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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of five to ten cigarettes per day since he was in his twenties.

      During the physical examination, the patient exhibits clubbing, and chest auscultation reveals decreased air entry and dullness to percussion on the left side. A chest x-ray shows pleural thickening and a pleural effusion on the left side.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Clubbing and Mesothelioma as a Differential Diagnosis

      Clubbing can be caused by respiratory, gastroenterological, and cardiac conditions. Respiratory causes include cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, lung carcinoma, fibrosis, and mesothelioma. Gastroenterological causes include lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, and cirrhosis. Cardiac causes include cyanotic heart disease, atrial myxoma, and bacterial endocarditis.

      In this case, the patient presents with clubbing and respiratory symptoms, making it difficult to determine the exact cause. However, the patient’s occupational history as a dock worker puts them at risk for mesothelioma, a type of cancer caused by exposure to asbestos. Mesothelioma is more likely than other options due to the patient’s age, clinical and chest x-ray findings of pleural thickening and effusion. It is important to consider mesothelioma as a differential diagnosis in patients with clubbing and a history of asbestos exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of joint stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of joint stiffness and pain. The stiffness is more pronounced in the mornings and lasts for over an hour, but improves as the day progresses. The patient reports feeling fatigued but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, synovitis is observed in two interphalangeal joints of the left hand, left wrist, and a single distal interphalangeal joint in the right foot. The patient is referred to a rheumatologist who diagnoses psoriatic arthritis.

      What is the most distinguishing feature between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asymmetrical joint pains

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis patients may experience a symmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis. Fatigue is a common symptom in inflammatory arthritides, including psoriatic arthritis, but it is not specific to this condition. Joint pain caused by mechanical factors like osteoarthritis and fibromyalgia can also cause fatigue. Prolonged morning stiffness is a sign of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic or rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also occur in other inflammatory arthritides. In osteoarthritis, morning stiffness or gelling is usually brief, lasting less than an hour. Improvement in stiffness with use is a distinguishing feature of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis, while physical activity in osteoarthritis tends to worsen symptoms.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
      What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares

      Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.

      While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.

      If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.

      The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She doesn't experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.

      Understanding Papilloedema

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.

      It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He recently went camping in the New Forest and recalls having multiple tick bites.

      Upon examination, there are no visible rashes or swollen lymph nodes. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no signs of liver or spleen enlargement. The thyroid appears normal.

      Lyme disease is suspected, but the ELISA test comes back negative. Based on the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ELISA test in 4-6 weeks after the start of symptoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and presents within 4 weeks of symptom onset, it is recommended to repeat the ELISA test after 4-6 weeks if the initial test is negative. This is because the initial test may not detect the disease in its early stages. It is important to avoid diagnosing Lyme disease at this stage without an erythema migrans rash, as it may lead to inappropriate treatment and the possibility of missing alternative diagnoses. An immunoblot test may be necessary if symptoms persist for 12 weeks or more, or if the ELISA test is positive or equivocal. Referring the patient for same-day review by the infectious diseases team is unnecessary as the patient is not acutely unwell. It is also incorrect to inform the patient that Lyme disease is excluded, especially if the ELISA test was done within 4 weeks of symptom onset, as it may result in a false-negative result. It is important to investigate other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of alcohol. She had never felt her drinking to be a problem.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic term to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Harmful use

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Use: Categories and Definitions

      Alcohol use can have varying degrees of impact on a person’s health and well-being. To better understand these impacts, different categories and definitions have been established.

      Harmful use refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that is already causing harm to a person’s health, but doesn’t necessarily involve dependence. This can include acute or chronic damage, such as depression or cirrhosis. Brief interventions may be effective in addressing harmful use.

      Dependence syndrome, on the other hand, involves a compulsion to drink, inability to control drinking, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, neglect of normal activities, and persistent drinking despite evidence of harm.

      Acute intoxication is a transient condition resulting from the administration of alcohol, causing disturbances in consciousness, cognition, perception, affect, or behavior. It is only diagnosed when intoxication occurs without more persistent alcohol-related problems.

      Binge drinking is defined as drinking more than double the lower risk guidelines for alcohol in one session, and is considered a more risky type of hazardous drinking.

      Hazardous drinking is the regular consumption of a certain amount of ethanol per day, as determined by population studies and the associated risk of harm. It is not a diagnostic term in ICD-10, but is often used to describe drinking that may lead to harm.

      Understanding these categories and definitions can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and address problematic alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 7 - You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing varenicline to a 42-year-old man who wants to quit smoking. What is the most probable condition that would contraindicate the use of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Past history of deliberate self-harm

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of depression should use varenicline with caution due to ongoing studies investigating the risk of suicidal behavior. The MHRA/CHM advises patients to seek medical attention immediately if they experience agitation, depressed mood, or suicidal thoughts while taking varenicline. Patients with a history of psychiatric illness should be closely monitored during treatment. Additionally, varenicline may exacerbate underlying illnesses, including depression, and should be used with caution in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease or predisposition to seizures. Upon completion of a 12-week course, dose tapering should be considered to minimize the risk of relapse, irritability, depression, and insomnia.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 8 - A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born at 35 weeks gestation via normal vaginal delivery and spent a few days in the neonatal intensive care unit due to low birth weight. During the examination, it is noted that only one testicle can be felt.

      What is the recommended course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended testicles are more common in premature infants, such as the patient in this case. According to new guidelines, it is recommended to review the patient at 3 months and refer them for consideration of orchidopexy before they reach 6 months of age if the condition persists.

      While a referral to a pediatrician is not necessary at this stage, it can be arranged if the parents are concerned. However, if the patient has bilateral undescended testes, an urgent referral is required to rule out any genetic abnormalities.

      Similarly, a referral to a pediatric urologist is not needed yet. A review at 3 months may show that the testes have descended normally, and parents should be reassured that observation is useful in preventing unnecessary surgeries.

      By 6 months of age, the testis should have descended, and if it hasn’t, it is definitely abnormal. Delaying referral until 12 months of age is not ideal, as surgical procedures are typically planned for this age group, and undescended testes can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, and testicular cancer. Therefore, earlier review and referral are crucial.

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight loss. Upon further inquiry, she reveals feeling more irritable than usual and intolerant of heat. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 113 beats per minute, and she has a significant tremor in her outstretched hands. Blood tests reveal elevated thyrotropin receptor levels, but her thyroid peroxidase antibodies are normal.

      What is the most effective treatment option for managing symptoms while awaiting more definitive treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help manage symptoms in new cases of Graves’ disease. It is particularly effective in reducing tremors and palpitations associated with thyrotoxicosis.

      Carbimazole is the primary treatment for inducing remission in most cases of Graves’ disease. However, it may take some time to take effect, and patients may require short-term symptomatic relief with a beta-blocker like propranolol.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure, but it is not typically used for Graves’ disease.

      Ivabradine is a cardiac medication that targets the sino-atrial node to regulate heart rate. It is commonly used to treat angina and heart failure.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine with aura). At what point is an aura considered atypical and a potential 'red flag' if it lasts longer than what duration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), what would indicate that a person doesn't have capacity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to weigh up information and make a decision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions: The Test and Criteria

      The Mental Capacity Act provides a clear and concise test to determine whether a person lacks capacity to make a decision at a particular time. The test involves assessing whether the person has an impairment or disturbance of mental function that prevents them from making the decision in question.

      To have capacity, a person must be able to understand the relevant information, retain it, use it to make a decision, and indicate that decision through communication. Age, appearance, and behavior are not factors in determining capacity.

