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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman is undergoing left kidney donation surgery for her sister. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is undergoing left kidney donation surgery for her sister. During the procedure, which structure will be located most anteriorly at the hilum of the left kidney?

      Your Answer: Left renal artery

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The anterior position is occupied by the renal veins, while the artery and ureter are located posteriorly.

      Anatomy of the Renal Arteries

      The renal arteries are blood vessels that supply the kidneys with oxygenated blood. They are direct branches off the aorta and enter the kidney at the hilum. The right renal artery is longer than the left renal artery. The renal vein, artery, and pelvis also enter the kidney at the hilum.

      The right renal artery is related to the inferior vena cava, right renal vein, head of the pancreas, and descending part of the duodenum. On the other hand, the left renal artery is related to the left renal vein and tail of the pancreas.

      In some cases, there may be accessory arteries, mainly on the left side. These arteries usually pierce the upper or lower part of the kidney instead of entering at the hilum.

      Before reaching the hilum, each renal artery divides into four or five segmental branches that supply each pyramid and cortex. These segmental branches then divide within the sinus into lobar arteries. Each vessel also gives off small inferior suprarenal branches to the suprarenal gland, ureter, and surrounding tissue and muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass anterior to the lateral malleolus?

      Your Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      The lateral malleolus is located posterior to the path of the peroneus brevis.

      Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus

      The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.

      On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.

      Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.

      Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with left leg pain and is unable to bear weight. Upon examination, her left leg is shortened and externally rotated. An x-ray is conducted in the emergency department, revealing an intracapsular fracture of the left neck of femur. The medical team reviews the imaging and expresses concern about osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

      Which artery's damage is the most concerning in this case?

      Your Answer: Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is the primary supplier of blood to the femoral head. This artery wraps around the back of the femur to provide blood to the neck and head of the femur. In cases of femoral neck fractures, damage to this artery can occur, leading to a disruption of blood supply and resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

      The deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris, is a branch of the femoral artery that supplies the deep tissues of the thigh. It branches into the lateral and medial femoral circumflex arteries and the perforating arteries, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The femoral artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the lower limb, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The lateral femoral circumflex artery wraps around the front and side of the femur to supply the femoral neck and musculature on the lateral aspect of the thigh. While it does provide some blood supply to the femoral head, it is not the primary supplier and is therefore not the correct answer.

      The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus and supplies the knee, lower leg, and foot. It is not directly involved in the blood supply to the femoral head and is therefore not the correct answer.

      Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply

      The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.

      The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is not found in the deep posterior compartment of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not found in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial artery

      Correct Answer: Sural nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep posterior compartment is located in front of the soleus muscle, and the sural nerve is not enclosed within it due to its superficial position.

      Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb

      The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.

      The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.

      The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.

      Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.

      Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man is invited by his family physician to participate in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is invited by his family physician to participate in a research study on colorectal cancer. The study involves a procedure called flexible sigmoidoscopy, where a small camera is inserted into the anus to examine the last part of the intestine for any abnormalities known as polyps. The purpose of the study is to prevent the progression of polyps to colorectal cancer. Participants who accept the invitation will be followed up by the researchers, along with a group of individuals who were not selected to receive the procedure. The researchers will compare the proportion of cancer cases in both groups. What type of research study is being described here?

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional study

      Correct Answer: Randomised controlled study

      Explanation:

      1. A prospective cohort study involves two groups of individuals, one exposed to a risk factor and the other not exposed, to measure the incidence of an outcome and understand the effect of the risk factor. Researchers must control for confounding factors that may also have a relationship with both the risk factor and the outcome.

      2. A randomized controlled study is advantageous because the two randomized groups are similar in all aspects except for the intervention being given, minimizing confounding factors. This makes it a better option than a prospective cohort study.

      3. A cross-sectional study measures the prevalence of a disease or condition in a population at a specific point in time.

      4. In a case-control study, researchers compare two groups of individuals with a disease to identify past risk factors. However, this study is subject to recall bias as participants rely on their memory of past exposures, reducing data accuracy.

      5. A case study describes a single case, such as a clinical case or a specific group or situation of interest to researchers, that has not been extensively studied before. For example, a doctor may write a case study about an atypical presentation of myocardial infarction, including how the case evolved and how the diagnosis was made.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). During an...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). During an MDT meeting, it was decided that her first-line treatment will involve chemotherapy. The chosen drug is an antimetabolite that acts as a pyrimidine antagonist, inhibiting DNA polymerase and interfering with DNA synthesis.

      What chemotherapy drug is most likely being prescribed based on the above mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Cytarabine

      Explanation:

      Cytarabine is a medication used in chemotherapy to treat acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). It works by interfering with DNA synthesis during the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibiting DNA polymerase.

      Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which prevents the production of uric acid. It is commonly used to treat gout, but can also be used to prevent hyperuricaemia in high-grade lymphoma and leukaemia before chemotherapy treatment.

      Methotrexate works by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis. It is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and various types of cancer.

      Ondansetron is an anti-emetic medication that is used to prevent nausea during chemotherapy treatment. It works by selectively blocking serotonin receptors (5-HT3) in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) of the medulla.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A resident working in geriatrics has designed a research study.

    The null hypothesis of...

    Incorrect

    • A resident working in geriatrics has designed a research study.

      The null hypothesis of the study (H0) is that there is no difference in the mean age of patients with dementia who receive a new medication versus those who receive a placebo. The alternative hypothesis (Ha) is that there is a difference in the average age. There are 200 patients recruited to the trial with 100 in the treatment arm and 100 in the control arm.

      The doctor running the study sets a significance level (alpha) of 5%. Upon completion of the trial, the P-value for the study is computed (0.03). A value of beta is calculated as 10%. The power of the study was calculated to be 90%. A 95% confidence interval is also calculated.

      What is the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one actually observed, assuming the null hypothesis was true?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence of epididymis, seminal vesicles, and ductus deferens. What is the typical embryonic structure that develops into these organs?

      Your Answer: Paramesonephric duct

      Correct Answer: Mesonephric duct

      Explanation:

      The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct, while it regresses in females. The allantois regresses and forms the urachus. The pharyngeal arches give rise to the structures of the head and neck. The internal female reproductive structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct. The kidney is formed from the ureteric bud.

      Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals

      During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.

      In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.

      In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a malodorous discharge from her left ear for the last 2 weeks. She also reports experiencing some hearing loss in her left ear and suspects it may be due to earwax. However, upon examination, there is no earwax present but instead a crust on the lower portion of the tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge and deafness, it is important to consider the possibility of a cholesteatoma. If this is suspected during examination, it is necessary to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.

      Pain is a common symptom of otitis media, while otitis externa typically causes inflammation and swelling of the ear canal. Impacted wax can lead to deafness, but it is unlikely to cause a discharge with a foul odor. It is also improbable for a woman of 45 years to have a foreign object in her ear for three weeks.

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/3) 33%
General Principles (1/4) 25%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
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