00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Mrs Chen is a 55-year-old female involved in a high speed motor vehicle...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Chen is a 55-year-old female involved in a high speed motor vehicle accident. After controlling her cervical spine with tapes, blocks and a collar, you note that her breathing is laboured and there is significant stridor. She has multiple bruises over her face, bilateral periorbital ecchymosis and Battle's sign. She also has significant nose, mouth and jaw injuries and bleeding and when you attempt to intubate, you are unable to get a clear view of the cords due to the distorted anatomy.
      Which of the following is the next best step to ventilate the patient?

      Your Answer: Proceed to fibre-optic guided intubation

      Correct Answer: Perform an emergency cricothyroidotomy

      Explanation:

      Managing a Difficult Airway in a Trauma Scenario

      In a trauma scenario, managing a difficult airway is crucial and should follow the ATLS guidelines. If intubation fails, a cricothyroidotomy performed by an experienced person is often the best choice. A needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation can be used as a temporizing measure, but it is not a viable mode of ventilation. An emergency cricothyroidotomy with the insertion of an endotracheal tube or a small cuffed tracheostomy tube is a better option.

      A percutaneous tracheostomy is only performed in an elective setting with a sterile field and prior airway control. A nasopharyngeal airway would be contraindicated in a suspected basal skull fracture case. Fibreoptic-guided intubation is only indicated in an elective setting for a difficult airway. Blind insertion of an endotracheal tube with a bougie should never be attempted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from his bike. He suffers an injury to his left shoulder that results in bruising. The left side of his neck and left shoulder are tender and painful. Upon examination of his left upper limb, there is a loss of external rotation and abduction at the shoulder, as well as a loss of flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Cutaneous sensation testing reveals numbness on the lateral aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand. What is the most likely neurological structure that has been damaged?

      Your Answer: Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Upper Trunk Brachial Plexus Injuries and Differential Diagnosis

      Upper trunk brachial plexus injuries, such as Erb’s palsy, result from damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots. This can cause a range of symptoms, including loss of motor function in muscles such as the deltoid, biceps brachii, and supinator, as well as sensory loss in areas such as the lateral aspect of the upper arm and forearm.

      It’s important to differentiate upper trunk brachial plexus injuries from other nerve injuries, such as those affecting the musculocutaneous nerve, axillary nerve, C7 nerve root, and T1 nerve root. Each of these injuries will produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, such as weakness in elbow flexion and supination for musculocutaneous nerve injuries, or loss of sensation over the middle finger for C7 nerve root injuries.

      By understanding the specific functions of each nerve root and the muscles and areas they innervate, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat upper trunk brachial plexus injuries and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting...

    Correct

    • A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting her head hard on the floor. She admits that she had no breakfast prior to attending dissection, and a well-meaning technician gives her a piece of chocolate. She complains that the chocolate tastes funny and vomits afterwards. Formal neurological assessment reveals anosmia, and computerised tomography (CT) of the head and neck reveals an anterior base of skull fracture affecting the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
      What is the level of interruption to the olfactory pathway likely to be in a nursing student?

      Your Answer: The first-order sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The Olfactory Pathway: Neuronal Path and Potential Disruptions

      The olfactory pathway is responsible for our sense of smell and is composed of several neuronal structures. The first-order sensory neurones begin at the olfactory receptors in the nasal cavity and pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone to synapse with second-order neurones at the olfactory bulb. A fracture of the cribriform plate can disrupt these first-order neurones, leading to anosmia and a loss of taste sensation. However, the olfactory bulb is supported and protected by the ethmoid bone, making it less likely to be affected by the fracture. The second-order neurones arise in the olfactory bulb and form the olfactory tract, which divides into medial and lateral branches. The lateral branch terminates in the piriform cortex of the frontal lobe, which is further from the ethmoid bone and less likely to be disrupted. Understanding the neuronal path of the olfactory pathway can help identify potential disruptions and their effects on our sense of smell and taste.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young patient is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident...

    Correct

    • A young patient is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident and presents with the following symptoms:
      respiratory rate 15 bpm
      pulse 70 bpm
      blood pressure 120/80
      Glasgow Coma Score 3/15
      nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid
      orbital haematoma (‘raccoon eyes’)
      no other facial bruising.
      What is the probable cause of the patient's injuries?

      Your Answer: Anterior fossa skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures Based on Clinical Signs and Symptoms

      When assessing a patient with significant head trauma, it is important to identify the type of skull fracture present. An anterior fossa skull fracture is indicated by orbital hematoma and nasal bleeding mixed with clear fluid, which is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. On the other hand, a posterior fossa skull fracture does not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma. A middle fossa skull fracture may produce ear bleeding or CSF otorrhea, and Battle’s sign, or postauricular ecchymosis, is a localizing feature. A paranasal sinus fracture may cause nasal bleeding but is unlikely to cause a CSF leak. Finally, a depressed skull vault fracture may occur alongside an anterior fossa skull fracture but will not cause CSF rhinorrhea or orbital hematoma on its own. Therefore, identifying the clinical signs and symptoms can help differentiate between different types of skull fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man with a history of smoking and high blood pressure arrives...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of smoking and high blood pressure arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden-onset abdominal pain. He reports that the pain is severe and radiates to his back. Upon examination, a pulsatile mass is detected in his abdomen. The patient is currently stable and able to communicate without difficulty. The medical team suspects an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Which layers of the abdominal aortic wall are expected to be dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intima, media and adventitia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that involves the enlargement of the abdominal aorta, the main blood vessel that supplies blood to the lower body. To understand this condition better, it is important to know the three layers of the aortic wall: the intima, media, and adventitia.

      In a true AAA, all three layers of the aortic wall are affected, with most occurring in the infrarenal segment. This means that the diameter of the aorta is greater than 3 cm or has increased by over 50% from the baseline. The intima and media are pathologically more affected, but the adventitia is also involved.

      A false aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm, on the other hand, only affects the intima and media layers. It is important to note that a true AAA always involves all three layers of the aortic wall.

      It is physically impossible to have an aneurysm only in the outer layer of the aortic wall, as blood would have to pass through the intima and media to cause the destruction of elastin and collagen in the adventitia. Similarly, the intima is the innermost layer of the aortic wall and is certainly affected in an aneurysm, but it is not the only layer involved.

      Understanding the layers of an AAA is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition. Regular check-ups and screenings can help detect an AAA early, which can improve the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child comes to the Emergency Department after being electrocuted by a faulty power socket in her apartment. Her echocardiogram reveals no abnormalities and her conduction system is normal after eight hours of cardiac monitoring.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocography (CTG)

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for Pregnant Women after Electrical Injury

      Electrical injuries in pregnant women over 22 weeks gestation can have significant effects on fetal conduction and uteroplacental blood flow, potentially leading to placental abruption. Therefore, it is crucial to perform appropriate investigations to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is the first step in fetal monitoring after an electrical injury. This test can detect any fetal heart rate abnormalities and should be followed by an obstetric consultation. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is not an appropriate investigation in this case, as it is used to detect birth defects and genetic diseases. Foetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a specialised investigation that is only considered if a foetal ultrasound has equivocal findings.

      A foetal ultrasound may be necessary, but the first step is always a CTG. It is important to investigate the health of the baby and the mother before discharge, even if the mother appears to have not sustained any injury. Therefore, a CTG and an obstetric consultation should be obtained to ensure the welfare of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at moderate speed. He falls and lands on the curb, hitting his left ribs. There is no loss of consciousness. He is brought into the Emergency Department, complaining of left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm after morphine analgesia; his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and he is peripherally cold; the respiratory rate is 25 and saturations are 99% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals displaced left lower rib fractures, without other thoracic pathology.
      What diagnosis would you be most concerned about?

      Your Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      Assessing a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

      When evaluating a patient with blunt force trauma, it is crucial to have a good understanding of regional anatomy to assess potential damage to underlying structures. In cases where there is blunt force trauma to the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and associated tachycardia and tachypnea, suspicion of splenic rupture arises. Despite significant trauma and suspected blood loss, compensatory mechanisms such as peripheral vasoconstriction (resulting in cold peripheries) and increased cardiac output (resulting in tachycardia) may maintain an adequate blood pressure.

      The patient should be managed according to the principles of Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), including an ABCDE assessment, wide-bore intravenous access, and blood sampling for hemoglobin level and cross-matching of blood. If stable, an urgent computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis is necessary. If unstable, an emergency laparotomy is required.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include aspiration pneumonia, cardiac tamponade (less common with blunt force trauma), early chest infection (possible in the future due to fractured ribs), and occult pneumothorax (possible due to fractured ribs, but not likely to produce significant physiological changes).

