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  • Question 1 - Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology

      Correct Answer: Do nothing

      Explanation:

      Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.

      In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.

      If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.

      Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.

      Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.

      Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.

      Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.

      References:
      1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
      2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
      3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up. Which medication is most commonly linked to the occurrence of proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high levels of cholesterol, and swelling in different parts of the body. The causes of nephrotic syndrome can be classified into primary glomerulonephritis, systemic disease, drugs, and others.

      Primary glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome, accounting for around 80% of cases. The different types of primary glomerulonephritis include minimal change glomerulonephritis, membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

      Systemic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, and amyloidosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome, accounting for about 20% of cases. Certain drugs like gold and penicillamine can also lead to the development of nephrotic syndrome.

      Other causes of nephrotic syndrome include congenital factors, neoplasia such as carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma, and infections like bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, and malaria.

      The diagram shows the different types of glomerulonephritis and how they typically present. Understanding the underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      56
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling...

    Correct

    • You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. A urine dipstick shows leucocytes+, nitrites -.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Send for MC&S and start antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for UTI in Children

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children between 3 months to 3 years old with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) can start antibiotic treatment if their urine sample shows either leucocyte or nitrite positive, or both. However, it is still recommended to send off the sample for culture to confirm the diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment. These guidelines aim to provide a standardized approach in managing UTI in children and prevent complications associated with untreated infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      89.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried he might have a stroke. Which of the following is the single, strongest risk factor for developing a stroke?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and smoking are all factors that increase the risk of developing a stroke. However, among these options, hypertension is the most significant risk factor for stroke. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, leading to a stroke. Therefore, it is crucial to manage hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication to reduce the risk of stroke. By controlling hypertension, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine cervical smear. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative.

      However, this latest smear has revealed mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme has also included HPV (human papillomavirus) testing as part of the screening process. Her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear in 6 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      HPV Triage in NHS Cervical Cancer Screening Programme

      HPV triage is a new addition to the NHS cervical cancer screening programme. It involves testing cytology samples of women with borderline changes or mild dyskaryosis for high-risk HPV types that are linked to cervical cancer development. The aim is to refer women with abnormalities for colposcopy and further investigation, and if necessary, treatment. However, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. HPV testing provides additional information to help determine who needs onward referral for colposcopy and who doesn’t. Women who test negative for high-risk HPV are simply returned to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy. HPV testing is also used as a ‘test of cure’ for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and have returned for follow-up cytology. Those with ‘normal’, ‘borderline’, or ‘mild dyskaryosis’ smear results who are HPV negative are returned to 3 yearly recall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother because she has been drinking alcohol. Her mother disapproves of her daughter's decision, but is having difficulty justifying her stance to her daughter. She asks the General Practitioner to explain to her daughter some of the problems associated with alcohol use.
      From which of the following complications is she most at risk?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Cannabis Use: Psychiatric Complications and Medicinal Benefits

      Cannabis use can have both negative and positive effects on an individual’s health. When it comes to psychiatric complications, the age of onset of cannabis smoking, duration of exposure, and individual risk factors play a significant role. Panic attacks are the most common complication, but early cannabis use (before the age of 15) carries a greater risk for schizophrenia than use starting later in life. In fact, one study found that 1 in 10 people who used cannabis before the age of 15 developed a schizophrenic-like disorder by age 26, compared to only 3% of older cannabis users. It’s important to note that the risk of schizophrenia is specific to cannabis and not other drugs.

      On the other hand, medicinal cannabis has been shown to have benefits for certain health conditions. It has been advocated for pain and spasticity in multiple sclerosis, pain control in sensory neuropathies, seizure control in epilepsy, and in the treatment of Crohn’s disease. As with any medication, it’s important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32 year old woman comes to your clinic 3 weeks after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman comes to your clinic 3 weeks after giving birth to a healthy baby girl. She is worried that her baby is not breastfeeding properly, unlike her previous two children. The baby seems to struggle with latching on and the mother experiences pain during attachment. You suspect that the baby may have tongue-tie. What is true about tongue-tie?

