss creating an advanced decision. She wants to make it clear to her family, carers, and medical professionals which treatments she would not want to receive if her condition worsens and she is hospitalized. Specifically, she doesn't want to be placed on a ventilator to support her breathing to sustain her life. Currently, her condition is stable.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the advanced decision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refusal of any future life-sustaining treatment is valid if verbally communicated to a medical professional and documented in his clinical record by a suitably qualified medical professional

      Explanation:

      Advanced Decisions and Statements

      An advanced decision, also known as an advanced decision to refuse treatment or a living will, is a document that informs others about a patient’s wishes for future treatment refusal in case they are unable to make or communicate a decision themselves. To be valid, the specific treatment or treatments being refused must be named, and the circumstances in which the treatment should be refused should be clear. Life-sustaining treatment, such as artificial ventilation, is an example of treatment that may be refused.

      The advanced decision is made by the patient while they have the mental capacity to do so. To refuse life-sustaining treatment, the decision needs to be written down, signed by the patient, and signed by a witness. If the advanced decision is legally binding, it has precedence over best interest decisions of other people.

      For an advanced decision to be valid with regards to refusal of life-sustaining treatment, the person making the decision must be 18 years old or over with appropriate mental capacity, the treatment(s) to be refused must be clearly specified, the circumstances of refusal must be explained, it must be signed by the patient and a witness, the decision must have been made without duress, and the patient must not have said or acted in any way to contradict the advanced decision since it was made.

      On the other hand, an advanced statement is a written statement outlining a patient’s preferences, wishes, beliefs, and values regarding their future care. It is different from an advanced decision, as it doesn’t refuse any specific treatment but rather provides guidance on the patient’s overall care preferences.

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  • Question 27 - What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recirculation

      Explanation:

      The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation

      The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.

      Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.

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  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

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  • Question 29 - A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who has requested health insurance. They enclose written consent from the patient. They request that you complete a short questionnaire and also include a photocopy of the patients' notes. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient against including a photocopy of their medical notes

      Explanation:

      The ABI prohibits doctors from sending full medical records as medical reports for insurance purposes. Insurance companies only require relevant information and sending unnecessary information may breach the Data Protection Act 1998 and compromise a doctor’s registration.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports

      When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.

      When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
      – Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
      – Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
      – Obtain written consent before releasing any information
      – Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
      – Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died

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  • Question 30 - What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010

      In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.

      It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.

      Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.

      The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.

      Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.

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