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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma. A member of the nursing team hands you the patient's ECG. What ECG findings would you anticipate in a patient with myxoedema coma?
Your Answer: Tented T waves
Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Patients with myxoedema coma often exhibit several common ECG abnormalities. These include bradycardia, a prolonged QT interval, and T wave flattening or inversion. Additionally, severe hypothyroidism (myxoedema) is associated with other ECG findings such as low QRS voltage, conduction blocks, and T wave inversions without ST deviation.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring present. Several have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing overall discomfort with joint pains and a sensation of fever. You measure his temperature, and it is currently 39°C.
What is the MOST LIKELY single diagnosis?Your Answer: Acne keloidalis nuchae
Correct Answer: Acne fulminans
Explanation:Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.
The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:
– Sudden and abrupt onset
– Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
– Often painful lesions
– Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
– Severe acne scarring
– Fluctuating fever
– Painful joints and arthropathy
– General feeling of illness (malaise)
– Loss of appetite and weight loss
– Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes with his wife due to worries about his memory. After gathering information, you observe a gradual decrease in his cognitive abilities. The only significant medical history he has is a heart attack he had 8 years ago.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Correct Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Vascular dementia is the second most common form of dementia, accounting for approximately 25% of all cases. It occurs when the brain is damaged due to various factors, such as major strokes, multiple smaller strokes that go unnoticed (known as multi-infarct), or chronic changes in smaller blood vessels (referred to as subcortical dementia). The term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI) is increasingly used to encompass this range of diseases.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, which has a gradual and subtle onset, vascular dementia can occur suddenly and typically shows a series of stepwise increases in symptom severity. The presentation and progression of the disease can vary significantly.
There are certain features that suggest a vascular cause of dementia. These include a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, the presence of focal neurological abnormalities, prominent memory impairment in the early stages of the disease, early onset of gait disturbance and unsteadiness, frequent unprovoked falls in the early stages, bladder symptoms (such as incontinence) without any identifiable urological condition in the early stages, and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, headache, and muscle spasms. Upon examination, the patient is found to have hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 198/96 mmHg. In order to screen for secondary causes of hypertension, which of the following tests would be the most suitable for detecting Conn's syndrome?
Your Answer: Urine vanillylmandelic acid
Correct Answer: Aldosterone and renin levels
Explanation:The preferred diagnostic test for hyperaldosteronism is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR). Hyperaldosteronism is also known as Conn’s syndrome and can be diagnosed by measuring aldosterone and renin levels. By calculating the aldosterone-to-renin ratio, an abnormal increase (>30 ng/dL per ng/mL/h) can indicate primary hyperaldosteronism. Adrenal insufficiency can be detected using the Synacthen test. To detect phaeochromocytoma, tests such as plasma metanephrines and urine vanillylmandelic acid are used. The dexamethasone suppression test is employed for diagnosing Cushing syndrome.
Further Reading:
Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.
The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.
Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.
Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.
Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with complaints of dysuria and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on this, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics.
Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
– Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
– Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The triage nurse requests an urgent review as she is concerned about the patient's blood pressure. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 226/120 mmHg
Pulse: 122 bpm
Respiration rate: 18
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
You consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is most commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer: Hypergylcaemia
Explanation:Hyperglycemia is a common occurrence in patients with phaeochromocytoma. This is primarily due to the excessive release of catecholamines, which suppress insulin secretion from the pancreas and promote glycogenolysis. Calcium levels in phaeochromocytoma patients can vary, with hypercalcemia being most frequently observed in cases where hyperparathyroidism coexists, particularly in MEN II. However, some phaeochromocytomas may secrete calcitonin and/or adrenomedullin, which can lower plasma calcium levels and lead to hypocalcemia. While not typical, potassium disturbances may occur in patients experiencing severe vomiting or acute kidney injury. On the other hand, anemia is not commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma, although there are rare cases where the tumor secretes erythropoietin, resulting in elevated hemoglobin levels and hematocrit.
Further Reading:
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a left sided, painful groin swelling. You suspect that it is an inguinal hernia.
Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: The hernia is easily reducible
Correct Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Indirect inguinal hernias have an elliptical shape, unlike direct hernias which are round. They are not easily reducible and do not reduce spontaneously when reclining. Unlike direct hernias that appear immediately, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing. They are reduced superiorly and then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring helps control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 8
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. His heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate 30/min, and his oxygen levels are 88% on room air. He is feeling fatigued and his breathing is labored, with no audible sounds in his chest. He has already received consecutive salbutamol nebulizers, a single ipratropium bromide nebulizer, and 40 mg of prednisolone orally. The ICU outreach team has been notified and will arrive soon.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer while waiting for the ICU outreach team to arrive?Your Answer: IV aminophylline
Explanation:This patient exhibits signs of potentially life-threatening asthma. In adults, acute severe asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, and an inability to complete sentences in one breath. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a PEF below 33% of the best or predicted value, a blood oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, a partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) below 8 kPA, a normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) within the range of 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, exhaustion, altered consciousness, and hypotension.
To address acute asthma in adults, the recommended drug doses include administering 5 mg of salbutamol through an oxygen-driven nebulizer, delivering 500 mcg of ipratropium bromide via an oxygen-driven nebulizer, providing 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally, administering 100 mg of hydrocortisone intravenously, and infusing 1.2-2 g of magnesium sulfate intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
According to the current Advanced Life Support (ALS) guidelines, it is advisable to seek senior advice before considering the use of intravenous aminophylline in cases of severe or life-threatening asthma. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by a continuous infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. To prevent toxicity, it is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml.
In situations where inhaled therapy is not feasible, intravenous salbutamol can be considered, with a slow administration of 250 mcg. However, it should only be used when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation.
It is worth noting that there is currently no evidence supporting the use of leukotriene receptor antagonists, such as montelukast, or Heliox in the management of acute severe or life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been ongoing for several months. The patient also reports mild shortness of breath while walking around the school. They used to smoke but quit ten years ago. The patient has a normal body temperature and all other vital signs are within normal limits. During the examination, finger clubbing is noted on their hands. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles at the bases of both lungs, but no wheezing is detected. Spirometry results came back normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Based on the clinical features of this individual, it is highly likely that they have pulmonary fibrosis. The key to determining the correct diagnosis is to differentiate between extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis (CFA).
In this case, the gentleman does not have any occupational risk factors for EAA and exhibits digital clubbing. While clubbing is not commonly seen in EAA, it is a frequent occurrence in IPF. Therefore, based on these factors, IPF is the more probable diagnosis.
Spirometry results in IPF can either be normal or show a restrictive pattern, whereas an obstructive pattern would be expected in COPD. The history and clinical features presented do not align with the other diagnoses mentioned in this question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal discomfort and rectal bleeding. An abdominal CT scan is conducted and reveals a diagnosis of diverticulitis.
Which part of her large intestine is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Descending colon
Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:Diverticulitis primarily affects the sigmoid colon in about 90% of cases. As a result, it is more commonly associated with pain in the left iliac fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal fissure. He has been undergoing treatment for the last two months, which includes lactulose, senna, topical creams with local anesthetics, and topical GTN ointment. However, his symptoms continue to persist, and he describes the pain during bowel movements as intolerable.
What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Anal dilatation (Lord’s procedure)
Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin injection
Explanation:An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline. The most common cause is the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.
Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.
The initial management of an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)
Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for fissures that do not heal and has a success rate of 90%. Anal dilatation, also known as Lord’s procedure, is rarely used nowadays due to the high risk of subsequent fecal incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 12
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student has made a preliminary diagnosis of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). What is a characteristic symptom commonly associated with HSP?
Your Answer: Arthritis
Explanation:Patients with HSP commonly experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, gastrointestinal issues like nausea and diarrhea, joint inflammation in multiple joints (polyarthritis), and involvement of the kidneys.
Further Reading:
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is commonly seen in children following an infection, with 90% of cases occurring in children under 10 years of age. The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal upset, and polyarthritis. Renal involvement occurs in approximately 50% of cases, with renal impairment typically occurring within 1 day to 1 month after the onset of other symptoms. However, renal impairment is usually mild and self-limiting, although 10% of cases may have serious renal impairment at presentation and 1% may progress to end-stage kidney failure long term. Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, and treatment for nephropathy is generally supportive. The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, with the condition typically resolving fully within 4 weeks, especially in children without renal involvement. However, around 1/3rd of patients may experience relapses, which can occur for several months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the medication she takes for insomnia. She tells you that the medication she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She took the medication about 2 hours ago. She is now hypotensive, with her most recent blood pressure reading being 82/56 mmHg. She weighs 70 kg.
The consultant in charge suggests that you administer a bolus dose of calcium to increase her blood pressure. Which of the following should you administer?Your Answer: 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV
Explanation:Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.
When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.
The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:
1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.
2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.
3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.
4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.
5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.
6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 15
Correct
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A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that protamine sulfate should be used to reverse the anticoagulation. How much protamine sulfate is needed to neutralize 200 IU of heparin?
Your Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.
It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.
When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.
It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are managing a 35 year old patient with severe burns. You determine that the patient needs urgent fluid replacement. The patient weighs 75 kg and has burns covering 15% of their total body surface area. How much fluid should be administered to the patient over a 24-hour period?
Your Answer: 4000 ml
Correct Answer: 6400 ml
Explanation:To calculate the total fluid requirement over 24 hours, you need to multiply the TBSA (Total Body Surface Area) by the weight in kilograms. In this particular case, the calculation would be 4 multiplied by 20 multiplied by 80, resulting in a total of 6400 milliliters.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. You conduct a fundoscopy and observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is made.
Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is NOT true?Your Answer: Central visual loss is commonly seen
Correct Answer: Hypermetropia is a significant risk factor
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.
The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.
Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.
It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The anesthesiologist has attempted to intubate her but is unsuccessful and decides to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements regarding surgical cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?Your Answer: It is the surgical airway of choice in patients under the age of 12
Explanation:A surgical cricothyroidotomy is a procedure performed in emergency situations to secure the airway by making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane. It is also known as an emergency surgical airway (ESA) and is typically done when intubation and oxygenation are not possible.
There are certain conditions in which a surgical cricothyroidotomy should not be performed. These include patients who are under 12 years old, those with laryngeal fractures or pre-existing or acute laryngeal pathology, individuals with tracheal transection and retraction of the trachea into the mediastinum, and cases where the anatomical landmarks are obscured due to trauma.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
1. Gathering and preparing the necessary equipment.
2. Positioning the patient on their back with the neck in a neutral position.
3. Sterilizing the patient’s neck using antiseptic swabs.
4. Administering local anesthesia, if time permits.
5. Locating the cricothyroid membrane, which is situated between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage.
6. Stabilizing the trachea with the left hand until it can be intubated.
7. Making a transverse incision through the cricothyroid membrane.
8. Inserting the scalpel handle into the incision and rotating it 90°. Alternatively, a haemostat can be used to open the airway.
9. Placing a properly-sized, cuffed endotracheal tube (usually a size 5 or 6) into the incision, directing it into the trachea.
10. Inflating the cuff and providing ventilation.
11. Monitoring for chest rise and auscultating the chest to ensure adequate ventilation.
12. Securing the airway to prevent displacement.Potential complications of a surgical cricothyroidotomy include aspiration of blood, creation of a false passage into the tissues, subglottic stenosis or edema, laryngeal stenosis, hemorrhage or hematoma formation, laceration of the esophagus or trachea, mediastinal emphysema, and vocal cord paralysis or hoarseness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 19
Correct
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A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. How much IM adrenaline should be administered in this situation?
Your Answer: 300 mcg
Explanation:The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.
Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.
The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:
– Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
– Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
– Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
– Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion as part of her treatment protocol. She has a known history of heart failure, for which she takes metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide. She becomes short of breath, volume overloaded, and edematous during the transfusion.
Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: BNP
Explanation:Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a reaction that occurs when a large volume of blood is infused rapidly. It is the second leading cause of deaths related to transfusions, accounting for about 20% of all fatalities.
TACO typically happens in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia who receive a fast blood transfusion. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are particularly vulnerable.
The common signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening fluid accumulation in the lungs on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid retention.
The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) can be a helpful diagnostic tool for TACO. Usually, the BNP level is elevated to at least 1.5 times the baseline before the transfusion.
In many cases, simply slowing down the rate of transfusion, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient. In more severe cases, the transfusion should be stopped, and non-invasive ventilation may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Correct
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A middle-aged man who lives by himself is brought to the Emergency Department by his brother; he feels excessively warm and is extremely thirsty. He feels nauseated but has not vomited yet. His core temperature is currently 40.2°C, and his heart rate is 106 bpm. He is fully conscious, and his GCS is 15. There is currently a heatwave during the summer, and he has been at home alone in a poorly ventilated apartment.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Heat exhaustion
Explanation:Heat exhaustion typically comes before heat stroke. If left untreated, heat exhaustion often progresses to heat stroke. The body’s ability to dissipate heat is still functioning, and the body temperature is usually below 41°C. Common symptoms include nausea, decreased urine output, weakness, headache, thirst, and a fast heart rate. The central nervous system is usually unaffected. Patients often complain of feeling hot and appear flushed and sweaty.
Heat cramps are characterized by intense thirst and muscle cramps. Body temperature is often elevated but usually remains below 40°C. Sweating, heat dissipation mechanisms, and cognitive function are preserved, and there is no neurological impairment.
Heat stroke is defined as a systemic inflammatory response with a core temperature above 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Typical symptoms of heat stroke include:
– Core temperature above 40.6°C
– Early symptoms include extreme fatigue, headache, fainting, flushed face, vomiting, and diarrhea
– The skin is usually hot and dry
– Sweating may occur in about 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke
– The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign
– Hyperventilation is almost always present
– Cardiovascular dysfunction, such as irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, and shock
– Respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
– Central nervous system dysfunction, including seizures and coma
– If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multiple organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occurMalignant hypothermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are highly unlikely in this case, as the patient has no recent history of general anesthesia or taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition. Upon reviewing his medications, you discover that he is taking warfarin as part of his management.
Which ONE of the following supplements should be avoided?Your Answer: St. John’s Wort
Explanation:St. John’s wort can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for patients who are taking warfarin to be aware that they should avoid using St. John’s wort as a supplement. For more information on this interaction, you can refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 23
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?Your Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 24
Correct
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A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department due to worsening abdominal distension over the past few weeks. You note the patient has a history of heavy alcohol use and continues to drink 50-100 units per week. On clinical assessment the patient's abdomen is visibly distended, nontender to palpation with shifting dullness on percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/78 mmHg
Pulse 86 bpm
Respiration rate 16 bpm
Temperature 36.6ºC
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to use first line to treat this patient's condition?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, is the preferred initial treatment for ascites. Ascites triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), causing sodium retention (Hypernatraemia) and potassium excretion (Hypokalaemia). By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone helps to counteract these effects. Other diuretics can worsen potassium deficiency, so close monitoring of electrolyte levels is necessary if they are used instead.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a red, hot, swollen right knee. On examination, her temperature is 38.6°C. The knee is warm to touch and is held rigid by the patient. You are unable to flex or extend the knee.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The clinical features of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and overall feeling of being unwell.
The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria can also be responsible. These include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).
According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves using specific antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is the first-line choice, but if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is suspicion of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin is recommended. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic.
The suggested duration of treatment for septic arthritis is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 26
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman presents with high fevers and severe pain in the upper right quadrant that radiates to her back. She is experiencing mild confusion. During examination, she exhibits tenderness in the upper right quadrant, and Murphy's sign is negative. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature is 38°C, heart rate is 114 bpm, and blood pressure is 88/54 mmHg.
Her blood test results are as follows:
- CRP: 134 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
- Hb: 11.6 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-16 g/dl)
- WCC: 18.4 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neut: 14.0 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Bilirubin: 108 mmol (normal range: 3-20)
- ALT: 94 IU/L (normal range: 5-40)
- ALP: 303 IU/L (normal range: 20-140)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, often caused by a stone that has led to a buildup of bile. This condition is characterized by three main symptoms known as Charcot’s triad: jaundice, fever with rigors, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, with some patients also experiencing altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock, known as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis.
In acute cholecystitis, Murphy’s sign is typically positive, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder, while it is negative in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis. The white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated in ascending cholangitis, and jaundice is often present, along with significantly increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and bilirubin.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, on the other hand, presents gradually with symptoms such as fatigue, loss of appetite, jaundice, and an enlarged liver. It often involves features of portal hypertension.
Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare type of cancer that originates from the biliary epithelium. It typically manifests as painless jaundice and itching.
To differentiate between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following summarizes their key characteristics:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
– Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevatedAscending cholangitis:
– Pain duration: Variable
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated
– Bilirubin: Elevated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 27
Correct
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You evaluate a 56-year-old individual who arrives at the ER complaining of chest discomfort and increasing swelling. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that they underwent an echocardiogram a year ago, which revealed moderate-severe tricuspid regurgitation. Which of the following heart murmurs is commonly associated with tricuspid regurgitation?
Your Answer: Low-frequency pansystolic murmur
Explanation:Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur that spans the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best audible at the lower left sternal edge and has a low frequency. Interestingly, the intensity of the murmur increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, a phenomenon referred to as Carvallo’s sign.
Further Reading:
Tricuspid regurgitation (TR) is a condition where blood flows backwards through the tricuspid valve in the heart. It is classified as either primary or secondary, with primary TR being caused by abnormalities in the tricuspid valve itself and secondary TR being the result of other conditions outside of the valve. Mild TR is common, especially in young adults, and often does not cause symptoms. However, severe TR can lead to right-sided heart failure and the development of symptoms such as ascites, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.
The causes of TR can vary. Primary TR can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease, myxomatous valve disease, or Ebstein anomaly. Secondary TR is often the result of right ventricular dilatation due to left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension. Other causes include endocarditis, traumatic chest injury, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, myocardial disease, left to right shunts, and carcinoid heart disease. In some cases, TR can occur as a result of infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers.
Clinical features of TR can include a pansystolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge, Carvallo’s sign (murmur increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), an S3 heart sound, and the presence of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation. Other signs can include giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often pulsatile), and edema with lung crepitations or pleural effusions.
The management of TR depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. In severe cases, valve repair or replacement surgery may be necessary. Treatment may also involve addressing the underlying conditions contributing to TR, such as managing left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 4 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the patient had a slight fever and a runny nose for 2 days before they observed a barking cough. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup, a condition characterized by a barking cough in infants. To address this, oral dexamethasone is administered at a dosage of 0.15mg/kg. In cases of severe croup, nebulized adrenaline is utilized.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an unintentional ingestion of amitriptyline tablets. Which toxidrome is commonly associated with an overdose of amitriptyline?
Your Answer: Cholinergic
Correct Answer: Anticholinergic
Explanation:An overdose of Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, leads to a toxic effect known as anticholinergic toxidrome. This occurs when the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are blocked, causing the characteristic signs and symptoms associated with this condition.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32 year old male with a previous diagnosis of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of amitriptyline tablets. When would it be appropriate to start administering sodium bicarbonate?
Your Answer: QRS > 100ms on ECG
Explanation:Prolonged QRS duration is associated with an increased risk of seizures and arrhythmia. Therefore, when QRS prolongation is observed, it is recommended to consider initiating treatment with sodium bicarbonate.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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