      Evaluating a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old man has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He is brought...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He is brought to the Emergency Department as a major trauma ‘code red’ call. He has already had drug-assisted intubation at the scene and a thoracostomy to his left chest. He remained critical throughout the journey to hospital, receiving intravenous (IV) fluids and 2 units of O-negative red blood cells. On primary survey, he has equal chest expansion, but with crepitus and clear injuries to his left chest. He is tachycardic at 160 bpm, with an unrecordable blood pressure (BP). On further exposure, he has multiple marks over his abdomen and torso, and a distended, tense abdomen. A FAST scan is positive, with free fluid in the abdomen. A concurrent chest X-ray shows fractured ribs on the left, but otherwise clear lung fields, without haemothorax. He has now received 3 units of packed red cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma, along with 2 litres of crystalloid fluid. Following these interventions, his BP is recorded at 74 mmHg systolic, and he remains unstable.
      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Immediate laparotomy in theatre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for a Haemodynamically Unstable Trauma Patient with Intra-Abdominal Bleeding

      When faced with a haemodynamically unstable trauma patient with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding, there are several management options to consider.

      Immediate laparotomy in theatre is the most urgent and potentially life-saving option. This approach involves exploring the abdomen to identify and control any bleeding sources.

      Placing a left-sided intercostal drain is not necessary in this scenario, as the patient is ventilating normally with a thoracostomy.

      A trauma computed tomography (full-body CT) may be useful in stable patients to identify the source of bleeding and facilitate focused immediate surgery. However, in an unstable patient, taking the time to transport them to the scanner could delay definitive management and be fatal.

      Trauma laparoscopy is only appropriate for stable patients with a mechanism of injury consistent with injury of a single organ. In this case, the patient is too unstable and the intra-abdominal blood would obscure any view from the camera.

      Taking the patient to interventional radiology for an urgent angiogram and embolisation is only an option if the source of bleeding has already been identified on trauma CT. The source would have to be discrete enough to be amenable to embolisation.

      In summary, immediate laparotomy in theatre is the most appropriate management option for a haemodynamically unstable trauma patient with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding. Other options may be considered in stable patients with a clear source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax, along with fracture of the pelvis and right humerus. A chest drain was inserted, which kept on bubbling over the next few days. The air leak got worse when the drain was connected to low-grade suction and the lung failed to expand fully.
      What is the most likely cause of this complication?

      Your Answer: Injury to a major bronchus

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of persistent air leak after chest trauma

      Injury to a major bronchus: a possible cause of persistent air leak after chest trauma

      When a patient presents with a history of chest trauma and a persistent air leak from a chest drain, one possible explanation is injury to a major bronchus. This type of injury can occur when a forceful blow to the chest happens while the glottis is closed, leading to a tear or rupture of the bronchial wall. The presence of surgical emphysema, which is the abnormal accumulation of air in the tissues due to a communication between the airways and the pleural space, can be a clue to this diagnosis. However, if the injury is not recognized initially, the air leak may worsen or persist despite suction applied to the chest drain, and the affected lung may fail to re-expand.

      The management of major air leaks from bronchial injuries typically involves pleurodesis, which is a procedure that aims to create adhesions between the two layers of the pleura, thus obliterating the pleural space and preventing further air leakage. This can be achieved by different methods, such as video-assisted thoracoscopy or the application of blood and fibrin patches.

      Other possible causes of persistent air leak after chest trauma include tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate decompression of the pleural space, and fat embolism, which can occur in patients with multiple injuries and may cause respiratory and neurological symptoms as well as skin petechiae. However, these conditions can usually be distinguished from bronchial injury based on the clinical features and imaging findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient in their mid-40s is transferred from a District General Hospital to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their mid-40s is transferred from a District General Hospital to the Burns and Trauma Centre. They arrive intubated. The history is that they were on some scaffolding holding a pole, which they touched onto an overhead powerline, causing electrocution. They fell backwards and were found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) arrest by paramedics, who resuscitated them with defibrillation. They have small burns on their hands and also their left foot. On arrival at the Trauma Centre, they have a full CT traumagram which showed no other injuries. Their C-spine has been radiologically cleared. You are examining them, and you notice they have a swollen, tight left leg. The nurse brings you their blood gas, and you see they have a potassium level of 6.3 and they have mild metabolic acidaemia, with a pH of 7.21. Their urine is tea-coloured (catheter in situ), with a creatine kinase (CK) level of 1232.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat the potassium and check CK as he may have rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Perform fasciotomies on his left leg

