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Question 1
Incorrect
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You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for a haulage company. A few weeks ago, he was involved in an accident that caused a severe eye injury, and he has now been informed that he will never regain any vision in his left eye. He is curious about his eligibility to hold a Group 2 drivers licence. What is the DVLA's advice on holding a Group 2 licence after experiencing permanent vision loss in one eye?
Your Answer: He can resume driving after 12 months as long as his uncorrected visual acuity in the other eye is at least 3/60
Correct Answer: He cannot hold a Group 2 licence
Explanation:Group 2 Licence Requirements for Vision
Applicants for a Group 2 licence must meet certain vision requirements. Specifically, they must have at least corrected acuity of 3/60 in both eyes and no complete loss of vision in either eye. If an applicant has a complete loss of vision in one eye or corrected acuity of less than 3/60 in one eye, they are legally barred from holding a Group 2 licence. It is important for applicants to understand these requirements before applying for a Group 2 licence to ensure they meet the necessary criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.
What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer: 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic
Explanation:Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.
For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during a fall while on vacation in Italy. The fracture clinic diagnosed her with a fragility fracture and advised her to see her GP in the UK for bone protection. She has no family history of hip fracture or osteoporosis, is a non-smoker, and doesn't drink alcohol. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she has no other significant medical issues.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:As per the current NICE CKS guidance, individuals who are above 50 years of age and have a previous fragility fracture should be referred for a DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density (BMD). It is not necessary to calculate their QFracture risk or FRAX score before arranging the scan. Even if their QFracture risk is low, they are still at risk due to their history of fragility fracture. For patients over 75 years of age who have had a fragility fracture, treatment (oral bisphosphonates as first line) should be initiated immediately without the need for a DEXA scan. However, it is important to note that this differs from the NOGG guidelines 2014, which recommend treatment for all women over 50 years who have had a fragility fracture.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal credit. She used to work as a teacher but has been unemployed for the past year.
What is the maximum amount of savings she can have and still qualify for universal credit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: £16,000
Explanation:To be eligible for universal credit, your savings must not exceed £16,000.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and is worried that she may have passed it on to her children. The father of the children doesn't have the disease.
What is the probability that each of her children has inherited the condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition, which implies that the patient has one normal and one faulty copy of the gene. The faulty copy is dominant and causes the disease. If an affected patient has a child, the child has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene and developing the condition, and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal gene and not developing the disease.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Her creatinine was checked on the first day of therapy and found to be 122 μmol/l; after five days her renal function is re-assessed and the creatinine has risen to 142 μmol/l.
Which of the following is the reason for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Trimethoprim-Induced Rise in Serum Creatinine
Trimethoprim, a commonly used antibiotic, can cause a self-limiting and reversible rise in serum creatinine without affecting the true glomerular filtration rate (GFR). This is due to its competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion by the organic cation secretory pump. Other drugs that interfere with creatinine secretion, such as cimetidine, can also cause a similar effect. It is important to note that trimethoprim doesn’t directly affect renal blood flow, sodium and water excretion, or the distal tubular epithelial sodium channel. Understanding the mechanism of this rise in serum creatinine can help clinicians avoid unnecessary concern and prevent misinterpretation of renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past two weeks. She exclusively breastfeeds her 3-month-old daughter and has never had any issues before. The pain is most intense after feeds and can persist for up to 30 minutes. She reports severe pain and itching. During her visit to the clinic, she also requests that you examine her daughter's diaper rash. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miconazole 2% cream for the mother and miconazole oral gel for her infant
Explanation:Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with lip swelling and wheezing following the blowing up of a latex balloon.
During examination, she displays visibly swollen lips and an urticarial rash. Her respiratory rate is 40/min and bilateral wheezing is detected on auscultation.
What is the appropriate course of action for follow-up after initial emergency treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to a specialist allergy clinic
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic for proper management. In the case of this boy, specialist input and education for his caregivers and school may be necessary. Prescribing a 300 microgram adrenaline injector is not recommended as it is the incorrect dose for his age. Instead, he should be given two 150 microgram adrenaline injectors with appropriate training provided. Referral for patch testing may not be sufficient as more rigorous follow-up is needed after anaphylaxis. Regular antihistamines may be necessary if ongoing symptoms such as urticaria are present, but this is not indicated in the question.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days. She has been working very hard in preparation for a school inspection due next week. She got married eight months ago and denies any problems at home. She is looking forward to a planned trip to Italy in two months time.
She has been fit and well up to this point with no personal or family history of mental health problems. Her only medication is Microgynon 30. She has several good friends who have noticed that she is not herself and who wonder if she is depressed. She has taken to drinking half a bottle of wine every night while working late.
After fully assessing her, what is likely to be the best way to approach her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: General advice and active monitoring
Explanation:Management of Subthreshold Depressive Symptoms
This patient is currently experiencing subthreshold depressive symptoms that have lasted for less than two weeks. The cause of her symptoms is likely due to a stressful period at work, which is expected to end soon. Fortunately, she has a strong support network. According to NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), medication is not recommended at this stage. Instead, CBT should be considered for persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms. St John’s wort is not recommended due to its interaction with the oral contraceptive pill and lack of evidence of effective dose and variation between preparations. NICE has suggested that short term dynamic psychotherapy be evaluated in a formal research setting. After a thorough assessment, the patient should be advised on sleep hygiene and reducing alcohol intake. She should also receive written information about depression and be scheduled for a follow-up appointment within two weeks at most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to your GP practice 8 months after receiving the subdermal contraceptive implant (Nexplanon). She experienced light irregular bleeding for the first six months of implant use, but has since noticed a change in her bleeding pattern. She now experiences vaginal bleeding almost every day for the past two months. She denies any pain, dyspareunia, or change in vaginal discharge. She has not experienced any postcoital bleeding. Prior to receiving the implant, she had regular periods with a 28-day cycle and no intermenstrual bleeding. She has had one regular male partner for the past three months, and before that, she had a different regular male partner for six months. Her last normal smear test was three years ago.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical examination of cervix and sexually transmitted infection screen
Explanation:The FSRH advises that women who experience problematic bleeding for more than three months after starting the contraceptive implant should undergo a clinical examination, including a speculum, and be screened for sexually transmitted infections if they are at risk. If a woman is experiencing these symptoms, it is not recommended to repeat her smear test outside of the screening program. Instead, if her cervix appears abnormal, she should be referred for colposcopy.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist
Explanation:NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis
NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone
Explanation:The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode of falling to the ground and becoming unresponsive. She describes becoming stiff and blue before shaking for approximately two minutes, followed by drowsiness for 30 minutes. She has no significant medical history and both an MRI and EEG were normal. What recommendations should be made regarding her ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving for 6 months and inform the DVLA
Explanation:After experiencing a first unprovoked or isolated seizure with normal brain imaging and EEG, patients are not allowed to drive for a period of 6 months. It is their responsibility to inform the DVLA and they may reapply for a license after the 6-month period if no further seizures occur. The incorrect options include stopping driving for one year and informing the DVLA, stopping driving until established on anti-epileptic medication, and stopping driving for 6 months and informing the DVLA only in the event of any further seizures.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.
It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function
Explanation:Carbimazole and Infection Risk
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.
If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with flashing lights in his right eye followed by a curtain descending across his vision.
Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be a sign of malignant melanoma
Explanation:Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. It occurs when the retina, the thin layer of tissue at the back of the eye responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain, separates from its underlying support tissue. Here are some important facts about retinal detachment:
Causes: Retinal detachment can result from a variety of factors, including a posterior vitreous detachment, myopia, severe acute hypertension, inflammation, or neoplastic effusions.
Symptoms: Symptoms of retinal detachment include sudden onset of floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain-like shadow over the visual field. However, some patients may not experience any symptoms at all.
Treatment: Retinal tears and holes are treated with cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation. Most actual detachments require surgery to flatten the retina. Patients who do not have immediate surgery may have strict bedrest and to hold the head in a particular position to prevent progression of the detachment. The retina is successfully reattached in around 85% of cases. In cases where the macula is not involved, 90% of patients have 20/40 vision or better after reattachment surgery.
Understanding Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35 years old soccer player injures his knee while pivoting. He is brought to the emergency department and reports hearing a 'pop' sound and is unable to put weight on the affected knee. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the affected knee is also swollen.
What diagnostic test can aid in the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thessaly's test
Explanation:Meniscal Tear: Causes and Symptoms
A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. The symptoms of a meniscal tear include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases of displaced tears. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by a doctor, indicates pain on twisting the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.1
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor
Explanation:If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.
Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.
If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.
Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias
Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.
