-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 27 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to increasing drowsiness. The patient's partner informs you that the patient was involved in a physical altercation approximately 40 minutes ago. The patient was struck in the temple and experienced a brief loss of consciousness for around 20 seconds. Initially, the patient appeared to be fine, but after about 20 minutes, he started becoming progressively more drowsy. A CT scan reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma. Which cranial nerve palsy is most commonly observed in this condition?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: Abducens nerve
Explanation:Abducens nerve palsy is often linked to extradural hematoma. When there is a mass effect, downward brain herniation can occur, leading to the involvement of the 6th cranial nerve (abducens nerve, CN VI). This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for eye abduction. When the abducens nerve is affected, the lateral rectus muscle is unable to function properly, resulting in an inward turning of the affected eye towards the nose (esotropia).
Further Reading:
Extradural haematoma (EDH) is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and the outer layer of the dura, the dura mater. It is typically caused by head trauma and is often associated with a skull fracture, with the pterion being the most common site of injury. The middle meningeal artery is the most common source of bleeding in EDH.
Clinical features of EDH include a history of head injury with transient loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval and gradual loss of consciousness. Other symptoms may include severe headache, sixth cranial nerve palsies, nausea and vomiting, seizures, signs of raised intracranial pressure, and focal neurological deficits.
Imaging of EDH typically shows a biconvex shape and may cause mass effect with brain herniation. It can be differentiated from subdural haematoma by its appearance on imaging.
Management of EDH involves prompt referral to neurosurgery for evacuation of the haematoma. In some cases with a small EDH, conservative management may be considered. With prompt evacuation, the prognosis for EDH is generally good.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a significantly split second heart sound (S2).
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Explanation:The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.
A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).
On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).
A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.
Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
You assess a patient who has been brought into the resuscitation room in an obtunded state. The patient is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, indicating a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
Which ONE statement accurately describes this condition?Your Answer: ACTH levels are usually elevated
Explanation:Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones. This includes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The most common cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for about 70-80% of cases. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.
The clinical symptoms of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, low blood pressure (especially when standing up), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced hair in the armpits and pubic area, depression, and hyperpigmentation (darkening of the skin in certain areas like the palms, mouth, and exposed skin).
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased levels of ACTH (a hormone that tries to stimulate the adrenal glands), low sodium levels, high potassium levels, high calcium levels, low blood sugar, and metabolic acidosis.
People with Addison’s disease have a higher risk of developing type 1 diabetes, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Grave’s disease, premature ovarian failure, pernicious anemia, vitiligo, and alopecia.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves taking hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet in case of an Addisonian crisis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with a nosebleed and was initially assessed by one of the medical students. You get ready to conduct rhinoscopy in order to locate the source of bleeding.
What is the probable location of epistaxis?Your Answer: Kiesselbach plexus
Explanation:Most nosebleeds, also known as epistaxis, occur at a specific area called Little’s area.
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?Your Answer: Ashman beats are narrow complex QRS complexes following a prolonged R-R interval
Correct Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node
Explanation:The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.
In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.
The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 23 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of left ear pain that has been present for 2 days. She mentions that the pain started the day after she went swimming. Upon examination of the left ear with an otoscope, the entire tympanic membrane is visible and appears red, but intact. There is also redness and swelling in the left ear canal with minimal white debris. The patient is diagnosed with mild otitis externa on the left side.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Advise that no treatment is required and patient should expect resolution in 3-5 days
Correct Answer: Prescribe otomize spray for 7 days
Explanation:For mild cases of otitis externa, using ear drops or spray as the initial treatment is a reasonable option. The insertion of a medicated wick, known as a Pope wick, is typically reserved for patients with severely narrowed external auditory canals. Microsuction, on the other hand, is helpful for patients with excessive debris in their ear canal but is not necessary for this particular patient. In general, microsuction is usually only used for severe cases of otitis externa that require referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.
Further Reading:
Otitis externa is inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, or chronic, lasting more than 3 months. Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection that can spread to the bones and surrounding structures of the ear. It is most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Symptoms of malignant otitis externa include severe and persistent ear pain, headache, discharge from the ear, fever, malaise, vertigo, and profound hearing loss. It can also lead to facial nerve palsy and other cranial nerve palsies. In severe cases, the infection can spread to the central nervous system, causing meningitis, brain abscess, and sepsis.
Acute otitis externa is typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus, while chronic otitis externa can be caused by fungal infections such as Aspergillus or Candida albicans. Risk factors for otitis externa include eczema, psoriasis, dermatitis, acute otitis media, trauma to the ear canal, foreign bodies in the ear, water exposure, ear canal obstruction, and long-term antibiotic or steroid use.
Clinical features of otitis externa include itching of the ear canal, ear pain, tenderness of the tragus and/or pinna, ear discharge, hearing loss if the ear canal is completely blocked, redness and swelling of the ear canal, debris in the ear canal, and cellulitis of the pinna and adjacent skin. Tender regional lymphadenitis is uncommon.
Management of acute otitis externa involves general ear care measures, optimizing any underlying medical or skin conditions that are risk factors, avoiding the use of hearing aids or ear plugs if there is a suspected contact allergy, and avoiding the use of ear drops if there is a suspected allergy to any of its ingredients. Treatment options include over-the-counter acetic acid 2% ear drops or spray, aural toileting via dry swabbing, irrigation, or microsuction, and prescribing topical antibiotics with or without a topical corticosteroid. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed in severe cases or for immunocompromised individuals.
Follow-up is advised if symptoms do not improve within 48-72 hours of starting treatment, if symptoms have not fully resolved
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned bystanders who witnessed the patient vomit blood outside a local bar. The patient is familiar to the department due to multiple alcohol-related visits in the past and has a previous diagnosis of alcohol-related liver cirrhosis. The patient experiences another episode of large volume bright red hematemesis shortly after arriving in the emergency department and is transferred to resus. The patient's initial vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 98/70 mmHg
Pulse: 126 bpm
Respiration rate: 24 bpm
Temperature: 36.4ºC
Which of the following treatments should be administered as a priority?Your Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:When a variceal bleed is suspected, it is important to start treatment with either terlipressin or somatostatin as soon as possible. These medications help control the bleeding and are typically continued for 3-5 days if variceal haemorrhage is confirmed. Additionally, an upper GI endoscopy may be performed to either band the varices or inject a sclerosing agent to stop the bleeding. If the bleeding is difficult to control, a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be inserted until further treatment can be administered. Once the bleeding is under control and the patient has been resuscitated, antibiotic prophylaxis should be prescribed. Ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolones are commonly used for this purpose. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless there is a specific need for treating peptic ulcer disease. Beta blockers like carvedilol are used to prevent variceal bleeding but are not effective in treating active bleeding. Vitamin K is typically not used in the acute setting of variceal bleeding.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a wall and hitting his face on a concrete bollard. There is a suspicion of a Le Fort fracture. What clinical tests would you perform to confirm this?
Your Answer: Place one hand on the forehead to stabilise it. With the other hand gently grip the upper teeth and anterior maxilla and gently rock the hard palate back and forth
Explanation:To clinically test for Le Fort fractures, one can perform the following procedure: Place one hand on the forehead to stabilize it, and with the other hand, gently grip the upper teeth and anterior maxilla. Then, gently rock the hard palate back and forth.
This test is useful in suspected cases of Le Fort fractures. In a Le Fort I fracture, only the teeth and hard palate will move, while the rest of the mid face and skull remain still. In Le Fort II fractures, the teeth, hard palate, and nose will move, but the eyes and zygomatic arches will remain still. In Le Fort III fractures, the entire face will move in relation to the forehead.
Further Reading:
The Le Fort fracture classification describes three fracture patterns seen in midface fractures, all involving the maxilla and pterygoid plate disruption. As the classification grading increases, the anatomic level of the maxillary fracture ascends from inferior to superior.
Le Fort I fractures, also known as floating palate fractures, typically result from a downward blow struck above the upper dental row. Signs include swelling of the upper lip, bruising to the upper buccal sulcus, malocclusion, and mobile upper teeth.
Le Fort II fractures, also known as floating maxilla fractures, are typically the result of a forceful blow to the midaxillary area. Signs include a step deformity at the infraorbital margin, oedema over the middle third of the face, sensory disturbance of the cheek, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.
Le Fort III fractures, also known as craniofacial dislocation or floating face fractures, are typically the result of high force blows to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures involve the zygomatic arch and extend through various structures in the face. Signs include tenderness at the frontozygomatic suture, lengthening of the face, enophthalmos, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.
Management of Le Fort fractures involves securing the airway as a priority, following the ABCDE approach, and identifying and managing other injuries, especially cervical spine injuries. Severe bleeding may occur and should be addressed appropriately. Surgery is almost always required, and patients should be referred to maxillofacial surgeons. Other specialties, such as neurosurgery and ophthalmology, may need to be involved depending on the specific case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an unintentional ingestion of amitriptyline tablets. Which toxidrome is commonly associated with an overdose of amitriptyline?
Your Answer: Anticholinergic
Explanation:An overdose of Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, leads to a toxic effect known as anticholinergic toxidrome. This occurs when the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are blocked, causing the characteristic signs and symptoms associated with this condition.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 57 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of worsening pain on the left side of the mouth and jaw. Upon examination, there is noticeable swelling of the gum around the 1st and 2nd upper left molar teeth, indicative of a dental abscess. Which of the following signs would warrant hospitalization?
Your Answer: Swelling of sublingual space
Explanation:Patients with dental abscess should be evaluated for signs of spread into deep fascial planes. Infection of the sublingual space can lead to serious complications that can be life-threatening. Swelling in this area can cause the tongue to elevate, potentially obstructing the airway. Other complications include infections such as mediastinitis, necrotizing fasciitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, sepsis, thoracic empyema, Lemierre’s syndrome, cerebral abscess, orbital abscess, and osteomyelitis.
There are certain indications that may require admission to the hospital for dental abscess. These include evidence of significant systemic disturbance, inability to control the infection with antibiotics, rapid spread of infection, stridor or compromised airway, swelling of the sublingual space or pharynx, difficulty swallowing or speaking, immunocompromised patients, abscess requiring drainage under general anesthesia.
Fever and pain are common symptoms of dental abscess but by themselves are not enough to warrant admission. Ideally, dental abscess should be managed through urgent dental review. However, if immediate dental review is not available, the patient may be treated with antibiotics as long as there are no signs of more severe infection.
Further Reading:
Dental abscess is a condition that usually occurs as a result of dental caries or following a dental procedure or trauma. Dental caries refers to the loss of enamel caused by acids produced by bacteria in the mouth. This allows bacteria to enter the pulp, root, and local tissues, leading to infection. The infection can then spread to surrounding tissues, causing conditions such as gingivitis or dental abscess. In severe cases, the infection can spread to deep fascial planes, resulting in conditions like retropharyngeal abscess or Ludwig’s angina.
A dental abscess is typically caused by a combination of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Prevotella. When assessing a patient with a suspected dental abscess, a thorough history and inspection of the mouth, face, and neck are necessary. This helps confirm the diagnosis and assess the risk of serious complications, such as airway compromise or deep/spreading infection.
Some concerning features on history or examination include systemic upset (e.g., fever, vomiting), sublingual or pharyngeal swelling, stridor, dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea, and progression of illness despite current antibiotic treatment. It’s important to consider non-dental causes of mouth and jaw pain, such as trauma, referred sinus pain, cardiac pain radiating to the jaw, trigeminal neuralgia, otalgia radiating to the jaw, and parotid gland swelling.
Management of a dental abscess typically involves providing analgesia (NSAIDs and paracetamol) and facilitating early dental review. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, such as when the patient does not have immediate access to a dentist and is systemically unwell, shows signs of severe infection, or is a high-risk individual (e.g., immunocompromised or diabetic). The choice of antibiotics includes amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, or clarithromycin (if penicillin allergic). In severe or spreading infections, metronidazole may be added. The typical course of antibiotics is 5 days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
You assess a 30-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and previous episodes of self-harm and suicidal behavior.
Which ONE of the following factors has NOT been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of violence?Your Answer: Anxiety disorder
Explanation:Anxiety disorder does not have a connection with a higher likelihood of engaging in violent behavior. However, there are several factors that are acknowledged to increase the risk of violence among patients. These factors include being male, being young (under 40 years old), having poor levels of self-care, exhibiting coercive behavior, having a history of previous violent episodes, making multiple visits to the hospital, being intoxicated with alcohol, and experiencing organic psychosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
What dose of rectal diazepam is recommended for the treatment of the convulsing child?Your Answer: 0.5 mg/kg
Explanation:The recommended dose of rectal diazepam for treating a child experiencing convulsions is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has tried to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements about surgical cricothyroidotomy is correct?Your Answer: A vertical incision should be made through the cricothyroid membrane
Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in the presence of a laryngeal fracture
Explanation:A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.