      Overall, understanding the criteria for capacity is crucial in ensuring that individuals are able to make informed decisions and have their rights protected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been immobilised by a ruptured Achilles tendon. She is known to abuse alcohol. She requests a home visit because she is feeling unwell.
      Which of the following findings is NOT typically a feature of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Withdrawal: Symptoms and Timeline

      Alcohol withdrawal is a range of symptoms that can occur when someone stops drinking alcohol. The severity of symptoms can vary greatly and typically appear about eight hours after the last drink. Symptoms peak on day two and usually improve by day four or five.

      Minor symptoms may appear within 6-12 hours and include cravings, anxiety, restlessness, depression, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, tremors, headache, sweating, and palpitations. Hallucinations can occur 12-24 hours after the last drink, while tonic-clonic seizures may occur after 24-48 hours.

      The most severe form of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens, which can occur after 48-72 hours. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially if they are severe. Understanding the timeline and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 13 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 20 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She is not currently using any form of regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 10 days ago, with a regular 30-day cycle. The patient has a history of asthma. She expresses interest in taking levonorgestrel.

      Her weight is 80 kg and her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg. Advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a person has a BMI over 26 kg/m2 or weighs over 70 kg, the recommended dose of levonorgestrel should be doubled from 1.5 mg to 3 mg, not 6 mg. Ulipristal acetate is contraindicated for those with brittle asthma that is controlled with glucocorticoids. It would be incorrect to inform the patient that she is not at risk of pregnancy as she is still at risk.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of blurred vision in his left eye and difficulty reading, with lines appearing wavy. The GP suspects age-related macular degeneration. How urgently should the patient be referred for further assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent - seen with 1 week

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Age-Related Macular Degeneration

      If there is suspicion of age-related macular degeneration, it is crucial to refer the patient urgently for further assessment. Ideally, they should be seen within one week of referral, especially if they present with rapid visual distortion. The assessment should be conducted by a macular clinic, a local hospital eye service, or an optometrist who can refer to an ophthalmologist.

      According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if there is a delay of more than one week in being seen by an optometrist or ophthalmologist, or if symptoms worsen while waiting to be seen, the patient should attend eye casualty, if available, as soon as possible, or seek other immediate medical attention to expedite urgent specialist assessment.

      Once neovascular age-related macular degeneration is confirmed, treatment in secondary care should be given as soon as possible to prevent any visual loss. Therefore, urgent referral and assessment are crucial in managing age-related macular degeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been ongoing for 5 days. He reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. The patient is in good health overall and experiences nausea but no hearing loss or tinnitus. During the examination, the doctor observes fine horizontal nystagmus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      If there is no hearing loss, it is more likely that the patient has vestibular neuronitis rather than viral labyrinthitis.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 17 - A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For

      Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.

      Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.

      While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.

      Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.

      By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her vertigo has settled but she still has hearing loss and tinnitus on the right side. She is still waiting to be seen by the ENT department but has a few questions about Meniere's disease.

      Which statement below regarding Meniere's disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around half of people with Meniere's disease have bilateral involvement after 5 years if not treated

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after being bitten on the hand by a dog while walking in the park. She has a laceration on her left index finger which is bleeding. There is no visible foreign object and the wound appears clean. She is stable and has no other medical issues. Her last tetanus shot was 2 years ago.

      What is the most probable treatment that Sarah will receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to administer post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV after being bitten by a human. Since the wound is free from contamination and the individual received a tetanus shot 4 years ago, there is no need for a tetanus booster.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A 73-year-old man comes in with painful lumps in his feet and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man comes in with painful lumps in his feet and is diagnosed with gout. After initial treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, he is prescribed allopurinol. What is the mechanism of action of allopurinol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cyclooxygenase II

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol: Inhibiting the Conversion of Purines to Uric Acid

      Allopurinol is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of xanthine oxidase, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the conversion of purines into uric acid. By blocking this enzyme, allopurinol helps to reduce the levels of uric acid in the body, which can be beneficial for individuals with conditions such as gout or kidney stones.