To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.
If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She is currently using condoms and doesn't want to risk pregnancy. She smokes 8 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 27 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 115/62 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, ischaemic heart disease, strokes or migraines. Olivia has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and is on day 4 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe a progesterone only pill. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today and she doesn't need to use extra protection
Explanation:Rachel began taking the progesterone only pill during the fourth day of her menstrual cycle, which means she will have instant protection since it was before the fifth day of her cycle.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with acute tonsillitis.
She has been feeling unwell for the past five days with a high fever and a sore throat. Upon examination, you notice marked tonsillar exudate bilaterally and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Given her condition, you believe that antibiotic treatment is necessary. However, her medical notes indicate a previous penicillin allergy. What would be an appropriate antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Penicillin V remains the preferred antibiotic for treating sore throat due to its effectiveness, affordability, safety, and narrow spectrum. This helps prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. However, individuals who are allergic to penicillin should take either erythromycin or clarithromycin for five days. The clinical knowledge summaries website provides evidence-based recommendations for antibiotic selection, drawing from guidance from SIGN, Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health, and Public Health England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment of hypertension reduces the risk of coronary heart disease by approximately 20%.
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension: Prevalence, Types, and Treatment
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that affects both men and women, with its prevalence increasing with age. Essential hypertension, which has no identifiable cause, is the most common type of hypertension, affecting 95% of hypertensive patients. However, indications for further evaluation include resistant hypertension and early, late, or rapid onset of high blood pressure.
Reducing blood pressure by an average of 12/6 mm Hg can significantly reduce the risk of stroke and coronary heart disease. Salt restriction, alcohol reduction, smoking cessation, aerobic exercise, and weight loss can also help reduce blood pressure by 3-5 mmHg, comparable to some drug treatments.
In severe cases, hypertension can lead to target organ damage, resulting in a hypertensive emergency. Malignant hypertension, which is diagnosed when papilloedema is present, can cause symptoms such as severe headache, visual disturbance, dyspnoea, chest pain, nausea, and neurological deficit.
Understanding hypertension and its types is crucial in managing and treating this condition. By implementing lifestyle changes and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals can reduce their risk of hypertension-related complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a DVT two months ago and has been taking warfarin, with his most recent INR test two days ago showing a result of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A urine culture comes back negative. What is the probable cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma
Explanation:Consideration of Occult Neoplasia in a Patient with Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT
This patient is presenting with unexplained haematuria and has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. The most likely diagnoses in this case are bladder cancer or renal carcinoma, as it is uncommon for prostate cancer to present with haematuria.
It is important to note that warfarin alone is an unlikely cause of the haematuria, as the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) is within the target range. Further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the haematuria and to rule out any potential neoplastic processes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications and improving the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.
Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.
Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.
Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.
Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.
Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of abdominal cramps, bloating and diarrhoea. She has recently returned from a trip to Asia, where she consumed food from various street vendors. Upon examination, her temperature is normal. Analysis of three stool samples reveals cysts, and she responds well to a course of metronidazole. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Possible Causes of a Patient’s Abdominal Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
The patient presents with abdominal symptoms including cramps, bloating, and diarrhea. The following are possible causes of these symptoms:
1. Giardiasis: Caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia lamblia, transmitted by poor hygiene, and often associated with travel to areas with poor sanitation. Symptoms include diarrhea, flatulence, cramps, bloating, and nausea. Treatment is with metronidazole.
2. Typhoid fever: Caused by Salmonella typhi, often associated with travel to India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. Symptoms include fever, but not present in this case.
3. Cryptosporidiosis: A parasite infection often causing sudden onset of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. Can be foodborne, waterborne, or transmitted through direct contact with livestock or infected people. Self-limiting, but may require treatment with metronidazole.
4. Salmonella enteritidis infection: The most common cause of salmonella gastroenteritis, often associated with contaminated food or poor hygiene. Symptoms include fever, which is not reported in this case.
5. Tapeworm infection: Caused by ingestion of uncooked or undercooked meat/fish containing tapeworm larvae. Symptoms vary depending on the type of tapeworm and may include abdominal discomfort, weight loss, and abnormal LFTs. Eggs may be found on stool examination, not cysts as in this case.
Overall, giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis are the most likely diagnoses given the patient’s symptoms and travel history. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).
He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.
How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 months
Explanation:Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs
Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin
Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.
St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.
Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.
In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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