There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old male with schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by the CPN after admitting to ingesting approximately 100 aspirin tablets one hour ago. He is now experiencing tinnitus. When would you initially measure salicylate levels in this patient?
Your Answer: 4 hours post ingestion
Correct Answer: 2 hours post ingestion
Explanation:If a person shows symptoms after ingesting salicylate, their salicylate levels should be measured 2 hours after ingestion. However, if the person does not show any symptoms, the levels should be measured 4 hours after ingestion. It is important to note that if enteric coated preparations are taken, salicylate levels may continue to increase for up to 12 hours. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly check the levels every 2-3 hours until they start to decrease.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman develops cholestatic jaundice following an adverse drug effect of a new medication she has been prescribed.
Which medication is the LEAST likely to cause this adverse drug effect?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid has the potential to induce acute hepatitis, but it is not considered a known cause of cholestatic jaundice. On the other hand, there are several drugs that have been identified as culprits for cholestatic jaundice. These include nitrofurantoin, erythromycin, cephalosporins, verapamil, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, phenytoin, azathioprine, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, diazepam, ketoconazole, and tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential side effects in order to ensure patient safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department 1 hour after experiencing intense tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient reports the pain as being extremely severe, rating it as 10/10. It is noted that the patient is prescribed medication for high blood pressure but admits to rarely taking the tablets. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 188/92 mmHg
Pulse rate: 96 bpm
Respiration rate: 23 rpm
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Temperature: 37.1ºC
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:The majority of dissections happen in individuals between the ages of 40 and 70, with the highest occurrence observed in the age group of 50 to 65.
Further Reading:
Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.
The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.
Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.
Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
What is the underlying cause of Korsakoff's psychosis in a 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse?
Your Answer: Thiamine deficiency
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.
The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department with a head injury associated with alcohol intoxication. The patient has a history of being unreliable when providing information. After reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that the patient has a pre-existing diagnosis of chronic hepatitis B infection.
Which of the following suggests the presence of chronic hepatitis B infection?Your Answer: Presence of IgG anti-HBc for for greater than 6 months
Correct Answer: Presence of HBsAg for for greater than 6 months
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B infection is characterized by the persistence of serum HbsAg for a duration exceeding six months.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of occasional dizzy spells and feeling generally under the weather. She experienced one brief episode where she fainted. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus four months ago and has been prescribed high-dose ibuprofen. During the examination, she has swelling in her hands and feet but no other notable findings. Her EKG shows broad QRS complexes and tall peaked T waves.
Which ONE blood test will confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:This patient’s ECG shows signs consistent with hyperkalemia, including broad QRS complexes, tall-peaked T waves, and bizarre p waves. It is estimated that around 10% of patients with SLE have hyperkalemia, which is believed to be caused by hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism. Additionally, the patient has been taking a high dose of ibuprofen, which can also contribute to the development of hyperkalemia. NSAIDs are thought to induce hyperkalemia by reducing renin secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
You are present at a trauma call and have been asked to examine the chest of a child who has been hit by a car. According to the ATLS guidelines, what are the life-threatening chest injuries that should be identified and treated in the PRIMARY survey?
Your Answer: Open pneumothorax
Explanation:The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.
During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.
In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old right-handed woman experiences a stroke. During examination, it is observed that she has weakness in her left arm and neglect on the left side of her body. Which blood vessel is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. After careful calculation, you have determined that the patient will require 6 liters of fluid over the course of the next 24 hours. Which intravenous fluid would be the most suitable to prescribe?
Your Answer: Hartmann's solution
Explanation:When it comes to managing acute burns, Hartmann’s or lactated Ringers are the preferred intravenous fluids. There is no scientific evidence to support the use of colloids in burn management. In the United Kingdom, Hartmann’s solution is the most commonly used fluid for this purpose.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial muscles on the right side. She is unable to frown or raise her eyebrow on the right side. When instructed to close her eyes and bare her teeth, the right eyeball rolls up and outwards. These symptoms began 24 hours ago. She has no significant medical history, and the rest of her examination appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:The patient has presented with a facial palsy that affects only the left side and involves the lower motor neurons. This can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion because the patient is unable to raise their eyebrow and the upper facial muscles are also affected. Additionally, the patient demonstrates a phenomenon known as Bell’s phenomenon, where the eye on the affected side rolls upwards and outwards when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.
Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.
There are other potential causes for an isolated lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, including Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (caused by the herpes zoster virus), trauma, parotid gland tumor, cerebellopontine angle tumor (such as an acoustic neuroma), middle ear infection, cholesteatoma, and sarcoidosis.
However, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is unlikely in this case since there is no presence of pain or pustular lesions in and around the ear. An acoustic neuroma is also less likely, especially without any symptoms of sensorineural deafness or tinnitus. Furthermore, there are no clinical features consistent with an inner ear infection.
The recommended treatment for this patient is the administration of steroids, and appropriate follow-up should be organized.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 7 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. The child has been feeling unwell for the past 2-3 days, complaining of stomach pain and feeling nauseous. The parents have also noticed that the child has been drinking more than usual and constantly feels thirsty. Tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and appropriate treatment is initiated. About 4 hours after starting treatment, one of the nursing staff asks you to assess the patient as he has been experiencing headaches and has started vomiting. The following repeat observations are recorded:
Pulse: 58 bpm
Respiration rate: 28 bpm
Temperature: 37.2ºC
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Administer mannitol (20%) 0.5-1 g/kg over 10-15 minutes
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of a persistent cough that has now started to produce a small amount of sputum. She is also experiencing muscle aches, fatigue, headaches, and has had diarrhea for the past three days. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8°C, heart rate 88, blood pressure 120/80, respiratory rate 20, oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds heard on the left side of her chest. A chest X-ray reveals consolidation in the left lower lobe.
What is the MOST appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TDS for 7 days
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin 500 mg PO BD for 14 days
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection typically include a flu-like illness that precedes respiratory symptoms, along with fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs may develop later in the illness. Interestingly, the X-ray features of the pneumonia are often more noticeable than the severity of the chest symptoms.
Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can involve the use of macrolides, such as clarithromycin, or tetracyclines, such as doxycycline. The recommended minimum treatment period is 10-14 days, making clarithromycin a preferable option over doxycycline in this particular case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. He normally controls his diabetes with metformin 500 mg twice a day. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his doctor, and his family reports that he has been excessively thirsty. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and moderate ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas test are as follows:
pH: 7.29
pO2: 11.1 kPa
pCO2: 4.6 kPa
HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
Na+: 154 mmol/l
K+: 3.2 mmol/l
Cl-: 100 mmol/l
Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
Glucose: 32 mmol/l
What is his serum osmolality?Your Answer: 364 mmol/l
Explanation:In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.
To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.
The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
– Normalize the osmolality
– Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
– Normalize blood glucose levelsIf significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.
Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?
Your Answer: Computerised tomography
Explanation:CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of coughing or cold symptoms. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt. What is her FeverPAIN Score for assessing her sore throat?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.
The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.
Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
– Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
– Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
– Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She is experiencing severe bruising on her anterior chest wall and is complaining of chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, and fractures of the first and second ribs. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 94, blood pressure of 128/73, and oxygen saturation of 99% on high flow oxygen.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic rupture
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.
Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.
Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.
Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.
Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.
Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency room after an accident at a construction site resulting in a severe blunt abdominal injury. The patient is experiencing hypotension. The surgical team is preparing for immediate transfer to the operating room. The consultant requests you to prepare intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction. What would be the appropriate initial dose of IV ketamine for this patient?
Your Answer: 1.5 mg/kg IV
Explanation:The recommended dose of ketamine for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 1.5 mg/kg administered intravenously. This dosage is commonly used in UK medical centers. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), intravenous induction doses of ketamine range from 0.5 to 2 mg/kg for longer procedures and 1 to 4.5 mg/kg for shorter procedures. Ketamine is known to cause an increase in blood pressure, making it a suitable option for individuals with hemodynamic compromise.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)