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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick examination, the results show:
      Blood ++++
      Nitrites POS
      Leucocytes +++
      Protein ++
      Further urine culture reveals a Proteus infection, while an x-ray confirms the presence of a stag-horn calculus in the left renal pelvis. What is the probable composition of the renal stone?

      Your Answer: Xanthine

      Correct Answer: Struvite

      Explanation:

      Stag-horn calculi consist of struvite and develop in urine with high alkalinity, which is often caused by the presence of ammonia-producing bacteria.

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - In 2015, NICE released guidelines on preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in hospitalized patients....

    Correct

    • In 2015, NICE released guidelines on preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in hospitalized patients. What would be considered a risk factor for VTE according to these guidelines?

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.

      There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.

      In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.

      Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.

      Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man is brought in after a fall from a ladder resulting...

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    • A 65-year-old man is brought in after a fall from a ladder resulting in head injury. He experienced a brief loss of consciousness for five minutes. The patient has a metallic mitral valve and is currently taking warfarin. On examination, he has a significant swelling over his forehead, but no other injuries are detected. His Glasgow coma scale shows eyes 4, movement 5, verbal 5, and all other vital signs are within normal limits. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      Head Injury in Warfarin Patients

      According to the NICE guidelines on Head injury (CG176), patients who are taking warfarin and have a history of loss of consciousness should undergo a CT head scan. It is important to note that administering Vitamin K may not be necessary if there is no intracranial bleed, as it takes time to work. A skull x-ray may only identify obvious fractures and not intracerebral bleeds in the absence of fractures, which are common in these situations.

      If a bleed is confirmed, stopping warfarin and starting intravenous heparin may be appropriate. However, this decision should be made jointly with the neurosurgeons and cardiologists. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for patients with head injuries who are taking warfarin.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of increasing blood...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of increasing blood in his urine over the past two weeks. He denies any pain or difficulty while urinating but reports feeling fatigued and possibly losing some weight over the last few months. He has a history of smoking with a 48 pack-year history. On examination, he has a heart rate of 70 bpm, blood pressure of 155/78 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, and a temperature of 37.0ºC. There is tenderness in the left renal angle, and a palpable mass is felt on the left side. His abdomen is soft without anterior tenderness. Digital rectal exam reveals a non-enlarged and non-tender prostate. The urine dip results show leucocytes ++, blood +++, protein +, nitrites negative, glucose trace, and ketones negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Frank haematuria can be caused by various conditions, including cancer, stones, and infection. However, in this case, the absence of lower urinary tract symptoms and pain makes infection or stones less likely. The patient’s constitutional symptoms and absence of sepsis signs suggest an underlying malignancy. Additionally, the absence of nitrites on the dip test rules out a urinary tract infection. The presence of a ballotable mass and renal angle tenderness is more indicative of renal cell carcinoma than bladder tumour.

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - As a member of the surgical team, you come across a patient who...

    Correct

    • As a member of the surgical team, you come across a patient who is a 32-year-old male diagnosed with pigmented gallstones. In which condition is this frequently observed?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell anaemia

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease is linked to the formation of pigmented gallstones.

      The increased breakdown of red blood cells in sickle cell disease leads to the development of pigmented gallstones. These types of gallstones are mainly composed of bilirubin and are commonly seen in individuals with hemolytic anemia and liver cirrhosis. Fanconi anemia and myelodysplastic syndrome are both forms of anemia caused by a decrease in hemoglobin production, rather than increased hemolysis. On the other hand, pancreatitis and glomerulonephritis are not associated with the formation of pigmented gallstones.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her right upper quadrant and vomiting. Upon examination, she is found to be pyrexial and has tenderness and peritonism in the right upper quadrant. There is more pain during inspiration on subcostal pressure in the right upper quadrant than in the left. Her bilirubin level is 9 mol/L (normal range: 1-22), amylase level is 50 U/L (normal range: 50-130), hemoglobin level is 128 g/L (normal range: 115-165), platelet count is 172 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), and white cell count is 15 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      Manifestations of Gallstone Disease

      All options for gallstone disease can be seen in different manifestations. However, the combination of pyrexia, an elevated white cell count, and local peritonism (Murphy’s sign) is a classic symptom of acute cholecystitis. Pancreatitis can be eliminated with normal amylase levels, while jaundice and cholangitis (which are usually associated with fever and tenderness: Charcot’s triad) can be ruled out with normal bilirubin levels. Biliary colic, on the other hand, would not exhibit peritonism and an elevated white cell count. It is important to note that these symptoms can help in the diagnosis and treatment of gallstone disease.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in his left testis for the past week. He is sexually active and has had multiple partners of both genders in the last year. During the examination, the doctor finds that the left testis is tender and swollen, but the patient has no fever. The doctor takes urethral swabs to determine the most probable causative organism.

      What is the likely pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of acute epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young adults. This patient’s symptoms and signs are consistent with epididymo-orchitis, and the timing suggests this diagnosis over testicular torsion. While mumps can also cause epididymo-orchitis, it is less common and not supported by the absence of other symptoms. In men over 35 years old, E. coli is the most common cause, but given this patient’s age and sexual history, chlamydia is the most likely culprit. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the second most common cause in this age group.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man presents to his doctor with a 5-month history of frequent...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his doctor with a 5-month history of frequent urination, urgency, and weak stream. Upon urinalysis, blood is detected. Following a multiparametric MRI, it is confirmed that the patient has prostate cancer. To treat his condition, he is prescribed the GnRH agonist goserelin and the anti-androgen cyproterone acetate. The patient is advised on the importance of taking cyproterone acetate. What is the purpose of cyproterone acetate in this treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Prevent paradoxical increase in symptoms with GnRH agonists

      Explanation:

      GnRH agonists used in the treatment of prostate cancer may lead to a ‘tumour flare’ when initiated, resulting in symptoms such as bone pain and bladder obstruction. To prevent this paradoxical increase in symptoms, anti-androgens are used. GnRH agonists initially cause an increase in luteinizing hormone secretion, which stimulates the production of testosterone by Leydig cells in the testicles. Testosterone promotes the growth and survival of prostate cancer cells, leading to an increase in symptoms. Anti-androgens work by blocking androgen receptors, preventing testosterone from binding to them and suppressing luteinizing hormone secretion, thereby reducing testosterone levels and preventing ‘tumour flare’. Anti-androgens do not directly affect tumour growth rate.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains...

    Correct

    • You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains of a lump in the middle of his abdomen. On examination, you note a mass arising from the site of surgical incision, which is reducible and reproducible when the patient coughs.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of an incisional hernia?

      Your Answer: Wound infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Incisional Hernia Development

      An infected wound can increase the risk of developing an incisional hernia due to poor wound healing and susceptibility to abdominal content herniation. Increasing age is also a risk factor, likely due to delayed wound healing and reduced collagen synthesis. However, being tall and thin does not increase the risk, while obesity can increase abdominal pressure and lead to herniation. A sedentary lifestyle does not appear to be associated with incisional hernias, but smoking and nutritional deficiencies can increase the risk. Post-operative vomiting, not nausea alone, can cause episodic increases in abdominal pressure and increase the risk of herniation. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the development of incisional hernias.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain that started suddenly 10 hours ago. The pain is at its worst 15 minutes after onset and radiates to her back. She finds some relief by sitting forward. She has also experienced nausea and vomiting but denies any diarrhea or fever. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 4 years and drinks one glass of wine per day but denies any recreational drug use. On examination, she appears unwell, has a pulse rate of 110/min, and is tender in the epigastric region. She has a history of biliary colic but no significant past medical history or previous surgery. What diagnostic test is most likely to yield a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis, likely caused by gallstones, can be diagnosed by checking for an elevation of more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in a serum lipase test. While chest and abdominal x-rays are not useful for diagnosing pancreatitis, they can help rule out other potential causes of abdominal pain and detect complications of pancreatitis. Full blood examination, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests do not directly aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis but can help assess the severity of the disease or provide clues to its cause. Initial investigations to determine the cause may include an abdominal ultrasound, calcium level, and lipid profile.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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      • Surgery
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