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment for Compartment Syndrome and Rhabdomyolysis Following Electrocution

      A patient has been admitted with compartment syndrome, rhabdomyolysis, and hyperkalaemia following electrocution. The safest response is to perform fasciotomies on the affected muscle compartment to prevent further rhabdomyolysis and save the limb. While treating the mild hyperkalaemia and checking CK levels and renal function are important, they are not immediate priorities. Anticoagulation is not necessary without confirmation of deep vein thrombosis. X-rays are unnecessary as a trauma CT scan has already been performed. Elevating the limb may help reduce pressure, but the only way to treat the underlying compartment syndrome is through emergency fasciotomies. Debridement of the burns is unlikely to be necessary at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      64.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of pain in the back of his ankle and difficulty walking. He reports hearing a loud snap while participating in a 5-km obstacle course. Upon examination, the physician observes swelling at the back of the ankle and a positive Simmonds test. The patient is diagnosed with a ruptured Achilles tendon. What is the best course of action to promote healing of the damaged tendon?

      Your Answer: Rest, ice, compression and elevation (RICE)

      Correct Answer: Below-knee plaster cast

      Explanation:

      Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man is brought in by air ambulance following a crush injury...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is brought in by air ambulance following a crush injury while working on his farm. He became sandwiched between two pieces of equipment at the level of the umbilicus. He has been stabilised by the team on the field and has good pedal and femoral pulses, without sign of any acute pelvic damage. A bedside ultrasound-focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) scan is positive.
      What is the most important initial step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Crossmatch two units of red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Suspected Intra-Abdominal Bleeding

      When a patient presents with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding and haemoperitoneum, urgent attention is required to prevent further deterioration. The following investigations may be considered:

      Crossmatch two units of red blood cells: This is the most important initial investigation as the patient is likely to need a blood transfusion to replace any blood loss. While O-negative blood can be used while awaiting cross matching results, group-specific crossmatched blood is preferred to reduce the risk of transfusion reactions.

      Computerised tomography (CT) abdomen and pelvis: This is needed to investigate the source of the bleeding and determine an appropriate management plan. However, the crossmatch should be performed first as there can be a time delay for cross-matched blood to be available.

      Angiogram of pelvic arteries: This may be performed in the work-up of suspected peripheral vascular disease or acute pelvic fractures. However, it is less appropriate in this case as there is no sign of any bony pelvic injuries or acute arterial damage.

      Erect chest X-ray: This is unlikely to provide any further information or guide management in this case as the patient has already had a positive FAST scan and requires detailed imaging via CT.

      Full blood count: This should be performed at the same time as crossmatching red blood cells to obtain baseline haemoglobin. However, it is not the most important investigation as there may be a delay in blood loss showing up as reduced haemoglobin in acute haemorrhage.

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Suspected Intra-Abdominal Bleeding

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 94-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall at home. He...

    Correct

    • A 94-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall at home. He reports pain in his right groin when moving and is unable to put weight on his leg, despite taking regular full-dose paracetamol and codeine. Although his pain is well managed when he is at rest, he feels drowsy from the pain relief. An X-ray of his hip and pelvis has revealed no apparent cause for his discomfort. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of hip and pelvis

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a neck of femur fracture and is unable to bear weight despite pain relief, further imaging is necessary to rule out an occult fracture. An MRI scan is the best option as it has almost 100% sensitivity for detecting such fractures and can also identify soft tissue injuries. If an MRI is not available or contraindicated, a CT scan should be performed. Physiotherapy and rehabilitation should be put on hold until a fracture is ruled out. A bone scan or CT may be considered if there is a delay in arranging an MRI and suspicion of an occult fracture. Oral morphine sulfate may be appropriate for pain relief, but caution is needed to avoid drowsiness and further falls. A repeat plain film is unlikely to be helpful as it has lower sensitivity than an MRI and the patient may not be able to weight-bear for the film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old head trauma patient who is in Critical Care is having difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old head trauma patient who is in Critical Care is having difficulty consuming enough calories due to bilateral limb fractures that are non-weight-bearing and previous blunt trauma to the chest causing multiple rib fractures. The medical team decides to administer supplemental feeding through a nasogastric (NG) tube. The junior doctor successfully inserts the NG tube but seeks guidance from their senior on the most effective way to verify its correct placement.
      What is the appropriate method for confirming the proper positioning of the NG tube?