      According to the British National Formulary, allopurinol is commonly used to prevent gout attacks and to manage conditions associated with high levels of uric acid in the blood. The medication is typically taken orally, and its effects can be seen within a few weeks of starting treatment.

      In a story published by The Pharmaceutical Journal, allopurinol is described as a drug that does exactly what it says on the tin. The article notes that the medication has been in use for over 50 years and is considered to be safe and effective for most patients. However, it also highlights the importance of monitoring patients for potential side effects, such as skin rashes or liver damage.

      Overall, allopurinol is a valuable medication for individuals with conditions related to high levels of uric acid. Its ability to inhibit xanthine oxidase makes it an effective tool for managing gout and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman presents with anaemia on a routine blood test. Her haemoglobin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with anaemia on a routine blood test. Her haemoglobin is 96 g/L (115-165) and her MCV is 72 fL (80-96). Further blood tests reveal a ferritin of 8 µg/L (15-300) and negative coeliac serology. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is normal.

      She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, rectal bleeding, weight loss, haematuria or haemoptysis. Her menstrual cycle is regular with periods every 28 days. She reports heavy bleeding for five days followed by lighter bleeding for three days, which has been the case for several years. She doesn't consider her periods to be problematic.

      Physical examination, including urine dipstick testing, is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement

      Explanation:

      Investigating Anaemia: Identifying and Treating Iron Deficiency

      A new diagnosis of anaemia should prompt further investigation. A low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) suggests iron deficiency anaemia, which can be confirmed with a ferritin level test. However, it is important to note that ferritin levels may be falsely normal in the presence of an acute phase response. In such cases, iron studies may be useful. Once iron deficiency is confirmed, the underlying cause should be identified.

      Patients with upper gastrointestinal symptoms or unexplained low haemoglobin levels require urgent referral for endoscopic gastrointestinal assessment. Coeliac serology and haemoglobin electrophoresis should also be considered to rule out coeliac disease and hereditary causes of microcytic anaemia, respectively.

      In patients who do not require urgent referral, non-gastrointestinal blood loss and poor diet should be considered. Menstrual blood loss is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in menstruating women. In such cases, iron replacement therapy should be initiated, and haemoglobin levels should be monitored for improvement. If heavy menstrual bleeding is the cause, it should be treated, and if the patient doesn’t respond to iron supplementation, gastroenterology referral is appropriate.

      In summary, identifying and treating iron deficiency anaemia requires a thorough investigation of the underlying cause. Prompt referral is necessary in certain cases, while others may require iron replacement therapy and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements....

    Incorrect

    • A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements. What factors increase the likelihood of a couple having a baby with a neural tube defect (NTD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      If a couple has a history of neural tube defects (NTDs), either partner has a NTD, or they have a family history of NTDs, they are at high risk of conceiving a child with this condition. Additionally, if the woman has coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia trait, or is taking antiepileptic drugs, the risk is also increased. However, being obese (with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) is not a risk factor for NTDs and may actually be protective. On the other hand, advancing maternal age is a known risk factor for Down’s syndrome, while maternal rubella can lead to multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation in the child.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has relapsed Graves’ disease. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.05 μU/l (normal range 1.7–3.2 μU/l and the free thyroxine (T4) is 32.5 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). She has severe bilateral thyroid eye disease with marked orbital oedema and proptosis. She is being considered for radioactive iodine treatment, as drug treatment has failed.
      Which of the following statements concerning the management of thyroid eye disease is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her thyroid eye disease may be worsened by radioiodine treatment

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Eye Disease: Treatment and Management

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is a condition that affects the eyes and is often associated with thyroid dysfunction. Radioiodine treatment may worsen the eye disease, with exacerbation being more common than with drug therapy alone. However, only a small percentage of cases threaten sight, with most causing discomfort and deteriorating cosmetic appearance. Orbital irradiation is not commonly used to treat TED, as studies have not clearly demonstrated its efficacy. Corrective eye muscle surgery should be delayed until the disease has been stable for at least six months and may be of value in improving diplopia. Urgent orbital decompression surgery may be required for severe sight-threatening disease. Methylcellulose drops may be prescribed by general practitioners to alleviate symptoms due to corneal exposure. Systemic corticosteroids and oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may ease discomfort and decrease inflammation when symptoms are severe, while intravenous corticosteroids are used if vision is threatened. Smoking is an important risk factor for TED, increasing the risk of developing the disease by seven to eight times. The risk increases with the number of cigarettes smoked and reduces on stopping. Smoking also increases the risk of worsening after radioiodine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual onset lateral hip discomfort on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual onset lateral hip discomfort on the right side for the past two weeks. She denies any history of trauma and is able to bear weight without any difficulty. The discomfort is most severe at night and sometimes wakes her up when she is lying on her right side. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is characterized by pain in the lateral hip/thigh area, accompanied by tenderness specifically over the greater trochanter. This condition, also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome, typically presents as a localized issue and doesn’t affect the patient’s overall health.

      Iliotibial band syndrome, on the other hand, primarily affects the knee and is unlikely to cause nighttime symptoms. Additionally, it is not common in patients of this age group.

      Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and typically results in numbness or tingling sensations, rather than pain.

      Osteoarthritis is not typically associated with pain upon direct pressure over the greater trochanter.

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is more prevalent in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain on the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness can be felt when the greater trochanter is palpated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 27 - Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including the trial type, number of patients, drug used, and relative risk of cardiac event in the treatment arm for each trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The data suggests a class effect

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Statins in Primary and Secondary Prevention Trials

      The table provided contains data from both primary and secondary prevention trials, making direct comparisons between the statins difficult. While atorvastatin appears to be more potent in the three secondary prevention trials, the lack of information on confidence intervals and P values prevents a definitive conclusion. Additionally, cost-effectiveness cannot be compared without data on the cost of both drugs and outcome costs. More data is needed on the other statins in primary prevention, but the fact that all three drugs were associated with a reduction in risk suggests a class effect. A class effect refers to the effect produced by all members of a chemically related group of medications, rather than just a single drug from that class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old brother. He denies experiencing any specific symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/88 and heart rate 90 and regular. His cardiovascular system examination is unremarkable. An ECG reveals left bundle branch block and a chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly.
      What is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiomyopathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Cardiomyopathy is a chronic disease that affects the heart muscle, causing it to become enlarged, thickened, or stiffened. This condition can range from being asymptomatic to causing heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of cardiomyopathy.

      Causes of Cardiomyopathy
      Cardiomyopathy can be caused by a variety of factors, including coronary heart disease, hypertension, valvular disease, and congenital heart disease. It can also be caused by secondary factors such as ischaemia, alcohol abuse, toxins, infections, thyroid disorders, and valvular disease. In some cases, cardiomyopathy may be familial or genetic.

      Symptoms of Cardiomyopathy
      Most cases of cardiomyopathy present as congestive heart failure with symptoms such as dyspnoea, weakness, fatigue, oedema, raised JVP, pulmonary congestion, cardiomegaly, and a loud 3rd and/or 4th heart sound. However, some cases may remain asymptomatic for a long time.

      Diagnosis of Cardiomyopathy
      Diagnosis of cardiomyopathy usually involves an electrocardiogram (ECG) which may show sinus tachycardia, intraventricular conduction delay, left bundle branch block, or nonspecific changes in ST and T waves. Other diagnostic tests may include echocardiography, cardiac MRI, and cardiac catheterization.

      Conclusion
      Cardiomyopathy is a serious condition that can lead to heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of this condition in order to manage it effectively. If you suspect that you or a loved one may have cardiomyopathy, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 30 - Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has...

    Incorrect

    • Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual shortness-of-breath?

      FEV1/FVC 0.60
      FEV1% predicted 60%

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed