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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      What is the first-line management for her condition?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium

      Explanation:

      The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      3
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all of her relationships. She confides in you that she seems to have a knack for choosing friends and romantic partners who ultimately reveal themselves to be awful people.
      What defense mechanism is most likely at play in this patient?

      Your Answer: Identification

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Understanding How We Cope

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that we use to protect ourselves from anxiety and emotional pain. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be both adaptive and maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:

      Splitting: This is a common defense mechanism in borderline personality disorder. It involves seeing people as either all good or all bad, and the inability to reconcile both good and bad traits in a person.

      Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where one’s personal identity is temporarily modified to avoid distress. An extreme form is dissociative identity disorder.

      Identification: This is when someone models the behavior of a more powerful example. An example would be a victim of child abuse becoming a child abuser in adulthood.

      Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where the person takes an unacceptable personality trait and uses it to drive a respectable work that does not conflict with their value system.

      Reaction formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where unacceptable emotions are repressed and replaced by their exact opposite. A classic example is a man with homoerotic desires championing anti-homosexual public policy.

      Understanding these defense mechanisms can help us recognize when we are using them and how they may be impacting our relationships and mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.6
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  • Question 3 - A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean...

    Incorrect

    • A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever, feeling unwell, and developing bloody diarrhea for the past two days. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Diarrhoea and Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Enterohaemorrhagic verocytotoxin-producing E coli 0157:H7 is the most probable cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This type of E coli is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestine and cause bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases, it can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome, a condition that affects the kidneys and can cause kidney failure.

      Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can cause chronic diarrhoea, but it would be unusual for it to present acutely as in this case. Polio and giardiasis are other possible causes of diarrhoea, but they typically present as non-bloody diarrhoea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
      With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemisection of the cord

      Explanation:

      Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes

      Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:

      Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
      This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.

      Central Cord Syndrome
      Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.

      Anterior Cord Syndrome
      In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.

      Posterior Cord Syndrome
      Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.

      Cauda Equina Syndrome
      Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man has recently undergone a DEXA scan after experiencing back pain.
    The...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has recently undergone a DEXA scan after experiencing back pain.
      The results are as follows:
      Site T score
      Lumbar spine -1.5
      Femoral neck -2.0
      What does the femoral neck bone density score indicate for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her bone density is 2.5 standard deviations below that of an average healthy young adult

      Explanation:

      The statement that the patient’s T score is 2.5% below that of an average 65-year-old woman is inaccurate. T scores are calculated as the number of standard deviations above or below the mean of a young reference population, not as a percentage relative to the mean. Additionally, the trabecular bone score is not a measure of bone density but rather a newer method that evaluates skeletal texture from DEXA images and may offer further insight into a patient’s risk of fractures.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages....

    Incorrect

    • A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages. The company that developed the test conducted a randomised study to compare the new test to the current standard of care – mammography – among women over 40. They concluded that breast cancer patients whose cancer was identified by the biomarker lived, on average, 1.5 years longer than those whose cancers were identified by mammography. Subsequently, additional independent studies showed that there was truly no difference in survival between the two groups.

      Which of the following biases is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Potential Biases in a Study Comparing Breast Cancer Detection Methods

      Breast cancer detection methods can be compared using various measures, including lead time bias, confounding, selection bias, measurement error, and insensitive tests. Lead time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, but patients live for the same duration they would have lived if the disease had been detected later. Confounding can be reduced by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Selection bias can be minimized by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Measurement error can occur if the new biomarker is an insensitive test. If the new biomarker is an insensitive test, the results would likely favor mammography, rather than showing an increased survival time with biomarker detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of severe...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of severe headache. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes Ramipril 10 mg and Amlodipine 10 mg. During the full workup, fundoscopy is conducted and reveals scattered cotton wool spots, tortuous vessels throughout, and AV nipping in both eyes. According to the Keith-Wagener classification, what stage of hypertensive retinopathy does this patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage 3

      Explanation:

      Hypertensive retinopathy can be detected through fundoscopy, which may reveal end organ damage. This condition can progress through stages 1 to 3, and is often tested on as a final exam question. Diabetic retinopathy is also a commonly tested topic.

      Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and urgency, as well as a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying for the past 6 weeks. During a digital rectal exam, the physician notes an enlarged prostate that feels hard and rough. The doctor orders a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test, which reveals a level of 12.2 ng/ml (normal range: <4.0 ng/ml). The patient is then referred for a prostate biopsy. What is the most probable type of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is a common condition that affects up to 30,000 men each year in the UK, with up to 9,000 dying from the disease annually. Early prostate cancers often have few symptoms, while metastatic disease may present as bone pain and locally advanced disease may present as pelvic pain or urinary symptoms. Diagnosis involves prostate specific antigen measurement, digital rectal examination, trans rectal USS (+/- biopsy), and MRI/CT and bone scan for staging. The normal upper limit for PSA is 4ng/ml, but false positives may occur due to prostatitis, UTI, BPH, or vigorous DRE. Pathology shows that 95% of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas, and grading is done using the Gleason grading system. Treatment options include watchful waiting, radiotherapy, surgery, and hormonal therapy. The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends active surveillance as the preferred option for low-risk men, with treatment decisions made based on the individual’s co-morbidities and life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia

      Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.

      Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.

      Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of leg pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of leg pain. Upon examination, the leg appears pale, there is no pulse felt below the knee, it feels very cold, and the patient is reporting severe excruciating pain that began an hour ago. What is the optimal approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical intervention

      Explanation:

      The 6 P’s – pale, pulseless, pain, paralysis, paraesthesia, and perishingly cold – are indicative of acute limb-threatening ischaemia. This condition requires urgent surgical intervention to save the affected limb. While pain relief may be helpful, it is not the primary treatment. If surgical intervention fails, amputation may be necessary, but since the symptoms began less than 6 hours ago, there is a good chance that surgery will be successful. Thrombolysis and warfarin are not effective treatments for this condition.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 12 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
      What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing stiffness in his fingers while playing guitar. He also notices that his fingers ache more than usual during and after playing. John used to work as a computer programmer and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His body mass index is 30 kg/m². What radiological findings are most indicative of John's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) and base of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by the involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, with the presence of osteophytes at the base of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joints being a typical finding. Lytic bone lesions are unlikely to be the cause of this presentation, as they are more commonly associated with metastasis or osteomyelitis. While rheumatoid arthritis can also involve the proximal interphalangeal joints and cause joint effusions, this woman’s age, history, and symptoms suggest that osteoarthritis is more likely. The pencil in cup appearance seen in psoriatic arthritis is not present in this case, as the patient does not report any skin lesions. Although most cases of osteoarthritis are asymptomatic, the patient’s symptoms suggest that some radiological changes have occurred.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three to six months

      Explanation:

      HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been running a fever for the past 5 days and has been acting differently. Despite giving her paracetamol, the fever has not subsided.
      During the examination, the girl presents with cracked, bright red lips, conjunctival injection, palpable lymph nodes in the cervical area, and redness on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet.
      What medication should be given based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease requires the use of high-dose aspirin, despite it being generally not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This is because the child presents with a persistent fever lasting more than 5 days, along with other characteristic symptoms such as injected conjunctiva, swollen mucosal linings around the mouth, and red, swollen hands and feet. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also recommended for treatment.
      Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) is not indicated for this child as they do not exhibit symptoms of meningitis or endocarditis. Ibuprofen is also not appropriate for Kawasaki disease, as it is typically used for other conditions such as juvenile idiopathic arthritis and soft-tissue injuries. Low-dose aspirin may be given to low-risk patients who present more than 10 days after symptom onset and have normal ESR/CRP results and initial echocardiogram results.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy attends the Emergency Department (ED) with his father. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy attends the Emergency Department (ED) with his father. They are both heavily intoxicated with alcohol. The boy’s records show that this is the fourth time in eight months that he has attended the ED with alcohol-related problems. The safeguarding lead has advised you to contact social services.
      What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform the patient and her mother you are referring them to social services

      Explanation:

      Referring a Child at Risk to Social Services: Best Practices

      When a child is believed to be at risk, it is crucial to refer them to social services for safeguarding. However, the process of making a referral can be sensitive and requires careful consideration. Here are some best practices to follow:

      1. Inform the patient and their parent/guardian about the referral: It is important to inform the patient and their parent/guardian that a referral to social services is being made. However, if there is a risk that informing them could put the child in further danger, the referral should be made without informing them.

      2. Seek consent for the referral: Consent should be sought from the patient or their parent/guardian before making a referral. If consent is refused, the referral should still be made, but the patient and/or parent must be fully informed.

      3. Refer urgently: If there is a concern that the child is at immediate risk, the referral should be made urgently.

      4. Follow up with a written referral: A phone referral should be made initially, but it is important to follow up with a written referral within 48 hours.

      By following these best practices, healthcare professionals can ensure that children at risk receive the support and protection they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema, erythema, and drainage in her left eye. During examination, mild proptosis is observed. To further investigate her symptoms, a point of care ultrasound is conducted, revealing retro-orbital soft tissue prominence and oedema with echogenic fat. What is the appropriate treatment plan for this patient based on the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous antimicrobial

      Explanation:

      Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the potential for cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. It is imperative that all patients with a clinical diagnosis of orbital cellulitis be admitted to the hospital and receive an ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible. Oral antimicrobial treatment is inadequate in this situation, as intravenous antibiotic therapy is required to manage this medical emergency. Failure to treat orbital cellulitis promptly may result in blindness or even death. Therefore, no antimicrobial other than intravenous antibiotics is appropriate for this condition. Topical antimicrobial treatment is also insufficient for managing orbital cellulitis.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a wide-local excision and subsequently undergoes whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is negative for HER2 but positive for oestrogen receptor. She has a medical history of hypertension and premature ovarian failure. What adjuvant treatment is she expected to receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastrozole

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole is the correct adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer. This is because the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors and negative for HER2 receptors, and aromatase inhibitors are the preferred treatment for postmenopausal women due to the majority of oestrogen production being through aromatisation. Goserelin is used for ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, while Herceptin is used for HER2 positive tumours. Imatinib is not used in breast cancer management.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 21 - A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.

      To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old male presented to the emergency department after sustaining a shoulder dislocation...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presented to the emergency department after sustaining a shoulder dislocation during a game of football. The medical team reduced his shoulder and immobilized it with a sling. During the examination, the doctor assessed the sensation in the 'regimental badge area' and found it to be normal. Which nerve is frequently affected in cases of shoulder joint dislocation, and which nerve was the doctor testing for in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The most common type of shoulder dislocation is the anterior dislocation, which can occur after a fall on the arm or shoulder. It is important to check for any nerve or pulse damage, especially in the axillary region. A radiograph should always be done to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves reduction using various methods, as well as pain relief and immobilization with a sling. Posterior dislocations are rare and usually caused by seizures or electrocution. They can be identified on x-ray by the light bulb sign and should be referred to orthopedic surgeons for management. This information is sourced from the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties, 9th Edition, page 740.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in a 24-year-old professional off-road motorcyclist who suffered a complete fracture during a race?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Bony Features of the Foot

      The foot is a complex structure that contains numerous muscles and bony features. Here are some important details about the muscles and their attachments:

      Flexor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates on the fibula and inserts onto the plantar surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It passes underneath the sustentaculum tali, which has a groove for the tendon of this muscle.

      Flexor Hallucis Brevis: This intrinsic muscle of the foot originates from the plantar surface of the cuboid and lateral cuneiform bones and tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle. It inserts on the lateral and medial sides of the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the proximal one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and related surface of the lateral tibial condyle. It inserts via dorsal digital expansions into the bases of the distal and middle phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates from the middle one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and adjacent surface of the interosseous membrane. It inserts on the dorsal surface of the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Flexor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the medial side of the posterior surface of the tibia and inserts onto the plantar surfaces of the bases of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Understanding the muscles and bony features of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating foot injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and has undergone surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and has undergone surgery and radiotherapy. Despite being HER2 -ve and ER -ve, her TNM stage is T2N2M0. Given her node positivity, what is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEC-D Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer patients with positive lymph nodes are treated with FEC-D chemotherapy, while those with negative lymph nodes requiring chemotherapy are treated with FEC chemotherapy. Hormonal therapies such as aromatase inhibitors and tamoxifen are used for women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, while HER2-positive breast cancer is treated with herceptin. The management of breast cancer does not involve the use of estrogen.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 26 - A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy.

      What is the most frequently observed cardiac anomaly in infants with this genetic condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is estimated that 42% of children with Down syndrome have some form of congenital heart disease, with 23% having multiple abnormalities. The most common cardiac abnormality found in 37% of cases is a complete atrioventricular septal defect, followed by ventricular septal defects affecting 30% of patients. Other common heart abnormalities in Down syndrome patients include patent ductus arteriosus (2%), atrial septal defect (15%), and mitral valve disorders (up to 40%, but most commonly mitral valve prolapse or regurgitation rather than stenosis). It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential heart abnormalities in Down syndrome patients for early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.

      Explanation:

      It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past 4 weeks and occasional small amounts of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. She denies any pain, dysuria, or changes in bowel habits. Her last period was 2 years ago and she has unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband, who is her only partner. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity.

      On examination, her abdomen and pelvis appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If a woman is 55 years old or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (which occurs after 12 months of no menstruation), she should be referred for further evaluation within 2 weeks using the suspected cancer pathway to rule out endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man presents to his GP after being discharged from the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his GP after being discharged from the emergency department following multiple falls. He reports feeling dizzy upon standing up. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured in both lying and standing positions:
      Lying 143/94 mmHg
      Standing 110/78 mmHg
      The patient's medical history includes benign prostatic hyperplasia, type 2 diabetes, and depression. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s multiple falls is likely postural hypotension, which can be a side effect of doxazosin. This medication is an alpha-blocker used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hypertension by reducing activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Atorvastatin, linagliptin, and metformin are not associated with postural hypotension, but may cause other side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, muscle pain, weight gain, and hypoglycemic episodes.

      Understanding Alpha Blockers and Their Side-Effects

      Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.

      While alpha blockers can be effective in treating these conditions, they can also cause some side-effects. One common side-effect is postural hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position. This can cause dizziness or fainting and may be more common in older adults. Other side-effects of alpha blockers may include drowsiness, dyspnoea, and cough.

      It is important to exercise caution when taking alpha blockers. This is because there is a risk of developing intra-operative floppy iris syndrome, which can make the surgery more difficult and increase the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
      Patient Normal range
      High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
      What should be done based on this test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat troponin level

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.

      In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.

      Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.

      Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.

      Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.

      The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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