      Your Answer: Aspirate and test pH. If pH is above 2, then it is inserted correctly

      Correct Answer: Perform a CXR and look for midline descent to below the diaphragm before crossing to the patient’s left-hand side in the stomach.

      Explanation:

      Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric (NG) Tube

      To ensure correct placement of an NG tube, a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed to confirm midline descent below the diaphragm before crossing to the left-hand side in the stomach. Misplacement of an NG tube is a never event due to the high mortality rate associated with feeding through a misplaced tube. Seeking radiological support to confirm placement is recommended, and the tip of the NG tube should be visualized ideally. Monitoring oxygen saturations or aspirating and checking the aspirate’s appearance or pH level are not reliable methods for confirming placement. The minimum requirement for confirming placement is ensuring the NG tube progresses below the diaphragm and moves to the left-hand side to sit in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his left upper abdomen, directly below the costal margin in the mid-axillary line. Which organ is the most probable to have been harmed?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Colon

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Abdominal Organs and Stab Wound Location

      The location of a stab wound in the mid-axillary line, immediately inferior to the costal margin, is likely to affect the colon, specifically the splenic flexure of the colon. The spleen can also be affected if the wound is deep enough. Other structures may also be affected depending on the depth and direction of the wound. However, the small intestine, left kidney, spleen, and stomach are unlikely to be affected in this scenario due to their respective locations in the abdomen. It is important to understand the anatomy of abdominal organs to determine potential injuries in cases of trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A man in his thirties receives a punch to the left side of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his thirties receives a punch to the left side of his face resulting in a black eye. He reports experiencing numbness in his left cheek and upper teeth on that side.
      Which nerve is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic branch of the facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves and their Functions in Facial Sensation and Movement

      The face is innervated by several nerves that serve different functions. The infraorbital nerve supplies sensation to the upper teeth and cheek, but is vulnerable to direct trauma and pressure. The supratrochlear nerve provides sensation to the upper eyelid, conjunctiva, and lower middle forehead. The mental nerve supplies sensation to the lower lip and chin, while the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve gives motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi. Lastly, the chorda tympani is responsible for taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Understanding the functions of these nerves is crucial in diagnosing and treating facial injuries and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter Emergency Medical Service (HEMS) in severe hypovolaemic shock. She was involved in a multiple vehicle accident and has sustained injuries all over her body, including her head, chest, abdomen, and long bones. She is intubated with C-spine control and a large bore subclavian line is inserted for resuscitation. In the ambulance, she received 2 units of packed red cells (PRC) and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP), but she still has a very weak pulse.
      Her initial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9 and resuscitation efforts continue as she is given another 3 units of PRC and 3 units of FFP on the way to the operating theatre. Platelets and cryoprecipitate are also requested. Despite these interventions, her pulse remains weak and the anaesthetist is struggling to place an arterial line for blood pressure monitoring and continued blood sampling. During this time, you observe a change in her electrocardiogram (ECG): it was previously narrow and fast, but is now broad and slowing down.
      What is the most likely explanation for this change in the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      In a patient receiving massive transfusion, several factors can affect the electrolyte balance and lead to electrocardiogram (ECG) changes. One of the most critical complications is hyperkalaemia, which can cause tented T waves, widening of the PR and QRS intervals, and ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Regular blood gas measurements and monitoring of electrolytes such as calcium and potassium are essential to detect and treat hyperkalaemia promptly. Calcium gluconate/chloride and insulin/50% dextrose can be used to control potassium levels.

      Hypokalaemia is unlikely to occur in this scenario, as massive transfusion and acidaemia tend to raise potassium levels. Hypokalaemia typically causes ECG changes such as prolonged PR interval, prominent U waves, and ST depression, which can progress to supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias.

      Hypocalcaemia can result from chelation by the citrate in stored blood, but it is unlikely to cause the ECG signs described. The most common ECG change associated with hypocalcaemia is prolongation of the QTc interval due to lengthening of the ST segment.

      Coronary artery thrombosis is a possible cause of ECG changes, but it would typically manifest as ST elevation or depression, which is not the case here.

      A severe transfusion reaction can also occur, but it is unlikely to give rise to the ECG changes described. Signs of a transfusion reaction include pyrexia, shortness of breath, bronchospasm, and loss of consciousness, along with tachycardia and hypo- or hypertension.

      In summary, when evaluating ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion, hyperkalaemia should be the primary concern, followed by other electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Regular monitoring and prompt intervention can prevent life-threatening arrhythmias and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 8-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department after falling on his outstretched...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department after falling on his outstretched hand. He is experiencing severe pain and cannot move his arm. An X-ray shows a fracture of the distal radius, along with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint. The ulna appears to be intact. What is the most probable type of injury that this patient has suffered?

      Your Answer: Colles fracture

      Correct Answer: Galeazzi fracture-dislocation

      Explanation:

      Common Fracture-Dislocations: Types and Characteristics

      Fracture-dislocations are common injuries that occur due to falls or direct blows. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Galeazzi Fracture-Dislocation: This type of injury is most common in children and occurs when falling onto an outstretched hand with the elbow in flexion. It involves a radial shaft fracture with dorsal angulation, dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, and radial shortening. Surgical fixation is required due to its instability.

      Colles Fracture: This type of fracture occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand and involves a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation and impaction. There is no associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint.

      Bankart Fracture: This type of fracture occurs as a complication of an anterior shoulder dislocation where the labrum and glenohumeral capsule/ligament are injured due to compression of the humeral head against the labrum. It is often seen with a Hill-Sachs lesion.

      Monteggia Fracture-Dislocation: This type of injury involves a fracture of the ulnar shaft and dislocation of the radial head. It typically occurs following a fall onto an outstretched hand.

      Smith’s Fracture: This type of fracture occurs due to a fall onto a flexed wrist or a direct blow to the back of the wrist. It involves a fracture of the distal radius with volar, not dorsal, angulation of the distal fragments.

      In summary, fracture-dislocations are common injuries that require prompt medical attention and appropriate treatment to ensure proper healing and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had pierced the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach. Which direct branch of a vessel is most likely to have been severed by the knife?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Upper Abdomen: A Brief Overview

      The upper abdomen is supplied by several arteries that arise from the aorta. In this context, we will discuss the gastroduodenal artery, coeliac trunk, hepatic artery proper, splenic artery, and short gastric artery.

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery that supplies blood to the stomach and duodenum. The right gastro-omental artery, one of its terminal branches, runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery.

      The coeliac trunk is a short artery that arises from the aorta and supplies blood to the foregut. It gives rise to the left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries and is located more medially than the knife injury in this case.

      The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that courses to the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum.

      The splenic artery is a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk that supplies blood to the spleen. The left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery, runs along the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the right gastro-omental artery.

      The short gastric artery is one of several arteries that branch off the splenic artery and supply blood to the fundus of the stomach.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of these arteries is crucial for diagnosing and treating injuries and diseases of the upper abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department after a low-speed road...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department after a low-speed road traffic collision. He removed himself from the vehicle and was standing in the layby upon arrival of the ambulance. Since he was complaining of neck pain, he was immobilised at the scene as a precaution. All observation en route and on arrival to the Emergency Department are within the normal range, but he is complaining of ongoing pain in the ‘middle’ of his neck. There are no neurological symptoms of note. When you examine him, there are no other injuries apparent, but he is complaining of pain when you press over his upper cervical spine.
      What is the next step in the investigation and management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Keep the patient immobilised and request plain films of the cervical spine

      Explanation:

      Management of Traumatic Neck Pain

      Traumatic neck pain is a serious condition that requires immediate attention, especially in cases of high-risk mechanisms such as road traffic collisions. Missed cervical spine injuries can lead to ongoing morbidity and even mortality. In such cases, decision support rules like the NEXUS criteria can guide emergency physicians in clearing the cervical spine.

      If the patient presents with central neck tenderness, it is inappropriate to mobilize them or re-examine them after analgesia. Instead, the patient should be immobilized, and plain films of the cervical spine should be requested. If any abnormalities are seen on the plain films, orthopaedic consultation may be required for further management.

      It is important to note that CT of the cervical spine should only be used when absolutely necessary due to the significant dose of radiation to the thyroid area. Therefore, immobilization and plain films are the first line of management for traumatic neck pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      38.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Trauma (12/20) 60%
Passmed