      Your Answer: Most often resolves spontaneously by 2 weeks after birth

      Correct Answer: Division of the tongue-tie is usually performed without anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tongue-Tie

      Tongue-tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a congenital condition that is characterized by a short, thick lingual frenulum that restricts the movement of the tongue. The severity of the condition varies, with some cases being mild and others more severe. In mild cases, the tongue is only bound by a thin mucous membrane, while in more severe cases, the tongue is tethered to the floor of the mouth.

      While some cases of tongue-tie are asymptomatic and can be managed with simple interventions such as breastfeeding advice and tongue exercises, others can cause significant problems with breastfeeding, speech, and oral hygiene. A tethered tongue can prevent the tongue from contacting the anterior palate, which can lead to open bite deformity and mandibular prognathism.

      To prevent future problems with speech, swallowing, and feeding, many clinicians advocate for early surgical division of the lingual frenulum. This procedure, known as frenotomy, involves using sharp, blunt-ended scissors to divide the frenulum. In infants, the procedure is usually performed without anesthesia, although local anesthesia may be used in some cases. In older infants and children, general anesthesia is typically required.

      Overall, understanding tongue-tie and its potential consequences is important for parents and healthcare providers alike. Early intervention can help prevent future problems and ensure that children are able to breastfeed, speak, and eat properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults

      Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype

      Explanation:

      Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 10 - You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours....

    Incorrect

    • You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.

      Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.

      What would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease

      The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.

      Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent

      Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.

      The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman and her partner are expecting their second baby. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman and her partner are expecting their second baby. The patient has mild learning difficulties and receives additional support from her health visitor. She discloses that her partner assaulted her during her first pregnancy but that she is reluctant to do anything about it. Before you can explore this further, she becomes upset and leaves the room.
      What would be the most appropriate action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact the patient to ask her to come back and discuss this with you

      Explanation:

      Options for Responding to a Patient’s Disclosure of Domestic Violence

      When a patient discloses domestic violence, it can be difficult to know how to respond. One option is to contact the patient and ask her to come back to discuss the situation further. This allows for more information to be gathered, including any ongoing risk and the patient’s ability to keep herself safe and consent to third-party involvement.

      Another option is to report the disclosure to the police, but only if there is imminent danger or the patient lacks capacity to give or refuse consent. Similarly, informing social services requires consent unless there is a risk of harm or lack of capacity.

      Asking the patient’s partner to make an appointment is not appropriate, as it could put the patient in more danger and breach confidentiality. Instead, offering to see the patient again through a letter is important, but it should also be clear that the patient is safe and not at risk of harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
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  • Question 13 - Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells...

    Incorrect

    • Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.

      On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.

      Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a full family history

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

      Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.

      If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.

      It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 14 - Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. Her last pill-free break started 20 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago. What is the best course of action to manage her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions and omit the pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two pills are missed during the third week of taking COCP, the patient should finish the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. This will require an additional 7 days of using additional precautions. Emergency contraception is not necessary in this situation unless unprotected intercourse occurred during the first week of taking the pill with the omission of two pills or during the pill-free week. Simply restarting the pill without omitting the pill-free interval or taking additional precautions is not appropriate as it will not provide adequate protection after the episode of unprotected intercourse.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, type two diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage three (CKD 3) presents with a unilateral red eye with purulent discharge. You diagnose her with bacterial conjunctivitis. Considering her medication history, which drug should you avoid prescribing as eye drops?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should steer clear of using chloramphenicol eye drops for treating bacterial conjunctivitis. Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim should also be avoided as they can increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity and pancytopenia. Aspirin and lisinopril are unlikely to interact seriously with methotrexate. However, caution should be exercised when using gliclazide and metformin in patients with a history of CKD 3, although the concurrent use of chloramphenicol is not expected to pose any problems.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The baby has developed a scaly, yellowish patch on her scalp and the mother seeks your advice. Upon examination, you notice the patch located on the occipital area of the baby's head, but she appears to be in good health otherwise. What would be the best course of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advise use of baby shampoo

      Explanation:

      Seborrheic dermatitis, also known as ‘cradle cap’, is a frequently observed condition in newborns. Parents usually do not seek medical advice and the issue often resolves on its own with minimal intervention. It is unnecessary to seek extensive treatment for a 10-day-old child with this condition.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Common Skin Disorder

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a skin disorder that is commonly seen in children. It usually affects the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the early signs of this condition is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. Cradle cap is characterized by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

      The management of seborrhoeic dermatitis in children depends on its severity. For mild to moderate cases, baby shampoo and baby oils can be used. However, for severe cases, mild topical steroids such as 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary.

      Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. It is important to seek medical advice if the condition persists or worsens despite treatment. With proper management, children with seborrhoeic dermatitis can have healthy and clear skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral

      Explanation:

      A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.

      When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.

      Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.

      If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.

      Source: CKS

      According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 21 - Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of the receptionists who is shouting for help.
      You run into the reception area to find the mother of a 7-month-old child shouting that her child has been stung by a bee. The practice nurse is preparing to give oxygen.
      The child appears distressed and has stridor. The lips are swollen. You have made a quick ABC assessment, diagnosed anaphylaxis and decided to give adrenaline. Beside the child, your practice nurse has opened the emergency bag and you are presented with vials of epinephrine (adrenaline) 1:1000 solution.
      How much of this epinephrine would you administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.05 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic Reactions: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Anaphylactic reactions can vary in severity and may be delayed by several hours. The most common triggers are foods, bee and wasp stings, and drugs. Symptoms may include itching, redness, and swelling. Beta-blockers can worsen the reaction by blocking the response to adrenaline. Unlike a vasovagal attack, anaphylaxis is usually accompanied by a rapid heartbeat.

      Initial management of anaphylaxis involves administering high-flow oxygen, laying the patient flat, and elevating their legs to combat hypotension. If the patient is experiencing respiratory distress or shock, epinephrine should be given intramuscularly. It is recommended that practices have vials of epinephrine 1:1000 solution on hand, along with the necessary syringes and needles.

      The recommended doses of epinephrine vary by age, with adults and children over 12 years receiving 0.5 ml (500 micrograms), children aged 6-12 receiving 0.3 ml (300 micrograms), and children under 6 receiving 0.15 ml (150 micrograms). Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone may also be given intramuscularly, but hydrocortisone is of secondary value in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.

      What recommendations would you provide to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 23 - As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics of patients attending a hypertension clinic. She calculates that the mean age of the patients is 56 years old, and that the variance of the data is 64. She wants to calculate the standard deviation of the data set.

      What is the connection between standard deviation and variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation is the square root of variance

      Explanation:

      The square root of variance is equal to standard deviation, while variance is the squared value of standard deviation.

      Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread

      Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who has requested health insurance. They enclose written consent from the patient. They request that you complete a short questionnaire and also include a photocopy of the patients' notes. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient against including a photocopy of their medical notes

      Explanation:

      The ABI prohibits doctors from sending full medical records as medical reports for insurance purposes. Insurance companies only require relevant information and sending unnecessary information may breach the Data Protection Act 1998 and compromise a doctor’s registration.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports

      When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.

      When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
      – Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
      – Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
      – Obtain written consent before releasing any information
      – Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
      – Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 25 - You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an interview with a 35-year-old man who has increased his alcohol consumption after a recent breakup. According to NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable method to screen for alcohol dependence and harmful drinking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries from NICE, it is recommended to utilize formal assessment tools to evaluate the extent and seriousness of alcohol misuse. This includes utilizing the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test) as a routine measure for identification purposes. This can assist in determining whether a brief intervention is necessary and, if so, what type of intervention is appropriate. In situations where time is limited, it is recommended to use a shortened version of the AUDIT, such as the AUDIT-C (AUDIT-Consumption), and then follow up with the complete questionnaire if problem drinking is indicated.

      Alcohol Problem Drinking: Detection and Assessment

      Alcohol problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. Therefore, it is important to detect and assess alcohol consumption to identify those who may need intervention. Screening tools such as AUDIT, FAST, and CAGE can be used to identify hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

      AUDIT is a 10-item questionnaire that takes about 2-3 minutes to complete. It has been shown to be superior to CAGE and biochemical markers for predicting alcohol problems. A score of 8 or more in men, and 7 or more in women, indicates a strong likelihood of hazardous or harmful alcohol consumption. A score of 15 or more in men, and 13 or more in women, is likely to indicate alcohol dependence. AUDIT-C is an abbreviated form consisting of 3 questions.

      FAST is a 4-item questionnaire that can quickly identify hazardous drinking. The score for hazardous drinking is 3 or more. Over 50% of people will be classified using just the first question, which asks how often the individual has had eight or more drinks on one occasion (six or more for women).

      CAGE is a well-known screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Two or more positive answers are generally considered a ‘positive’ result. The questions ask about feeling the need to cut down on drinking, being annoyed by criticism of drinking, feeling guilty about drinking, and having a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover.

      To diagnose alcohol dependence, the ICD-10 definition requires three or more of the following: compulsion to drink, difficulties controlling alcohol consumption, physiological withdrawal, tolerance to alcohol, neglect of alternative activities to drinking, and persistent use of alcohol despite evidence of harm.

      Overall, screening and assessment tools can help identify individuals who may need intervention for alcohol problem drinking. It is important to use these tools to promote early detection and intervention to prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening for Addison's disease, presents to the clinic with poor compliance.

      She feels that the hydrocortisone upsets her stomach and wants to switch to enteric coated prednisolone.

      What would be the appropriate corresponding daily dose of prednisolone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone

      Glucocorticoid therapy is commonly used for the suppression of various diseases. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and as a short-term emergency treatment. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.

      On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. The approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1, meaning that 5 mg of prednisolone is equivalent to 20 mg of hydrocortisone. A glucocorticoid dose calculator can be used for other dose conversions.

      In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired outcome. Hydrocortisone is suitable for short-term and emergency use, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old boy visits his GP with a complaint of knee pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy visits his GP with a complaint of knee pain that has been bothering him for a week. He has no notable medical history. What factor would increase the likelihood of a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain relieved by rest and made worse by kneeling and activity, such as running or jumping.

      Explanation:

      Patellofemoral pain syndrome is a common knee condition that affects a large number of individuals. It typically develops slowly and starts off as mild and sporadic, but can eventually become severe and persistent. The pain is alleviated by taking a break and exacerbated by activities like kneeling, running, or jumping.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 28 - A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice surgery to discuss his treatment. He feels that he is not coping emotionally and has not returned to his work as a construction worker; he is feeling very low in mood. He is anxious and is not sleeping well. He doesn't want to discuss his feelings with his family; he asks for some information about services available for psychological support.
      What is the most appropriate initial advice you can provide this patient about access to psychological support?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Psychological Assessment and Support for Cancer Patients

      Cancer patients often experience psychological distress related to their diagnosis and treatment. To address this, providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment, as recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Referrals to community or specialist services should be made as needed.

      It is important to note that psychological support should be available throughout a patient’s cancer journey and need not be limited to the end of active treatment. While patients with a previous history of mental health problems may require a referral to a psychiatrist, other services may be more appropriate for some patients.

      In addition, Admiral Nurses, who specialize in Alzheimer’s support, are not directly involved in cancer care and may not be the best source of emotional support for cancer patients. Overall, the importance of psychological assessment and support for cancer patients cannot be overstated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and has tested...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and has tested positive for a BRCA1 mutation on genetic screening. Her mother and aunt both received treatment for breast cancer at a young age, indicating a strong family history of the disease.

      The woman is worried that she may have passed the gene onto her son and daughter, and is also concerned that her sister may have inherited the gene.

      During counselling, what is the most appropriate statement to make regarding the risk of her family members inheriting the BRCA1 gene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Both children and her sister have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Risk Factors

      Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women worldwide. There are several factors that can increase a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer. One of the most significant predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes, which can increase a woman’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation exposure, p53 gene mutations, and obesity. Additionally, previous surgery for benign disease may increase the risk of breast cancer due to the possibility of scar tissue hiding a lump. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.

      She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check for red reflex

      Explanation:

      Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma

      In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.

      Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.

      Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Passmed