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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent pneumothoraces. He is tall, has pes planus, and exhibits increased arm-span-to-height and upper-to-lower-segment body ratios. What additional feature would be most useful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Joint hypermobility

      Correct Answer: Early diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. There are two major diagnostic criteria for Marfan syndrome: aortic-root dilatation and ectopia lentis. However, there are also several clinical features that may indicate the presence of the syndrome.

      One such feature is an early diastolic murmur, which can be caused by aortic-valve incompetence and may indicate aortic-root dilatation. Another feature is a mid-systolic click, which is most likely the result of a mitral valve prolapse. Arachnodactyly and joint hypermobility are also features of Marfan syndrome, but they are considered minor criteria. A high-arched palate is another clinical feature of the syndrome.

      It is important to note that while these features may suggest the presence of Marfan syndrome, a proper diagnosis can only be made through genetic testing and evaluation by a medical professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      67.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She has not had a period in the past year and understands that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      Which HRT option would be the safest for this patient in terms of her VTE risk?

      Your Answer: Oral HRT – combined cyclical

      Correct Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      1.7
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for his treatment-resistant schizophrenia. As he has not responded to conventional antipsychotic drugs in the past, he started taking clozapine last week. As his primary care physician, what additional monitoring should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer: Full blood count every 6 months for as long as she is on treatment

      Correct Answer: Full blood count once a week for 18 weeks

      Explanation:

      The need for weekly full blood counts for the first 18 weeks, followed by fortnightly checks for up to a year, and then monthly monitoring is necessary for clozapine due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, the other choices are inaccurate.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      16.8
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  • Question 5 - Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

    Samantha has a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.

      Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.

      During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.

      You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.

      What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?

      Your Answer: Prescribe zopiclone for no more than 7 days

      Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.

      It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.

      Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      650.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman has a T-score of -2.5 from her dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has a T-score of -2.5 from her dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan at the hip. It was performed because she was worried about osteoporosis, as her mother had died following a fractured neck of femur.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplements alone

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis can be diagnosed through a DEXA scan, and if the bone mineral density is 2.5 standard deviations or more below the young adult reference mean, a bisphosphonate such as alendronate or risedronate is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may also be given alongside bisphosphonates. Repeat DEXA scans are not necessary unless the T-score is greater than -2.5. Raloxifene is not typically recommended for primary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures due to the risk of venous thromboembolism. If bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated, specialist referral may be necessary for alternative treatments such as zoledronic acid, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and sometimes raloxifene.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Osteoporosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      31.1
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  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He is currently on a daily steroid inhaler (Clenil - 50 mcg, two puffs twice a day) and uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Inhaled long-acting beta2-agonist

      Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, it is recommended by NICE guidelines to try adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their treatment plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      35.2
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.7
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a hair salon six months ago and has been experiencing an increasing cough and wheeze during the day. She wonders if it could be related to her work as her symptoms improved during a recent two-week vacation to Hawaii. You decide to give her a peak flow meter and the average results are as follows:

      Average peak flow
      Days at work 480 l/min
      Days not at work 600 l/min

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to respiratory

      Explanation:

      Referral to a respiratory specialist is recommended for patients who are suspected to have occupational asthma.

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.

      His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.

      He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.

      Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glibenclamide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas

      This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.

      Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week. She has no other medical conditions. This is her first pregnancy and she is 10-weeks pregnant.

      During the booking appointment, the midwife sent a mid-stream urine sample to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria. The patient denied experiencing any urinary symptoms. The culture results showed that she is positive for Escherichia Coli, which is sensitive to nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. A repeat sample confirmed the findings.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to screen pregnant women for bacteriuria as untreated cases may lead to acute pyelonephritis. Therefore, taking no action based on urine results is inappropriate. Trimethoprim is not recommended in the first trimester due to its teratogenic risk, so nitrofurantoin is a better option. Local prescribing guidelines should always be followed. If group B streptococcal bacteriuria is detected, antenatal services must be informed as prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics will be necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 12 - A 3-year-old girl presents with a 2-day history of right sided limp and...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with a 2-day history of right sided limp and reluctance to weight bear. She has been distressed, excessively sweaty and febrile overnight. She looks unwell and has a temperature of 38.9ºC. She refuses to walk but will lie on the couch to be examined; she is warm to the touch and there is erythema over her right hip. She is distressed when you check the range of movement in the right hip, the left hip examination is unremarkable. Her mother thinks her symptoms started following a fall in the garden 2 days ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, as indicated by the child’s reluctance to bear weight, distress, and fever with sweats. Although the child had a history of injury, this is not a significant factor as falls and accidents are common in toddlers. There is no indication of non-accidental injury, and the mother brought the child in for review due to his sudden illness. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is an unlikely cause of a new onset limp in a previously mobile child, while transient synovitis is uncommon in this age group and typically only causes mild illness.

      Causes of Limping in Children Vary by Age

      When a child is limping, the cause can vary depending on their age. For younger children, transient synovitis is a common cause. This condition has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections, but the child is usually well or has a mild fever. It is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis is a more serious condition that causes a high fever and an unwell child.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis can also cause a limp, which may be painless. Trauma is usually the cause of a limp in children, and the history of the injury can often diagnose the issue. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease is more common in children aged 4-8 years and is caused by avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that occurs in children aged 10-15 years and is caused by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. Understanding the potential causes of a limp in children can help parents and healthcare providers identify and treat the issue promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She underwent a private DEXA scan after her sister was diagnosed with osteoporosis and the results showed a T-score of -1.9 for the femoral neck. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings. What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do a FRAX assessment

      Explanation:

      To accurately evaluate the fracture risk of this woman, the FRAX assessment is necessary, which includes the crucial element of measuring bone mineral density.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.

      At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.

      Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment

      This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.

      It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic...

    Incorrect

    • For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic indicator of nearing end of life (within 12 months)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia in a patient with motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Clinical Indicators for End-of-Life Care in Various Conditions

      The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance provides specific clinical indicators for various conditions that suggest the patient is approaching the end of life. For motor neurone disease, the indicators include marked rapid decline in physical status, first episode of aspiration pneumonia, increased cognitive difficulties, weight loss, significant complex symptoms and medical complications, low vital capacity, dyskinesia, mobility problems, falls, and communication difficulties. Lack of improvement three months after a stroke is an indicator for someone with severe paralysis. Wheelchair-bound multiple sclerosis patients may have quite a long life. Frail elderly people with co-morbidities may experience significant weight loss, but it needs to be accompanied by deteriorating function or at least two of weakness, slow walking speed, low physical activity, exhaustion, or depression. For patients with heart failure, repeated hospital admissions carry prognostic significance. These indicators can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate end-of-life care for patients with various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old Asian lady presents to you through her midwife. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Asian lady presents to you through her midwife. She is currently in her second trimester of her first pregnancy and has been found to be anaemic through recent blood tests. Despite being on iron supplements for the past eight weeks, her full blood count has not improved. Upon reviewing her most recent full blood count, the following results were found:
      - Haemoglobin (HB) 94 g/L (115-160)
      - Mean cell volume (MCV) 66.1 fL (80-100)
      - Red blood cell count 5.7 ×1012/L (3.5-5.0)

      What investigations would confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemia Trait and Microcytic Anaemia

      Patients with microcytic anaemia may have beta-thalassaemia trait, also known as beta-thalassaemia minor. This condition is typically mild and well-tolerated, with a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 75. However, the anaemia may worsen during pregnancy. A diagnosis can be confirmed through haemoglobin electrophoresis, which will reveal an increased HbA2. It is important to consider the patient’s ethnicity, as thalassaemia trait is more commonly seen in individuals from the Indian sub-continent, Africa, the Mediterranean, and the far East. Although rare, cases can occur in British Caucasians.

      Other conditions that can cause microcytic anaemia include B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, and haemolytic anaemia, all of which lead to a raised MCV. Serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of myeloma, which is not suggested by the given clinical information. Anaemia with microcytosis should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind. An additional piece of information that can be useful is the red blood cell count. Values less than 5 ×1012/L suggest iron deficiency, whereas values greater than 5 ×1012/L may indicate thalassaemia trait. In this case, the red blood cell count is greater than 5 ×1012/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and receiving percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the appropriate timeframe for him to resume sexual activity after his MI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      After a heart attack, it is safe to resume sexual activity after a period of 4 weeks.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - What statement about cough is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement about cough is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis is usually associated with purulent sputum

      Explanation:

      Cough Characteristics and Associated Conditions

      A bovine cough, resembling the sound of cattle, is often heard in cases of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is commonly caused by lung cancer. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by the production of large amounts of purulent sputum. In women, chronic cough without airways disease is more common, and reflux is often the underlying cause. In cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a productive cough is typical, but it may become non-productive in the end stages of the disease. These distinct cough characteristics can provide valuable clues in diagnosing and managing various respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following prescriptions should not be used during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following prescriptions should not be used during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline for malaria prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should not take any tetracyclines. It is important to note that the aforementioned medications may not be the preferred initial treatments.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 20 - In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral for urgent assessment and intervention the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apex beat 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission Criteria for Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence has provided guidelines for urgent admission of patients with atrial fibrillation. These guidelines recommend urgent admission for patients who exhibit a rapid pulse greater than 150 bpm and/or low blood pressure with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg. Additionally, urgent admission is recommended for patients who experience loss of consciousness, severe dizziness, ongoing chest pain, or increasing breathlessness. Patients who have experienced a complication of atrial fibrillation, such as stroke, transient ischaemic attack, or acute heart failure, should also be urgently admitted. While other symptoms may warrant a referral, these criteria indicate the need for immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. He was at home four days ago when he experienced slurred speech and weakness in his right arm. His wife noticed that his face appeared droopy on one side and he had difficulty raising his right arm. The episode lasted for about 90 minutes before resolving on its own. His wife ignored it, but his son insisted that they bring him to the clinic. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, he is in sinus rhythm at 70 bpm, and there are no focal neurological findings. He takes aspirin 75 mg daily. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue aspirin 75 mg OD and as symptoms have fully resolved arrange follow-up at the practice in one week to optimise her blood pressure control

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance for Assessing Patients with TIA

      Some healthcare professionals may still be using the old ABCD2 scoring system for assessing patients with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). However, updated guidance advises that if a patient has had a TIA within the last week, they should be given 300 mg aspirin immediately and urgently assessed by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours. Exceptions include patients with bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. Patients taking low-dose aspirin regularly should continue their current dose until reviewed by a specialist, while those for whom aspirin is contraindicated should have their management discussed urgently with the specialist team.

      To aid in rapid assessment, the Face Arm Speech Test (FAST test) can be used. This test is positive if the patient exhibits new facial weakness (such as drooping of the mouth or eye), arm weakness, or speech difficulty (such as slurring or difficulty in finding names for commonplace objects). Proper assessment and management of patients with TIA can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new job. He has no complaints, and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are ordered, and all the results are normal except for:

      Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)

      After reading about gout online, the patient is concerned about his risk. What treatment should be started based on this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE doesn’t recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia to prevent gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. Primary prevention of gout in such cases has been found to be neither cost-effective nor beneficial to patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed are only indicated for the treatment of gout when symptoms are present.

      Understanding Hyperuricaemia

      Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.

      There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.

      It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orf

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease

      Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.

      Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

      In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 25 - A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both nostrils. She has prominent Little’s area vessels on both sides of her nasal septum. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unilateral nasal cautery and antibiotic cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epistaxis (Nosebleeds)

      Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be a common occurrence and can often be managed with simple interventions. Here are some treatment options:

      Unilateral Nasal Cautery and Antibiotic Cream
      Chemical cautery using a silver nitrate stick can be used to produce local chemical damage in the mucosa. After cautery, Naseptin® cream should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for ten days. This treatment option is effective for most cases of epistaxis.

      Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Referral
      Referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist should be considered if the person has recurrent episodes of epistaxis and is at high risk of having a serious underlying cause.

      Anterior Nasal Packing
      If bleeding continues despite cautery or if a bleeding point cannot be seen, the nose can be packed with nasal sponges or ribbon gauze.

      Bilateral Nasal Cautery
      Only one side of the septum should be cauterized, as there is a small risk of septal perforation resulting from decreased vascularization to the septal cartilage. A 4–6-week interval between cautery treatments is recommended.

      Iron Tablets
      Iron tablets are not appropriate without a diagnosis of anemia.

      Managing Epistaxis: Treatment Options to Consider

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 26 - A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born to a mother who has a history of chronic hepatitis B. The mother's recent test results indicate:

      HBsAg Positive
      HBeAg Positive

      What is the best approach to decrease the rate of vertical transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a woman is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, her baby should receive a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Studies are currently being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the transmission rates of hepatitis B from mother to baby. It is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. Therefore, mothers with hepatitis B can safely breastfeed their babies without fear of transmission.

      Overall, screening for hepatitis B during pregnancy and taking appropriate preventative measures can greatly reduce the risk of transmission from mother to baby. It is important for healthcare providers to educate pregnant women about the importance of screening and prevention to ensure the health and safety of both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) after learning that his previous partner has been diagnosed with AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome). Their last sexual encounter was two years ago, and he is currently in good health with no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer him testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody

      Explanation:

      The standard diagnostic and screening test for HIV now includes a combination of HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody testing. Therefore, the correct option is to offer the patient testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. Monitoring for those with confirmed HIV infection involves measuring CD4 lymphocyte cell count and viral load, which is not applicable in this case as the patient doesn’t have a confirmed diagnosis. A full blood count may show features suggesting HIV, but it is not a diagnostic test for HIV. NICE recommends offering an HIV test in primary care to those who request testing, have risk factors for HIV, have another sexually transmitted infection, have an AIDS-defining condition, an indicator condition, or clinical features of HIV infection. Therefore, offering the patient testing for a full blood count or stating that testing is not required as he is asymptomatic are incorrect options.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements regarding the Statement of Fitness for Work...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the Statement of Fitness for Work is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The advice you offer on returning to work may be ignored by employers

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 29 - You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on detection rates for the disease among teenagers at the clinic.

      The research is designed to look merely at detection rates, not the effectiveness of treatment.

      Which of the following is true with respect to rules around ethical approval and consent for this project?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should have a clear publication plan at the outset of your study

      Explanation:

      Importance of a Clear Publication Plan for Clinical Studies

      A clear publication plan is essential for any clinical study. The study should be worthy of publication in some form, whether it is a local CCG journal or a peer-reviewed international publication. The research should provide learning outcomes that can improve clinical practice, and without publication, wider dissemination is impossible.

      It is crucial to ensure that all staff involved in the study are aware of good medical practice, and patients should be provided with an information leaflet about the study. If the study is conducted in multiple areas, MREC approval means that the study can proceed without a separate full LREC application.

      In summary, having a clear publication plan is crucial for any clinical study to ensure that the research findings are disseminated widely and can contribute to improving clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which of the following treatments is recognized to be detrimental to the growth of the fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Women using oral or topical isotretinoin must take effective contraception as both forms are highly prohibited during pregnancy.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed